IFR Oral Flashcards

Question

IFR Departure Clearance Items

Answer 1

CRAFT Clearance Limit Route Altitude Frequency Transponder code

Answer 2

-cannot take off your takeoff void time -must notify ATC within 30 mins if not off by your void time

Answer 3

MARVELOUS VFR C 500 *required only in non radared environment Missed approach Airspeed +/- 10 kts/ 5% change from file TAS Reaching a holding fix (report time and alt) VFR on top ETA change +/- 3 mins Leaving a holding fix/ point Outer Marker Unforecasted Weather Safety of flight Vacating an Altitude / FL Final Approach Fix Radio/ Nav Failure Compulsory Reporting Points unable to descend/ climb 500/ fpm

Answer 4

no takeoff mins for part 91 operations

Answer 5

- adjust outbound leg so inbound leg is 1 min -at bewow 14,000 ft MSL - min per leg 14,001 ft and above 1.5 mins DME / GPS holds fly specified distance

Answer 6

Up to 6000 ft MSL - 200 KT IAS 6001- 14,000 MSL 230 kt IAS At or above 14,000 ft MSL 265 kt IAS

Answer 7

Decision altitude or height - cannot descend below unless mandatory visual ref. are in sight - cannot cruise at alt/ decision must be made for landing or missed

Answer 8

Max Authorized Alt

Answer 9

Min Crossing Alt

Answer 10

Min Descent Alt

Answer 11

Min En Route Alt

Answer 12

Min Obstruction Clearance Alt - obstacle clearance clearance &nav coverage within 22 NM of NAVAID

Answer 13

Min Off Route Obstacle Clearance

Answer 14

Min Reception Altitude

Answer 15

Min Vectoring Altitude

Answer 16

Off Route Obstacle Clearance Alt

Answer 17

M.E.A fly highest M- min alt prescribed for IFR E - expected (ex expect 5000 afte r10 mins) A- Altitude -last assigned

Answer 18

AVE F A- Assigned route V- vectored (fly route/ airway last vectored to) E - last expected route by ATC f - Filed Route

Answer 19

All three conditions must be met: 1 aircraft is in a continuous position from which a descent to land can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers 2. flight visibility is not less than prescribed 3. at least one visual ref is visible approach light system, threshold lighting, REIL, VASI, touchdown zone markings/ lighting, runway markings, runway lights

Answer 20

A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straightin approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin provided adequate visual reference is established. If not equipped to identify the VDP, fly the approach as if no VDP was published.

Answer 21

1.3 VSO Cat A -less than 90 knots Cat B - 91-120 Kt Cat C- 121-140 KT Cat D 141-165 kt

Answer 22

When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route.

Answer 23

Must be specifically requested by the pilot.(It cannot be initiated by ATC) - Requires at least 1SM reported ground visibility and the aircraft to remain clear of clouds. -Available only at airports with approved instrument approach procedures

Answer 24

Initiated by either ATC or the pilot. -Requires at least 1000’ ceiling and 3SM visibility. (IFR under VMC) -Pilot must have either the airport or the traffic to follow in sight

Answer 25

A-Altimeter T- Tachometer for each engine. O- Oil pressure gauge M- Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine A- Airspeed indicator T- Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine O- Oil Temp gauge for each engine F- Fuel quantity gauge for each tank L- Landing gear position lights (if retractable gear) A- Anticolision lights M- Magnetic compass E- ELT, if required by §91.207 S- Safety belts

Answer 26

F.L.A.P.SF- Fuses (spare set) L- Landing light (if for hire) A- Anticolision light P- Position lights (navigation lights) S- Source of power (such as battery)

Answer 27

G- Generator/alternator R- Radios (two way and navigational equipment appropriate for the ground facilities to be used) A- Altimeter(sensitive) adjustable for barometric pressure B- Ball (slip-skid indicator) C- Clock (shows hours minutes and seconds and installed as part of aircraft equipment.) A- Attitude indicator R- Rate of turn indicator D- Directional gyro (Heading indicator)

Answer 28

every 30 cal days VOT +- 4 Airborne VOR check +- 6

Answer 29

Ground speed x 10 =VSI ft/ min

Answer 30

Allows nav on any desired course without the use of ground facilities -gps

Answer 31

- needs at least 5 satellites

Answer 32

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitering - function of GPS that monitors the intergrity of satellite signals - requires 5 satellites

Answer 33

VOT Ground Check Airborne Airway Dual VOR

Answer 34

Date, place, bearing error, and signature

Answer 35

Chart supplements

Answer 36

Airspeed Indicator, Vertical Speed Indicator, Altimeter

Answer 37

Indicated Airspeed - increase with altitude / decrease with loss of altitude Altimeter- unaffected VSI- unaffected

Answer 38

Indicated Airspeed- will display zero Altimeter unaffected VSI - unaffected

Answer 39

Airspeed indicator - airspeed will decrease w/ altitude gained and vice versa Altimeter - doesn't change w/ alt gain or loss VSI- won't show any changes

Answer 40

everything will remain constant

Answer 41

-powered by an engine driven vacuum pump -Rigidity in space & Precession

Answer 42

- heading indicator -attitude indicator - suction gauge - turn coordinator (electronic gyro)

Answer 43

UNOS - Undershoot North / Overshoot South ANDS- Accelerate North / Deaccelerate South

Answer 44

HORIZONTAL SITUATION INDICATOR - combines the functions of the heading indicator and the VOR receiver into one instrument display -

Answer 45

Each dot represents 2° of deviation. Half scale deflection is 5° off course

Answer 46

Tune to frequency and identify morris code

Answer 47

VOR not working but DME is working

Answer 48

-Line of sight only -Cone of confusion” – During passage of a station the aircraft is directly above the VOR and this causes large needle deflections and momentary loss of signal -Pilot Error  Failure to properly tune and identify  Failure to check for accurate signal  Reverse sensing

Answer 49

Altitude aircraft has a direct effect on slant range error. This error will be minimized if the aircraft is at least 1 mile away from the station for every 1000’ of altitude.

Answer 50

Wide Area Augmentation System Enhances the GPS integrity and availability by: Incorporating wide-area ground reference stations to monitor the signal from the GPS satellites. The information is sent to a master station where the correction occurs The corrected signal is a sent to a GEO (geostationary satellite) and is broadcast on the same frequency as GPS to WAAS receivers.

Answer 51

GPS must be certified by TSO-C129 (RAIM) or TSO-C145 or 146 (WAAS) The installation must be done in accordance with AC 20-138 If not, then the GPS can only be used to enhance situational awareness but ACTIVE MONOTORING or an alternate navigation source is required.

Answer 52

As long as RAIM is assured, no requirement to ACTIVELY MONITOR other navigational sources Generally only provides lateral guidance Alternate airport must have an IAP other than GPS and those ground based NAVAIDS must be monitored RAIM is not guaranteed – signal could be lost due to 1. Inadequate number of satellites in position at the airport 2. Satellite malfunction 3. Antenna location on the aircraft 4. Changes in pitch or bank angle

Answer 53

http://sapt.faa.gov/ FSS Briefers can provide RAIM predictions for a 3 hour period Alternatively, go to AUX page 3 on the GNS 430 and use the RAIM prediction tool

Answer 54

More precise than RAIM Provides lateral and vertical navigation without the temperature errors associated with Baro-Vnav No RAIM prediction necessary An airport that only has a GPS approach may be selected as an alternate *for flight planning purposes – only LNAV minimums can be considered

Answer 55

Visual: approach lighting system, VASI/PAPI, and precision approach runway Range: marker beacons/compass locator and/or DME Lateral and vertical guidance: localizer and glideslope

Answer 56

Outer marker: 4-7 miles – usually at the glideslope intercept position Middle marker: 3500’ – represents the decision altitude (200’ above TDZE) Inner marker: Located between the MM and the landing threshold – represents the DH for a CAT II ILS approach

Answer 57

Compass locators, DME, VOR, GPS, Precision Approach Radar (PAR), or Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR)

Answer 58

Localizer courses vary between 3° and 6° so that at the landing threshold the total width is 700

Answer 59

like a localizer but not aligned with the runway

Answer 60

1. Cross the departure end of the runway at or above 35’ AGL 2. Make first turn no earlier than 400’ AGL (unless otherwise specified) 3. Maintain climb gradient of at least 200fpnm (unless otherwise specified)

Answer 61

1. Determine that an ODP has been published 2. Determine whether or not to fly it even if not issued by ATC in a clearance. Pilots are encouraged to fly ODPs at night, in MVFR, and IFR conditions 3. Determine aircraft performance is adequate for the procedure 4. Be aware of low close-in obstacles

Answer 62

The T symbol in the notes section of an IAP means that the takeoff minimums are not standard. Refer to the takeoff minimums section of the TPPs for the new criteria and ODPs. ODPs are always textual and sometimes graphic. Graphic ODPs will have (OBSTACLE) printed on them

Answer 63

Determine your aircraft’s rate of climb with the POH. Use the chart in the back of the TPPs to convert it to climb gradient. Alternatively: 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑙𝑖𝑚𝑏 = 𝑔𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 60 x climb gradient

Answer 64

Obstacles that are located within 1nm of the departure end of the runway that penetrate the 40:1 OCS. Avoidance can be assured by early liftoff or visually. The obstacle location and their heights are contained in the notes section of the takeoff minimums in the TPPs.

Answer 65

A visual climb over airport allows the pilot to climb while circling to get to a safe altitude. It is developed if there are obstacles beyond 3sm from the airport that require a climb gradient of more than 200fpnm. It must be conducted in VMC

Answer 66

While SIDs still provide obstacle clearance, they are designed to 1. Reduce ATC and pilot workload 2. Minimize communications 3. Increase airspace capacity 4. Simplify clearances 5. Comply with noise abatement procedures SIDs must be issued in a clearance by ATC and are always printed graphically in the TPPs.

Answer 67

(4nm from each side of the centerline

Answer 68

At that point depicted on the airway as the changeover point In the absence of a changeover point, the halfway point on the airway Whenever there is a bend in an airway

Answer 69

In mountainous areas, 2000’ above the highest obstacle within 4nm In non-mountainous areas, 1000’ above the highest obstacle within 4nm

Answer 70

to the right

Answer 71

Precision approach – 2 miles visibility and 600’ ceiling Nonprecision approach – 2 miles visibility and 800’ ceiling

Answer 72

When you see this symbol, triangle around an A- go to the alternate minimums section of the TPPs to see what the weather requirements are to file this airport as an alternate

Answer 73

A in triangle with NA means that alternate minimums are not authorized due to either an unmonitored facility, absence of weather reporting, or inadequate navigation coverage

Answer 74

Only if the aircraft is equipped with WAAS capable GPS certified under TSO-C145 or TSO-146

Answer 75

Tower En route Control is a service that allows pilots to travel between airports in select metropolitan areas without leaving approach control airspace. It is designed to expedite air traffic and reduces ATC and pilot communications. You can find these routes in the Tower En route Control section of the Chart Supplement

Answer 76

Established between busier airports to increase system efficiency and capacity and help pilots plan their route of flight. See the preferred IFR routes section of the Chart Supplements for more details.

Answer 77

The heavy black lines represent the arrival. The thinner lines are the transitions

Answer 78

Initial – Begins at the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) and aligns the aircraft with the intermediate or final approach segment and also allow a descent in the process. The section can include, DME arcs, holding patterns, or course reversals. Intermediate – Begins at the Intermediate Fix (IF) and is designed to position the aircraft for the final descent. It is normally aligned within 30° of the final approach course. Final – Begins at the Final Approach Fix (FAF) and brings the aircraft down to the appropriate minimum for a landing. Missed – Begins at the Missed Approach Point (MAP) and ends at a designated fix. During a precision approach or APV this occurs at the DA. On a nonprecision approach, it is a designated fix, waypoint, NAVAID, or it may occur after a specific amount of time has elapsed.

Answer 79

1. When No-PT is printed 2. When there is a hold in lieu of a PT 3. When cleared straight in 4. Timed approaches from a fix (AIM 5-4-10) (IFH 10-18) 5. Radar vector

Answer 80

provides both lateral and vertical guidance

Answer 81

only lateral guidance

Answer 82

– Approaches with Vertical Guidance provide course and glidepath information but do not conform to the ICAO Annex 10 standards so they cannot rightfully be called precision approaches although LPV minimums are often identical to that of an ILS.

Answer 83

An ATC controller monitors the progress with radar

Answer 84

1. When the final approach course alignment with the runway exceeds 30° 2. Descent gradient is greater than 400fpnm 3. The runway is not clearly defined

Answer 85

Cat A - 0-90 kts Cat B - 91-120 CAT C- 121-141 Cat D- 141-165 Cat E- 166 + KTS

Answer 86

15C or 59F – 29.92" Hg or 1013.2 mb

Answer 87

sobars connect equal lines of pressure. Closely spaced isobars means that there is a strong pressure gradient and winds will be strong.

Answer 88

At the surface winds flow at an angle to the isobars because of surface friction. Aloft, winds from more or less parallel because of the Coriolis force.

Answer 89

Stable air: stratiform clouds, poor visibility, smooth air, steady or continuous precipitation Unstable: Cumuliform clouds or clouds with vertical development, good visibility, turbulence, and showery precipitation

Answer 90

Low – Cyclone – counterclockwise and rising air High – Anti Cyclone – clockwise and descending air

Answer 91

Ridge – extended area of high pressure – descending air Trough – extended area of low pressure – rising air

Answer 92

Unstable atmosphere (pg.52) – an unstable atmosphere can be noted by the ambient lapse rate Sufficient Moisture – the temperature/dew point spread can be used to determine how moist the air is. Lifting Action – Some of these lifting actions may include heating from below (rising warm air called thermals), orographic lifting (wind pushing a moist unstable air mass upslope), or frontal lifting (a fast moving cold front displacing warm, moist, and unstable warmer air for example).

Answer 93

Cumulus – the building stage of a thunderstorm characterized by updrafts only. Mature – Updrafts and downdrafts both occur at this point. Violent turbulence can be experienced (start of rainfall) Dissipating – At this point the cloud is only giving off downdrafts and the thunderstorm is dissipating.

Answer 94

Rapid change in wind direction or velocity – it can cause dramatic changes in indicated airspeed and causes severe turbulence within the shear zone

Answer 95

Advection: moist warm air moves over colder land or water Radiation: forms on clear nights with little or no wind and only over land Upslope: moist unstable air is cooled as wind pushes it up a slope Precipitation Induced: warm rain falls through cool air. Evaporation from the rain saturates the cool air and fog forms.

Answer 96

Increases drag and weight Decreases lift & thrust

Answer 97

Induction Icing Instrument Structural Rime Clear Mixed

Answer 98

Icing of the pitot tube or static ports can cause the instruments to give inaccurate readings or to fail completely

Answer 99

This includes any icing that impedes that process of air entering the intake manifold to be mixed with fuel

Answer 100

– Ice that forms on the surface of the aircraft. Since airfoils create lift by decreasing the pressure and thus the temperature of the air around them, icing on the propeller, horizontal and vertical tail surfaces, and wings can form at ambient temperatures that are above the freezing level

Answer 101

Rime Ice – Small rain drops found in stratified clouds or drizzle freeze upon impact with the airfoil. Air that is trapped between the droplets give the ice a white or opaque appearance. It builds up typically at the leading edge only and has an irregular shape. This makes it more easily recognizable to the pilot and easier to remove by deicing equipment. Clear Ice – Large super-cooled water droplets found in either heavy rain or in cumuliform clouds strike the airfoil but do not freeze immediately. Instead they slide backwards across the surface as they freeze. Clear ice is smooth and glossy making it very difficult to see from the cockpit. Because it adheres to the surface beyond the leading edge it can be difficult to remove. Mixed Ice – Occurs when drops very in size

Answer 102

Standard – Should be requested when planning a flight and no previous weather information has been gathered Abbreviated – Used to supplement mass disseminated data or to update a previous briefing Outlook – Request when proposed departure time is 6 or more hours away

Answer 103

Enroute Flight Advisory Service – provides up to date weather advisories for pilots while enroute

Answer 104

Aviation Routine Weather Report Routine or special Issued hourly Valid for the hour

Answer 105

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast 3 types: Routine (TAF) Amended (TAF AMD) or Corrected (TAF COR) Issued 4 times a day (every 6 hours) Valid for 24-30 hours Forecast for area within 5sm of airport

Answer 106

FROM – Rapid change occurring within 1 hour BECMG – Gradual change to take place over the course of 1 hour TEMPO – Between the predicted period, this weather will only occur for less than an hour PROB – number placed afterwards is the probability of the weather forecasted to occur

Answer 107

- 4X Daily Synopsis: Valid for 18 hours – contains a short description of weather affecting the area during the valid period. This includes location and movement of pressure system. VFR clouds and weather: Valid for 12 hours – gives a general description of clouds and weather that are significant to VFR operations. Outlook: Valid for 6 hours –describes the prevailing condition

Answer 108

Issued twice a day every 12 hours and provide wind and temperature information for specific areas within the U.S

Answer 109

Always negative

Answer 110

Winds are from 210 at 105 kts and temperature is –56 C

Answer 111

Issued 8 times daily and valid for 3 hours Shows position of pressure systems, fronts, local weather, wind speed and directions, and visual obstructions

Answer 112

Graphical depiction of METAR information Issued 8 times daily and valid for 8 hours It is a flight planning tool to see overall surface conditions across the U.S.

Answer 113

Forecast of aviation weather hazards such as icing, freezing levels, and turbulence Issued 4 times a day there is a 12 hour forecast and a 24 hour forecas

Answer 114

Issued 35 minutes past every hour and valid for 1 hour. Displays areas of precipitation and indicates the height of the radar echo tops in hundreds of feet MSL. Movement of cells is indicated by an arrow that points in the direction of the movement with the speed in knots beside it. This chart does not show clouds or fog, only precipitatio

Answer 115

Vestibular, Somatosensory, visual

Answer 116

Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in the body. It is occurs at 4 different levels

Answer 117

Oxygen is not available at adequate pressure for the lungs to absorb. This occurs when we climb higher in altitude and the air becomes less dense.

Answer 118

This is the inability of the red blood cells to carry oxygen to the other cells. The most common cause in aviation is carbon monoxide poisoning especially with small piston aircraft. Cabin heat is provided by ducting engine heat from the exhaust manifold into the cockpit. If there is any kind of leak in this system, exhaust fumes containing carbon monoxide will enter the cockpit as well. Carbon dioxide molecules bond to the hemoglobin in red blood cells 200x faster than oxygen molecules, leaving no more room for the blood cells to carry the oxygen. Smoking cigarettes will also induce hypemic hypoxia because you are inhaling carbon monoxide. Other causes of this type of hypoxia include anemia (a sickness caused by lowered hemoglobin) or donating blood.

Answer 119

This is the cells’ (other than blood cells) inability to use the available oxygen. Using drugs or alcohol can cause this. When using even over-the-counter medicine, consult an AME to see if it is okay for use in flight.

Answer 120

Inability of oxygen to reach cells because of poor circulation (pulled too many G's)

Answer 121

Poor judgement, memory, alertness, visual acuity and coordination. Sensation of euphoria or sometimes even belligerence can occur (a macho attitude). Other symptoms include, dizziness, headache, drowsiness and cyanosis (blue coloration of lips and fingernails).

Answer 122

Inversion – Abrubt change in altitude creates the illusion of tumbling backwards Coriolis – Rapid head movement causes the illusion of accelerating or turning Elevator – An updraft causes the pilot to think that aircraft is in a climb. Pilot reacts by forcing the nose down inducing a dive. False Horizon – Sloping cloud formations or obscured horizons confuse the pilot into misaligning with the horizon. Leans – Abrubt recovery from a roll can mislead pilot into thinking aircraft is in a turn in the opposite direction. Autokinesis – At night, stationary lights may appear to be in motion. Pilot may lose control of aircraft trying to align it with “moving” light. Graveyard Spiral – In a prolonged constant rate turn, sensation of the turn is not felt. In recovery to straight and level, the pilot may sense a turn in the opposite direction and pull back on the yoke, only tightening the spiral. Somatogravic – Rapid acceleration causes the illusion of the being in a nose up attitude. Rapid deceleration will have the opposite effect.

Answer 123

A systematic approach to risk assessment and stress management. The two defining elements of ADM are hazard and risk

IFR Oral Flashcards

(151 cards)