IFR Study Cards

Question 1

Does holding a valid Instrument Rating Authorise a pilot to operate under the IFR at night in IFR conditions?

Answer 1

Yes

A pilot is authorised to pilot an aircraft under IFR conditions or at night under VFR

Question 2

Does a pilot who holds a valid Instrument Rating allowed to conduct operations at Night under the VFR?

Answer 2

YES

Question 3

When can a pilot operate under the IFR in a Multi Engine aircraft as a single pilot?

Answer 3

When the test or proficiency check was conducted in a single pilot aircraft.

Question 4

What instrument approaches is a pilot authorised to fly under the IFR?

Answer 4

Only approaches for which the pilot is endorsed

Question 5

If you are endorsed on a Multi Engine Aircraft and have only passed an instrument proficiency check on a Single Engine Aircraft are you able to conduct IFR operations in the Multi Engine Aircraft?

Answer 5

No

Only in the class of aircraft endorsed

Question 6

How often must you undertake an Instrument Proficiency Check?

Answer 6

Every 12 months

Question 7

Can the Holder of an Instrument Rating use DME for Navigation without being endorsed on DME equipment?

Answer 7

YES

(The holder of an IR may use DME for navigation or in conjunction with other types of navigation aids other than DME arrival without being endorsed on DME)

Question 8

With regards to recency requirements, when is a pilot authorised to fly under the IFR?

Answer 8

When he/she has conducted a least 3 Instrument approaches within the previous 90 days in a aircraft or approved flight Simulator.

Question 9

With regards to recency when may a pilot operating under the IFR conduct a 2D approach?

Answer 9

When he/she has conducted at least one 2D approach in the last 90 days

Question 10

With regards to recency when may a pilot operating under the IFR conduct a 3D approach?

Answer 10

When he/she has conducted at least one 3D approach in the last 90 days.

Question 11

With regards to recency when may a pilot operating under the IFR conduct an azimuth guidance approach? And

Using which navigation aid is considered to be an azimuth approach?

Answer 11

When he/she has conducted at least one approach in the last 90 days.

An NDB is considered to be the aid in which azimuth guidance is used.

Question 12

With regards to recency when may a pilot operating under the IFR conduct an CDI guidance approach? And

Using which navigation aid is considered to be an CDI approach?

Answer 12

If he/she has conducted at least one CDI approach in the last 90 days. And

ILS and VOR may be used for the CDI approach recency.

Question 13

With regard to Single Pilot operations when is a pilot authorised to conduct single pilot operations under the IFR?

Answer 13

When he/she has conducted at least one flight or simulated flight in the previous 6 months which was of?

At least 1 hours duration and
Included at least one instrument approach.

Question 14

Can the holder of an IFR rating conduct a flight in a multi engine aircraft if the proficiency check was not conducted in a multi engine aircraft?

Answer 14

NO!

If not conducted in a Multi Engine aircraft the holder of the IFR rating cannot use Multi Engine privileges.

Question 15

With regards to IFR proficiency checks, how often must a check be conducted?

Answer 15

Every 12 Months

Question 16

You complete your IPC on the 12th June 2020, when is the last date you can complete an IPC in 2021 give you must complete an IPC every 12 months?

Answer 16

30th June 2021.

Your IPC is valid until the end of the 12th month after the previous proficiency check or from when the initial check was conducted.

Question 17

How many month prior to your IPC current expiry date may you conduct a IPC?

Answer 17

3 Months

Question 18

If you elect to fly your IPC earlier than the due expiry date (up to 3 months early) and you fail that check is your instrument rating still valid?

Answer 18

No! Your instrument rating will no longer valid.

Question 19

During your IPC what is the minimum number of approaches that must be conducted during the check? And

What type of approach must be conducted at a minimum?

Answer 19

Your IPC must include at least 2 approaches.

One of those approaches must be at least a 2D approach.

Question 20

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1

What is the max duty that can be rostered? And can it be extended, and when?

Answer 20

Max Duty that can be rostered is 11 hours. However!

Duty can be extended to 12 hours after the duty has commenced.

Question 21

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1

What is the maximum flight time that may be rostered? And can it be extended?

Answer 21

The max flight time that can be rostered is 8 hours. However!

Flight time can be extended to 9 hours after the duty has been commenced.

Question 22

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1

If an extension of duty exceeds 11 hours or exceeds 8 hours flight time what are the resting requirements necessary following your duty?

Answer 22

1 extra hour of rest for every 15 min of up to an hour and then 24 hours of rest is required.

Question 23

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1

How many days off are required every 7 days and what timeframe must be embraced during the time off?

Answer 23

At least 1 day is required off and must embrace the hours of 10pm - 6am on both sides.

Question 24

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1

What is the maximum flight time allowed every 7 days?

Answer 24

30 Hours

Question 25

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1 What is the maximum amount of hours that must not be exceeded in any 365 days?

Answer 25

900 hours

Question 26

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1 What is the maximum flight time allowed in any 30 day period?

Answer 26

100 hours

Question 27

With regards to Flight and Duty Requirements CAO48.1c What is the maximum amount of duty allowed in any 14 day period?

Answer 27

90 hours

Question 28

What instruments are required for Aeroplanes <5700kg engaged in Aerial Work?

Answer 28

``` 1 x Altimeter 1 x VSI 1 x ASI 1 x AH 1 x DG 1 x TC Compass (direct reading or remote indicating & standby direct reading) 1 x Accurate Time Piece - May be a watch 1 x Vacuum Gauge 2 x Vacuum Pumps from independent sources Pitot heat and 2 Seperate sources or a balanced pair of flush static ports 1 x OAT ```

Question 29

Is an Autopilot required for Aerial Work Survey Aircraft?

Answer 29

No Aircraft engaged in RPT, Charter or Aerial Work as an ambulance or flying doctor under the IFR must have a serviceable autopilot approved by CASA with - Roll & Pitch modes, heading & alt hold. Or Two Control seats with fully functioning dual controls and two pilots

Question 30

With regards to Lighting requirements for Aerial Work, what lighting is required to be serviceable on your aircraft?

Answer 30

1 x Landing Light (2 Landing lights for charter ops (except non passenger carrying) - Instrument lighting with intensity control - Passenger and Pilot compartment - Position and anti-collision lights (beacon and Navigation) - Emergency Lighting (torch for each crew member)

Question 31

What Nav Aids are required for Charter, Air Work and Private opps 5700kgs or less in CTA?

Answer 31

- 2 x ADF or VOR or - DME or - GNSS (Any combo which includes at least 1 x ADF or VOR, GNSS can be 129 or above, or - 2 x TSO-C145a or TSO-146a or TSO-C196a or a later version.

Question 32

What Navigation Aids are required for Aerial Work and Private Operations 5700kg or less MTOW in NON CTA?

Answer 32

- 1 x ADF our VOR - 1 x GNSS TSO-C129 or later version or, - 1 x TSO C145a or C146a or C196a GNSS

Question 33

With accurate QNH set, altimeters should read nominated elevation to within __?__ft. If in excess of __?__ft it should be made Unserviceable.

Answer 33

60ft 75ft

Question 34

Where 2 Altimeters are required, one must read within _?_ft. If the remaining altimeter has an error between _?_ft & _?_ft, flight under IFR is approved to the 1st point of landing where the altimeter can be re-checked. If then in excess of _?_ft, it must be considered _____?______ for flight under the IFR.

Answer 34

- 60ft - 60ft - 75ft - 60ft - Unservicable

Question 35

When fitted with 2 altimeters but only 1 is required, flight under the IFR is permitted providing 1 altimeter reads to within __?__ft. Should the second altimeter have an error in excess of __?__ft, the second altimeter must be “what”?

Answer 35

- 60ft - 75ft - Placarded Unserviceable

Question 36

When the aircraft is fitted with only 1 altimeter and with an error between 60ft and 75ft can you proceed with an IFR flight and if so what are the conditions at first point of landing?

Answer 36

Yes you are approved to proceed with the flight under the IFR to the first point of landing where the altimeter can be re-checked. If the error is still in excess of 60ft on second check, the altimeter must be considered Unserviceable for IFR Flight.

Question 37

How long is an INTER or TEMPO valid for before and after its forecast period?

Answer 37

30 min before and after its forecast period

Question 38

Do you apply buffer periods to a TTF?

Answer 38

No

Question 39

If the INTER or TEMPO falls within a TTF do you apply the buffer period of 30 min before and after either event?

Answer 39

No...no buffers are applied to any event within the buffer period.

Question 40

To within what distance of an Aerodrome does a TAF indicate the forecast weather?

Answer 40

In the airspace within radius of 5nm of the ARP.

Question 41

On a forecast the winds are considered to be in degrees ______?

Answer 41

True

Question 42

On a TAF are cloud bases considered to be AGL or AMSL?

Answer 42

AGL

Question 43

With regards to QNH and Temperature on a forecast what are the hourly intervals from the beginning of the forecast?

Answer 43

3 hourly intervals from the beginning of the forecast

Question 44

How long does a forecast need to be valid for before ETD and your ETA?

Answer 44

30 min before your ETD and | 60 min after your ETA

Question 45

Does a TTF supersede a TAF? How long does a TTF last for?

Answer 45

Yes a TTF always supersede’s a TAF TTFs validity is normally for 3 hours commencing at the time of the observations. However where the TTF service is not a 24 hour service, the validity period will be less then 3 hours during the last 3 hours of service. The end time of the shortened validity period will be indicated in the remarks secretion, e.g. USE TAF FOR ARRIVAL AFTER 0800Z

Question 46

What is meant by the term “CAVOK”?

Answer 46

Cloud and Visibility OK is defined as 1. Visibility +10km 2. No cloud below 5000ft or 3. No cloud below the highest 25nm sector altitude and 4. No significant weather

Question 47

What is a SPECI (AIP 3.5, 4.3)

Answer 47

SPECI’s are non-routine Aerodrome reports issued whenever weather conditions fluctuate about or are below the specified criteria. At staffed stations (and non staffed stations with appropriate equipment). SPECI reports are issued when either of the following conditions are present: A. When there is BNK or OVC cloud covering the celestial dome below an aerodromes highest alternate minimum cloud base or 1500ft, which ever is higher; or B. When the visibility is below an aerodromes highest alternate minimum visibility or 5000mts which ever is greater. At non-staffed stations wit cloud and visibility sensors, SPECI for cloud and visibility based on output from these sensors may also be issued. Further explanations as to other reasons why SPECI is issued please refer to AIP 3.5,4.3.2

Question 48

TTFs are only prepared for certain aerodromes, how many do you know?

Answer 48

The answer is 16. Adelaide, Amberley, Brisbane, Darwin, Cairns, Canberra, East Sale, Melbourne, Nowra, Oakey, Pearce, Perth, Sydney, Tindal, Townsville and Williamtown.

Question 49

A GAF is a Graphical Area Forecast for operations for Surface to ________ft?

Answer 49

10000ft

Question 50

How long is a TAF valid for and how often are they issued?

Answer 50

A TAF is valid for up to 12 hours and are issued 6 hourly, for example 0200, 0800, 1400 and or 2000 UTC. With the exception of Western Australia where commencement times are typically 2200 and /or 0400 UTC.

Question 51

Are winds reported as degree’s True or degree’s magnetic?

Answer 51

Degree’s True

Question 52

In a METAR are Cloud bases reported as AMSL or AGL?

Answer 52

AGL

Question 53

When are METARs issued?

Answer 53

METARs are issued on the hour and every half hour 24 hours a day. To make it simple they are issued every 30mins and every 60min ie: 0600, 0630,0700 and 0730 etc.

Question 54

When will a METAR be issued as a SPECI?

Answer 54

When the METAR meets the SPECI requirements. METARs are made available at preflight briefing and or on request to aircraft in flight.

Question 55

With regards to rainfall indications what does the following symbology indicate? RF 00.0/000.0

Answer 55

RF 00.0 = Rainfall in last 10 min (If you have trouble remember this one, I remember the 00 part as 10 min and the 000 part as 0900 local) 000.0 = Rainfall since 9am local time

Question 56

What does the terminology NOSIG mean?

Answer 56

No Significant Change

Question 57

What does the terminology AUTO mean?

Answer 57

Automated Observations (Visibility, present weather and cloud)

Question 58

In an ARFOR (Area forecast) are cloud bases report as AMSL or AGL?

Answer 58

AMSL

Question 59

What is the standard take-off minima?

Answer 59

300ft Cloud Ceiling and | 2 km Visibility

Question 60

With regards to take off minima, the PIC must ensure that terrain clearance is assured until reaching either the en route _ _ _ _; or the departure Aerodrome’s. _ _ _?

Answer 60

Enroute LSALT or Departure Aerodromes MSA and If a return to the departure Aerodrome is not possible the aeroplanes performance and fuel are adequate to proceed to a suitable Aerodrome. (Regards to terrain, obstacles, distance)

Question 61

In the event of an engine failure in a M/E aircraft, if a return to land at the departure Aerodrome will be necessary, conditions must be at or above the _________________ minima for that Aerodrome or good enough to enable a visual approach.

Answer 61

Instrument Approach Minima

Question 62

If your departure Aerodrome does not have an instrument approach the take off minima will be what cloud base and visibility?

Answer 62

500ft above the LSALT and | 8km Visibility

Question 63

If at anytime you take of in a M/E aircraft and at any time after lift-off or encountering non-visual conditions, terrain clearance must be assured until reaching what?

Answer 63

Either the en-route LSALT or departure Aerodrome MSA.

Question 64

When determining Alternate / Holding Aids requirements: - RPT & CHTR The destination must have ___ aid with an Instrument approach procedure and aircraft must have ____ independent radio navaids capable of using it or (b) destinations served by ____ radio Navaids for which independent and seperate approach procedures are prescribed and the aircraft has _____ independent aids capable of using them.

Answer 64

Destination must have 1 Aid with an IAP and the Aircraft must have 2 independent radio Nav aids capable of using it. Or (b) Destination served by 2 radio Navaids for which independent and seperate approach procedures are prescribed and the aircraft has 2 independent aids capable of using them.

Question 65

Determine alternate / holding requirements for PVT and AWK You only require _____aid at the destination with an instrument approach procedure, and the aircraft capable of using it.

Answer 65

1 aid at the destination with an instrument approach procedure, and the aircraft capable of using it. NOTE: The above is only required if an instrument approach is required by day, however it is ALWAYS required at night regardless of weather.

Question 66

Do you know what this stands for ACVWPLS This is not a question more something to help you remember what should be considered if looking at weather or not you need to provide for an Alternate.

Answer 66

``` A = AIDS C = CLOUDS V = VISIBILITY W = WEATHER P = PROBILITY L= LIGHTING S = STORMS ```

Question 67

When it comes to holding patterns, what is the stand turn and timing? Also when does the timing start?

Answer 67

1 Minute Legs Right Hand Pattens Outbound time starts abeam the station (or DME distance) or when established outbound whichever is Later.

Question 68

In regard to 25nm and 10nm MSAs what obstacle clearance is provided for?

Answer 68

1000ft

Question 69

How much obstacle clearance does a missed approach allow for?

Answer 69

100ft

Question 70

If there is no PEC, how much height do you add to an ILS minima?

Answer 70

50ft

Question 71

What are the requirement of a Visual Approach by Day

Answer 71

1. Within 30nm 2. Clear of Cloud 3. Insight of Ground and Water 4. Visibility not less than 5 km

Question 72

What are the requirements of a visual approach by Night?

Answer 72

1. Within 30nm / given radar terrain 2. Clear of Cloud 3. Insight of Ground and Water 4. Visibility not less than 5 km 5. Within circling area or within 5nm if in line with runway centreline and not below “on slope” TVASIS/PAPI/ or 7nm if equipped with an ILS or 10nm if not below slope on ILS with less than full scale deflection.

Question 73

When can you change track during a visual approach?

Answer 73

By Day - Within 5nm or | By Night - Within Circling area

Question 74

When can you descend on a visual approach?

Answer 74

As soon as you are cleared for a Visual Approach provided you don’t go below the CTA step (+500ft) or the lowest altitude for VFR flight (eg 1000ft built up area or 500ft non built up areas).

Question 75

What is the circling area at night for an IFR aircraft (any category) and the landing minima if the Aerodrome does NOT have a published approach procedure?

Answer 75

3nm and VMC at the LSALT.

Question 76

When can you descend below LSALT/MSA?

Answer 76

1. After crossing an initial approach fix; or 2. Being radar vectored or Radar Lowest Safe or 3. While conducting a GPS Arrival not below the DME steps; and 4. In VMC by day

Question 77

During day and night operations, what must you do to the minimum visibility for a LOC approach if the HIAL is not available?

Answer 77

Increase Visibility by 900 metres.

Question 78

In regard to ILS minimum visibility; When should you use 1.5km Visibility?

Answer 78

When HIAL is unavailable.

Question 79

In regards to ILS minimum visibility; When should you use 1.2km Visibility?

Answer 79

Always with HIAL available UNLESS the following 3 things are satisfied. 1. HIREL Available 2. Failure warning system for AH and DG 3. Autopilot coupled to LOC and GP or manually flown with FD or approved HUDLS. If these 3 things are satisfied: Use published visibility (usually 0.8 but not always)

Question 80

When can you descend below the MDA?

Answer 80

1. Maintain aircraft within the circling area (2.66nm CAT B) 2. Maintain visibility along the intended flight path, not less than the minima specified on the chart. 3. Maintain visual contact with the landing runway environment 4. By day only descend and maintain the required obstacle clearance above any obstacle along the flight path (CAT A/B 300ft C/D 400ft) 5. By day or night intercept downwind, base or final of the intended runway at the MDA height.

Question 81

When must you conduct a missed approach?

Answer 81

1. When Navaid becomes suspect or radio failure 2. Out of tolerance during the final segment 3. Visual reference is not established at the MAPT 4. Visual reference is lost during circling approach 5. When a landing cannot be effected from a runway approach unless visual circling is not available

Question 82

When can you circle in a no circling area?

Answer 82

By Day in VMC conditions.

Question 83

What is the procedure for Communication Failure?

Answer 83

1. Squawk 7600 2. Remain in VMC if possible 3. If being radar vectored, maintain last assigned vector for two minutes then proceed with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged 4. Maintain last assigned level or minimum safe altitude for three minutes 5. If holding fly one more complete holding pattern and then proceed with latest route clearance.