IFR Navigation General Knowledge/IN1490 Exam

Question 1

What items are including in an IFR clearance?

Answer 1

CRAFT

Clearance Limit
Route
Altitude
Frequency
Transponder Squawk

**Also includes Aircraft ID & Additional Info

Question 2

What taxi instructions are mandatory to readback?

Answer 2

All holding short instructions

Question 3

CNAF M-3710.7 Non-Precision Approach T/O Minimums

Answer 3

300’ ceiling
1 SM visibility

Question 4

CNAF M-3710.7 Precision T/O Minimums

Answer 4

200’ ceiling
1/2 SM visibility
2400 RVR

Question 5

What does the “Climb Via XXX” instruction from ATC mean?

Answer 5

Pilots must comply with the following:
* The SID’s lateral path
* Associated speed restrictions
* Associated SID altitude

Question 6

What does the “Climb Via SID Except Maintain” instruction from ATC mean?

Answer 6

Pilots must comply with the following:
* The SID’s lateral path
* Associated speed restrictions

ATC will give an altitude to maintain

Question 7

Pertaining to SIDs what does ATC instructions without the “Climb via” mean?

Answer 7

Pilots must comply with the following:
* The SID’s lateral path
* Associated speed restrictions

Question 8

What are the dimensions of a basic airway route?

Answer 8

Primary obstacle clearance area:
* 8 NM wide (4NM on each side)
* +/- 4.5° from the NAVAID up to 51NM from the NAVAID

Past 51NM, it flares out to 2NM every 13NM based on +/- 6.5° from the NAVAID

Question 9

What are the different ways of identifying a NAVAID change over point (COP)?

Answer 9

1. The straight Z symbol
2. A dogleg
3. DME halfway between NAVAIDs

Question 10

What is the enroute altimeter setting if you are below 18,000’ MSL and ≤ 31.00 in-Hg?

Answer 10

Set the local altimeter of the station within 100NM of your current position

ATC will provide at altimeter setting at least once while you are under their area of jurisdiction

Question 11

What is the enroute altimeter setting if you are AT or ABOVE 18,000’ MSL?

Answer 11

Set 29.92 in-Hg

Question 12

What is the enroute altimeter setting if you are below 18,000’ MSL and > 31.00 in-Hg?

Answer 12

Set 31.00 in-Hg

Question 13

What information is needed to change your flight plan enroute when talking to ATC?

Answer 13

DRAFT

Destination
Route
Altitude
Fuel Remaning
Time Enroute

DRAFT is ONLY for ATC

Question 14

If changing your IFR flight plan enroute with the FSS, where can I find the required information to give them?

Answer 14

The full list of items is on the back of the IFR Enroute Supplement

Question 15

What does the “Cleared XXX arrival” instruction mean from ATC?

Answer 15

The pilot must comply with the following:
* The STAR’s published lateral routing
* The STAR’s published airspeed restrictions

Pilots will maintain the last assigned altitude from ATC

Question 16

What does the “Descend Via XXX arrival” instruction from ATC mean?

Answer 16

The pilot must comply with the following:
* The STAR’s published routing
* The STAR’s published airspeed restrictions

Descend at the pilot’s descrection to the altitude depicted at the waypoint

Question 17

What information does a Feeder Route give?

Answer 17

Heading to the IAF
Minimum Altitude
Distance to the IAF

Question 18

When can you descend to the minimum altitude of a feeder route?

Answer 18

When cleared for the approach by ATC

Question 19

When should you normally slow down to 150 KIAS?

Answer 19

5NM prior to the IAF

Question 20

When should you normally slow down to 120 KIAS in BAC?

Answer 20

5NM prior to the FAF

Question 21

For straight-in approaches, if the distance between the IAF and the FAF is more than 10NM, when do you slow down to 150 KIAS?

Answer 21

When you are 10NM from the FAF

**Maintain cruise airspeed up until this point

Question 22

What items are required for an approach brief?

Answer 22

1. Approach name
2. Weather minimums
3. NAVAID (NAVAIDs required for the approach, names & frequencies)
4. IAF
5. Course(S): Initial and Final Approach Courses
6. Segment Altitudes
7. MDA/DA as applicable
8. Missed Approach Point & how it will be identified
9. Missed Approach/Climb Out Instructions
10. Unusual/Noteworthy Items

Question 23

When are Procedure Turn Approaches NOT excuted?

Answer 23

SNERT

• Cleared for a Straight-In Approach
• Flying the approach via NoPT routing
• Established in a holding pattern aligned with the Procedure Turn course and cleared for the approach
• Radar vectors to final
• Cleared for a Timed Approach

Question 24

What is the outbound leg timing of a Procedure Turn?

Answer 24

One minute

Question 25

How many orbits are authorized in a HILO PT?

Answer 25

Only one orbit is authorized (the entry orbit)

Question 26

What is the outbound timing for a non-depicted teardrop?

Answer 26

Two minutes

Question 27

For GPS approaches, what are the three PFD modes when the source is set to FMS?

Answer 27

Enroute (ENR) Terminal (TERM) Approach (APR)

Question 28

CDI Deflection for ENR Mode

Answer 28

2NM/full scale ## Footnote **"TEA 12.3"**

Question 29

CDI Deflection for TERM Mode

Answer 29

1NM/full scale ## Footnote **"TEA 12.3"**

Question 30

CDI Deflection for APR Mode

Answer 30

0.3NM/full scale ## Footnote **"TEA 12.3"**

Question 31

When does the changeover from TERM → ENR occur?

Answer 31

When the aircraft is 33NM from the origin airport or Above 16,000' above the origin airport

Question 32

When does the changeover from ENR → TERM occur?

Answer 32

When the aircraft is 30NM or less from the destination airport AND below 15,000'

Question 33

When does the changeover from ENR → APR occur?

Answer 33

When the aircraft is 2NM from the FAF

Question 34

When does the changeover from APR → TERM occur?

Answer 34

When the MISS APR is selected

Question 35

For RVFAC, what airspeeds do you fly during the approach?

Answer 35

* Downwind = 200 KIAS * Base = 150 KIAS * Final = 120 KIAS

Question 36

What is considered a stablilized approach?

Answer 36

800-1000 FPM descent rate

Question 37

What should you do if you have full CDI deflection prior to the FAF?

Answer 37

* Re-intercept the Final Approach Course * Do not descend below FAF altitude if unable to return to the "on-scale" indication by the FAF

Question 38

What should you do if you have full scale CDI deflection after the FAF but prior to the DA or MAP?

Answer 38

* Turn to re-establish and track the Final Approach Course to the non-precision MAP **WHILE** climbing to the missed approach altitude * At the non-precision MAP, execute/comply with the published missed approach procedures

Question 39

How can a Missed Approach Point (MAP) be defined?

Answer 39

* Station passage * Timing * DME * DME backed up by timing

Question 40

What are the differences between a PAR w/o GS and an ASR approach?

Answer 40

A PAR w/o GS approach can have you handed over to a final approach controller whereas an ASR only uses one controller A PAR w/o GS is more precise than an ASR so it will have lower minimums The ASR use the airport surveillance radar the entire approach whereas the PAR w/o GS uses the PAR Radar on final

Question 41

For a PAR, when can you begin your descent?

Answer 41

Wait to begin your descent until you hear the controller say "on glidepath""

Question 42

What category is a T-6B for a High Altitude Instrument Approach?

Answer 42

Category C

Question 43

What are some visual references that constitute "Runway Environment in Sight"?

Answer 43

* Approach lighting system * Threshold * Threshold markings * Threshold lights * Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) * Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)

Question 44

What obstacle clearance is provided by the circling minimums?

Answer 44

A basic minimum of 300' of obstacle clearance at the MDA within the circling area

Question 45

What are the immeadiate priorities when executing a Missed Approach?

Answer 45

1. Establishing a positive rate of climb 2. Turn the aircraft (if required) to intercept the missed approach course or designated heading ##FOOTNOTE **Aviate, Navigate, Communicate**