IFR Quick Review

Question 1

Logging instrument time-

Answer 1

A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.

Question 2

Personal documents required for flight:

Answer 2

􏰀 Pilot certificate

􏰀 Medical certificate

􏰀 Authorized photo ID (passport, driver’s license, etc)

􏰀 Restricted radiotelephone operator license (for flights outside the U.S.) (§61.3 and FCC)

Question 3

Aircraft documents required for flight:

MARROW S

Answer 3

􏰀 M- MEL

􏰀 A- Airworthiness certificate

􏰀 R-Registration certificate

􏰀 R-Radio station license (for international flights) 􏰀 O-Operating limitations & AFM

􏰀 W-Weight & Balance data
(§21.5, §91.103, §91.9, §91.203, FCC form 605)

􏰀 S- Supplemental Documents

Question 4

Aircraft maintenance inspections required for IFR:

A.V.I.A.T.E

Answer 4

A-Annual inspection every 12 cal. Months (§91.409) 􏰀 V-VOR every 30 days (§91.171)

I-100 hour inspection (§91.409)

A-Altimeter, altitude reporting and static system every 24 cal. months (§91.413)

T-Transponder every 24 months (§91.413)

E-ELT every 12 months (§91.207), battery lower than 50% or

Question 5

Preflight info required for IFR: (§91.103)

W.K.R.A.F.T-

Answer 5

W- Weather reports and forecasts.
K- Known traffic delays as advised by ATC.
R- Runway length of intended use.
A- Alternatives available if flight cannot be completed as planned.
F- Fuel requirements
T- Takeoff and landing performance data.

Question 6

I.M S.A.F.E-

Answer 6

I- Illness
M- Medication
S- Stress
A- Alcohol (“8 hours bottle to throttle”; no more than .04% of alcohol in blood) 
F- Fatigue
E- Emotion

Question 7

P.A.V.E-

Answer 7

P- Pilot (general health, physical / mental / emotional state, proficiency, currency)

A- Aircraft (airworthiness, equipment, performance)

V- EnVironment (weather hazards, terrain, airports / runways to be used & other
conditions)

E- External pressure (meetings, people waiting at destination, etc.)

Question 8

To carry passengers as PIC

or

To act as PIC

§61.56, §91.109, §61.57)

Answer 8

CARRY -

􏰁 3 takeoffs and landings in last 90 days in the same
category, class and type (if type rating required).

􏰁At periods between 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour
before sunrise: 3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop during 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise in the last 90 days.

ACTING

-flight review in the last 24 cal. Months (see FAR for exceptions)

Question 9

IFR Minimum Altitudes

Mountainous
Non Mountainous
Where can you find mountainous terrain?

Answer 9

Mountainous areas: 2,000ft above highest obstacle within 4NM of course.

Non-mountainous areas: 1,000ft above highest obstacle within 4NM of course. (§91.177)

AIM 5-6-5

Question 10

Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP) (AIM 5-2-8)

Answer 10

􏰀 Only provides obstruction clearance.

􏰀May be flown without an ATC clearance unless a SID or other
instructions are assigned. (e.g. radar vectors)

􏰀 Graphic ODP denote “Obstacle” in the chart title. 􏰀All new RNAV ODPs are available in graphical form.

􏰀 Found in the front of NACO chart booklets, arranged alphabetically by city name.

􏰀 Jeppesen charts show ODPs under the airport diagram (10-9) page, or, at larger airports, on a separate chart.

Question 11

Standard Instrument Departures (SID) (AIM 5-2-8)

Answer 11

􏰀 Provide obstruction clearance and helps reducing radio
congestion and workload by simplifying ATC clearances.

􏰀Pilot NAV SIDs – Pilot navigates by charted routes with
minimal radio instructions.

􏰀Vector SIDs –Navigation is based on radar vectors. Routes are
not printed on the chart.

􏰀 Some SIDs depict non-standard radio failure procedures.

􏰀 File ”NO SIDs” in the remarks of your flight plan if you choose
not to use them.

􏰀RNAV SIDs and all graphical RNAV ODPs require RNAV 1
performance. (±1 NM for 95% of the total flight time).

Question 12

Standard Terminal Arrivals (STAR) (AIM 5-4-1)

Answer 12

􏰀 Serves as a transition from the en route structure to a point from
which an approach can begin.

􏰀 Transitions routes connect en route fixes to the basic STAR
procedure.

􏰀 Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure
begins.

􏰀 As with SIDs, you may state “No STARs” in your flight plan remark section if you choose not to use them.

􏰀 RNAV STARS require RNAV 1 performance.

Question 13

IFR minimum fuel requirements (§91.167)

Answer 13

Fuel from departure to destination, go missed and fly to alternate, plus 45 minutes at normal cruise.

Question 14

When do you need an alternate destination?

1-2-3 Rule

Answer 14

Within 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA forecasted weather is less then:

2000 ft ceiling and/or
3 SM visibility

Question 15

Alternate Airport Minima

Answer 15

Whatever is specified in the procedures or if none:

•Precision approach:
600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility

•Non-precision approach: (must be other than non-WAAS GPS) 800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility

•No instrument approach at the alternate:
ceiling & visibility allowing descent from MEA, approach and landing under basic VFR.

Question 16

Clearance void time

Answer 16

The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff. You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart.

Question 17

“Hold for release”

Answer 17

You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure.

Question 18

Release time

Answer 18

The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR.

Question 19

Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)

Answer 19

A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.

Question 20

Mandatory reports under IFR

M.A.R.V.E.L.O.U.S. V.F.R. C.500

Answer 20

M-Missed approach (AIM 5-3-3)

A-Airspeed ±10kt / 5% change of filed TAS (AIM 5-3-3)

R-Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude) (AIM
5-3-3)

V-VFR on top (AIM 5-3-3)

E*-ETA change ±3 min (AIM 5-3-3)

L-Leaving a holding fix/point (AIM 5-3-3)

O*-Outer marker (AIM 5-3-3)

U-Unforecasted weather (§91.183)

S-Safety of flight (§91.183)

V-Vacating an altitude/FL (AIM 5-3-3)

F*-Final approach fix (AIM 5-3-3)

R-Radio/Nav failure (§91.187)

C*-Compulsory reporting points (§91.183)

500-unable climb/descent 500 fpm (AIM 5-3-3)

*required only in a non-radar environment (including ATC radar failure)

Question 21

Position reports items

Answer 21

Aircraft ID

Position

Time

Altitude/flight level

Type of flight plan (except for communicating with ARTCC/approach control)

ETA

The name only of the next succeeding reporting point along the route of flight

Any pertinent remarks

Question 22

IFR takeoff minimums (§91.175)

More than 2 engines: 1⁄2 SM visibility

Answer 22

No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations. Part 121, 125, 129, 135:

Prescribed T/O minimums for specific runway, or, if none: 􏰀 1-2 engines: 1 SM visibility

More than 2 engines: 1⁄2 SM visibility

Question 23

DA/H 
MAA 
MCA 
MDA/H 
MEA
MOCA
MORA 
MRA
MVA 
OROCA

Answer 23

DA/H – Descent Altitude/Height.

MAA – Maximum Authorized Altitude.

MCA – Minimum Crossing Altitude.

MDA/H – Minimum Descent Altitude/Height.

MEA – Minimum En route Altitude. Assures
navigation coverage and 1000’ (non-mountainous
terrain) or 2000’ (mountainous) obstacle clearance.

MOCA – Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude.
Provides navigation coverage and obstacle
clearance within 22 NM of the NAVAID.

MORA – Minimum Off-Route Altitude. (Jeppesen
charts). Including grid and route MORA.

MRA – Minimum Reception Altitude

MVA – Minimum Vectoring Altitude.

OROCA – Off-Route Obstruction Clearance
Altitude (NACO charts). Assures obstacle clearance within 4NM of course. 1000’ over non-mountainous terrain; 2000’ over mountainous terrain.

Question 24

Holding pattern timing

Answer 24

Adjust the outbound leg so the inbound leg takes:

o At or below 14,000’ MSL – 1 minute
o Above 14,000’ MSL – 1.5 minutes

DME/GPS holds – fly the outbound leg to the specified distance from the fix/waypoint.

Question 25

Max holding speeds
Up to 6000’ MSL

6001’-14,000’ MSL
Above 14,000’ MSL

At Airforce fields
At Navy fields

Answer 25

Up to 6000’ MSL – 200 KIAS
6001’-14,000’ MSL – 230 KIAS
Above 14,000’ MSL – 265 KIAS
May be restricted to 175 KIAS on some inst.
approach procedures.

At Airforce fields – 310 KIAS*
At Navy fields – 230 KIAS*
*Unless otherwise depicted.

Question 26

Lost communications procedure (§91.185)

Altitude
Route

Answer 26

ALTITUDE
M.E.A –fly the highest among:

M – Minimum altitude prescribed for IFR
E – Expected (e.g. “expect 5000ft after 10 minutes”)
A – last altitude Assigned by ATC

ROUTE
A.V.E.F – select route by the following order:

A –Assigned route, if none:
V –Vectored (fly to the fix/route/airway last vectored to), if none: E –last Expected route by ATC, if none:
F – Filed route

Question 27

Leaving the clearance limit:

If the limit is a fix where the approach begins:
If the limit is not where a fix begins:

Answer 27

IF LIMIT IS A FIX WHERE APPROACH BEGINS

-Start descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC, or ETA (if no EFC given)
At EFC or clearance limit (if no EFC given), proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and start the approach

IF THE LIMIT IS NOT WHERE A FIX BEGINS

At EFC or clearance limit (if no EFC given), proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and start the approach

Question 28

Do not fly a procedure turn when:
(§91.175, AIM 5-4-9)

S.H.A.R.P-T.T

Answer 28

S- Straight in approach.

H- Holding in lieu of a procedure turn.

A- Arc

R- Radar vectored to final app course.

P- NoPT depicted on chart.

T- Timed approach.

T- Teardrop course reversal.

Question 29

When can you descend below MDA/ DA? (§91.175)

Answer 29

All three conditions must be met:
1. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the
intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers.

2. The flight visibility (or the enhanced flight visibility, if equipped) is not less than the
   visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used.
3. At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly
   visible and identifiable to the pilot: (except for CAT II & III approaches)

a. The approach light system, except you may descend below 100 feet above the
touchdown zone only if the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable. (ALSF 1 and 2)

Question 30

What is the airport environment?

Answer 30

a. The approach light system, except you may descend below 100 feet above the
touchdown zone only if the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also visible and identifiable.
b. The threshold.
c. The threshold markings.
d. The threshold lights.
e. The runway end identifier lights.
f. The visual approach slope indicator.
g. The touchdown zone or its markings.
h. The touchdown zone lights.
i. The runway or runway markings.
j. The runway lights.

Question 31

VDP

What is it?
How can you calculate it?

Answer 31

A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight in approach procedure from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin provided adequate visual reference is established.

If not equipped to identify the VDP, fly the approach as if no VDP was published.

When a VDP is not published you can use this formula to calculate it:

VDP (in NM from threshold) = HAT/300, or

10% of HAT = seconds to subtract from time to MAP

Question 32

Approach clearances

What’s a contact approach?
What is a and approach visual approach?

Explain both.

Answer 32

Contact approach
o Must be specifically requested by the pilot.(It cannot be initiated by ATC)

o Requires at least 1SM reported ground visibility and the aircraft to remain clear of clouds. o Available only at airports with approved instrument approach procedures.

Visual approach
o Initiated by either ATC or the pilot.

o Requires at least 1000’ ceiling and 3SM visibility. (IFR under VMC) o Pilot must have either the airport or the traffic to follow in sight.

Question 33

Standard rate turn angle of bank calculation

Answer 33

TAS / 10 + 5

Example: 120 KTAS- 120KTAS/10+5=17° ofbank

Question 34

When can you descend to next instrument approach segment?

Answer 34

When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route.
(AIM 5-4-7)

Question 35

Types of precision approach :

Answer 35

Precision (lateral + vertical course guidance):

ILS-Instrument Landing System
MLS-Microwave Landing System
PAR-Precision Approach Radar
GLS-GNSS Landing System
TLS- Transponder Landing System

Question 36

Types of non-precision approach

Answer 36

VOR
NDB
RNAV/GNSS (LNAV minimums)
LOC

LDA-Localizer-type Directional Aid. Identical to
a localizer but is not aligned with the runway.

SDF-Simplified Directional Facility. width: 6° or
12°. May be either aligned or not with the runway.

ASR-Approach Surveillance Radar

APV (Approach with Vertical guidance). Has glide slope but does not meet ICAO precision app. standards:

RNAV/GNSS (LNAV/VNAV, LPV, baro-VNAV minimums)

LDA with a glide slope

Question 37

Rate of decent for a 3° glide slope:

Answer 37

Ground speed X 5 = vs to maintain;

Or,
10 X ground speed / 2 = VS

Example: 120 KT X 5 = 600 fpm or,
10 X 120 KT / 2 = 600 fpm

Question 38

How far out to start a descent? (3° glide)

Answer 38

Altitude to lose / 300

Example: 6000’ to lose, start descent 20 NM out. (6000/300 = 20 NM)

Question 39

Convert climb gradient from ft/NM to fpm

Answer 39

ft/nm requirement X NM per Minute

Ex.: DP requires 300 ft/NM climb.
Your ground speed is 120KT, which is 2NM per minute (120 KT / 60 min = 2 NM per min).
300 x 2 = 600 fpm

Question 40

Types of altitudes (5)

Answer 40

Indicated altitude – Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting (QNH).

Pressure altitude – Altitude above the standard 29.92. Hg plane. (QNE)

Density altitude – pressure alt. corrected for nonstandard temperature. Used for performance calculations.

True altitude – Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL).

Absolute altitude – Height above airport elevation (QFE).

Question 41

Types of Airspeeds

Answer 41

Indicated airspeed (IAS) – indicated on the airspeed indicator

Calibrated airspeed (CAS) – IAS corrected for instrument & position errors.

Equivalent airspeed (EAS) – CAS corrected for compressibility error.

True airspeed (TAS) – Actual speed through the air. EAS corrected for
nonstandard temperature and pressure

Mach number – The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound.

Ground speed – Actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind
conditions.

Question 42

What is compressibility error

Answer 42

The error in the readings of a differential-pressure-type airspeed indicator due to compression of the air on the forward part of the pitot tube component moving at high speeds.

Question 43

Static port blockage:

Answer 43

Airspeed indicator – Shows correct airspeed as long as you maintain the same altitude at which the blockage occurred. At higher altitudes airspeed will indicate lower than it should. At lower altitudes – higher than it should.

Altimeter – will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked.

VSI – freezes on zero.

After verifying a blockage in the static port, you should use an alternate static
source or break the VSI window (in that case, expect reverse VSI information).

When using the alternate static source (a lower static pressure is measured):
Airspeed indicator – indicate faster than it should.

Altimeter – indicate higher than it should.

VSI – momentarily show a climb.

Question 44

Pitot Blockage

Answer 44

The only instrument affected is the airspeed indicator.

Ram air inlet is clogged and drain hole open – Airspeed will drop to zero.

Both air inlet and drain hole are clogged – The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable.

When you suspect a pitot blockage, consider the use of pitot heat to melt ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube.

Question 45

Gyro Instruments:

What principle:
Hows it work etc.

Answer 45

Two principles of a gyroscope: Rigidity in space and precession.

Attitude indicator – operates on the principle of rigidity in space. Shows bank and pitch information. Older AIs may have a
tumble limit. Should show correct attitude within 5 minutes of turning on the engine. Normally vacuum-driven in GA aircraft, may be electrical in others. May have small acceleration/deceleration errors (accelerate-slight pitch up, decelerate- pitch down) and roll-out errors (following a 180 turn shows a slight turn to the opposite direction).

Heading indicator – operates on the principle of rigidity in space. It only reflects changes in heading, but cannot measure the heading directly. You have to calibrate it with a magnetic compass in order for it to indicate correctly. Some HIs are slaved to a magnetic heading source, such as a flux gate, and sync automatically to the correct heading. Normally powered by the vacuum system in on GA aircraft.

Turn indicators – operates on the principle of precision. o Turn coordinators show rate-of-turn and rate of roll. o Turn-and-slip indicators show rate-of-turn only.

Question 46

Magnetic compass errors & limitations:

D.V .M.O.N.A

Answer 46

D- Deviation
Deviation as a result of magnetic interference from the plane.

V- Variation
Variation is the difference between true north and magnetic north

M- Magnetic dip
Magnetic dip creates the most substantial errors in a compass. As you get closer to the North or South Pole, magnetic flux lines point downwards towards the poles, and your compass magnets dip towards the low side of a turn. When magnetic dip is pronounced, it’s difficult to get actual readings

O- Oscillation

N- North/south turn errors
(Northern hemisphere: UNOS Undershoot North/ Overshoot South)

A- Acceleration errors
(Northern hemisphere: ANDS Accelerate North/ Decelerate South)

Question 47

Generic instrument taxi cockpit check

*You should tailor it to your aircraft & operations

Answer 47

Airspeed – 0 KIAS.

Turn coordinator – ball centered and wings level when not turning.
On turns: shows turn in correct direction, ball goes to opposite direction of the turn.

Attitude – Correct pitch attitude and bank angle ±°5 within 5 minutes.

Heading indicator – Set and shows correct headings.

Altimeter – Set to local altimeter settings or field elevation. Shows correct field elevation ±75 feet.

VSI – 0 fpm.

Magnetic compass – swings freely, full of fluid, shows known headings and deviation card is installed.

Marker beacons – Tested.

NAV & Comm – Set.

GPS – Checked and set.

EFIS cockpits – Check PFD/MFD/EICAS for ‘X’s, messages and removed symbols.

Question 48

Hypoxia
What is it?
What are the types?
What are the causes?

Answer 48

Hypoxic hypoxia – insufficient supply of O2 to the body as a whole. As altitude increases, O2 percentage of the atmosphere is constant, but its pressure
decreases. The reduced pressure becomes insufficient for the O2 molecules to pass through the respiratory system’s membranes.

Hypemic hypoxia – Inability of the blood to carry the O2 molecules. It may be a result of insufficient blood (bleeding or blood donation), anemia, or CO
poisoning.

Histotoxic hypoxia – Inability of the body cells to affectively use the O2 supplied by the blood. This can be caused by use of alcohol or drugs.

Stagnant hypoxia - Caused by the blood not flowing to a body tissue. Can be caused by heart problems, excessive acceleration (Gs), shock or a constricted blood
vessel.

Question 49

What is Hyperventilation?

Answer 49

A condition which occurs when excessive amount of is eliminated from the body as a result breathing too rapidly. Symptoms may be similar to those of hypoxia. Breathing into a paper bag or talking aloud helps recovery from hyperventilation.

Question 50

What is decompression sickness?

Answer 50

Inert gasses (mainly nitrogen) are released rapidly from solution in the body tissues and fluids as a result of low barometric pressure. The gasses form bubbles that may harm the body in several ways. The most common result of decompression sickness is joint pain (“the bends”) but it can damage other important tissues, including the brain. Decompression sickness is more likely after scuba diving, where the body is subject to higher pressures. Wait at least 12 hours after scuba diving if your flight is up to 8000ft cabin altitude, or 24 hours for higher cabin altitudes