IFR_Nav Flashcards
(429 cards)
1
Q
If the RVR is inoperative for the runway in use, except for Category II or Category III, you must
A
B) convert RVR minimums and use the value as ground visibility.
2
Q
What point should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
A
C) The point of first intended landing.
3
Q
On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank of approximately 15°?
A
B) 90° and 270°
4
Q
(Refer to figure 91.) What should be the approximate elapsed time from BZN VOR to DBS VORTAC, if the wind is 24 knots from 260° and your intended TAS is 185 knots?
A
B) 38 minutes.
5
Q
(Refer to figure 91.) Southbound on V257, you cross over CPN VORTAC at 0950 and over DIVID intersection at 0954. At what time should you arrive at DBS VORTAC?
A
A) 1043.
6
Q
(Refer to figure 95.) You are tracking the 170 course to the station. What is your lateral displacement from the desired course on the No. 1 NAV?
A
C) 5.0 NM.
7
Q
While in IMC, a pilot often interprets acceleration or deceleration forces as a sensation of
A
C) climbing or descending.
8
Q
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090° to a heading of 300°?
A
B) 50 seconds.
9
Q
If a half standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°?
A
B) 90 seconds.
10
Q
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
A
C) The pull of the vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field.
11
Q
The turn coordinator indicates
A
A) rate of roll and rate of turn.
12
Q
If a half standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
A
A) 4 minutes.
13
Q
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°?
A
C) 1 minute.
14
Q
If a half standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090° to a heading of 180°?
A
C) 1 minute.
15
Q
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090° to a heading of 270°?
A
B) 1 minute.
16
Q
When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
A
A) climb.
17
Q
When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
A
B) descent.
18
Q
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?
A
A) The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right.
19
Q
On a taxi check, the magnetic compass should
A
B) swing freely and indicate known headings.
20
Q
Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?
A
B) The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.
21
Q
Prior to takeoff, the attitude indicator is considered reliable and properly checked when
A
A) the horizon bar remains in the horizontal position and does not tip more than 5° during taxi.
22
Q
What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
A
C) After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns.
23
Q
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
A
C) Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
24
Q
What are the fundamental skills required for attitude instrument flying?
A
A) Cross-check, Instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
25
What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
B) Aircraft control.
26
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
A) Instrument cross-check.
27
While taxiing to the runway for an IFR flight, you notice that your VSI indicates a 75 feet per minute climb. In this case, you
A) may take off IFR and use 75 feet per minute climb as your new level flight indication.
28
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a
A) half bar width on the attitude indicator.
29
For maintaining straight and level flight, which instrument displays a constant indicator of altitude?
A) Altimeter.
30
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?
B) Power only.
31
Which instruments are supporting bank instruments when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level flight?
B) Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
32
Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level off from a climb to a specific altitude?
A) 10 percent.
33
To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level off by approximately
A) 10 percent of the vertical speed.
34
To enter a constant airspeed descent from level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should
C) simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.
35
To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately
A) 100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude.
36
To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately
B) 50 feet.
37
While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
C) attitude indicator shows the approximately pitch attitude appropriate from the 160 knot climb.
38
What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
B) Indirect indication of the bank attitude.
39
The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will
B) increase as angle of bank increases.
40
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the
B) altimeter and airspeed stabilize.
41
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?
B) Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.
42
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant
C) the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.
43
(Refer to figure 145.) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
B) Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight using ailerons and rudder.
44
(Refer to figure 146. The DG shows a right turn. OAT is -1°C.) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight.
B) Static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and level the wings to level flight attitude by use of attitude indicator, apply power, and turn on pitot heat to unblock.
45
(Refer to figure 147.) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
B) Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.
46
(Refer to figure 148.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to information to the instruments has malfunctioned.
A) Climbing turn to right.
47
(Refer to figure 150.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.
C) Climbing turn to the right.
48
To correct from an altitude deviation, identify the primary pitch instruments to include in your cross-check.
B) Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
49
When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?
A) The first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator.
50
After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?
A) The airplane is flying away from the radial.
51
(Refer to figure 95.) Using the Nav 1 CDI, which radial is your aircraft located on?
B) R 345.
52
(Refer to figure 95.) To center the No. 1 NAV CDI with a TO indication, you should turn the OBS to
C) 165°.
53
(Refer to figure 95.) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?
C) 4°.
54
(Refer to figure 95.) Using the Nav 2 CDI, which radial is your aircraft located on?
B) 174°.
55
(Refer to figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the TO/FROM indication to a TO?
B) 354°.
56
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "A" correspond?
B) 9 and 6.
57
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "B" correspond?
C) 5 and 13.
58
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "C" correspond?
C) 12.
59
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "D" correspond?
C) 2.
60
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "E" correspond?
C) 8 and 3.
61
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "F" correspond?
C) 4.
62
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "G" correspond?
C) 7 and 11.
63
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "H" correspond?
C) 1.
64
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "D" correspond?
C) 17.
65
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "E" correspond?
C) 6.
66
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "F" correspond?
C) 16.
67
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "A" correspond?
A) 1.
68
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "B" correspond?
A) 19.
69
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "C" correspond?
B) 12.
70
(Refer to figure 106.) The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360°. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the ambiguity meter and the CDI pointing left of center?
B) 2.
71
(Refer to figure 110.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
C) Northeast.
72
(Refer to figure 111.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
A) Northwest.
73
Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle
B) deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.
74
(Refer to figure 192.) As a guide in making range corrections, how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one half mile deviation from the desired arc?
C) 10° to 20°.
75
With regard to slant range error, approximately how far from the DME facility can you be to consider the DME reading usable?
B) One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
76
(Refer to figure 171.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the RNAV(GPS) RWY 33 approach be initiated?
A) Immediately upon passage of the MAP waypoint with the runway environment not in sight.
77
(Refer to figure 171.) What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively for the approach procedure?
C) 1,240 feet MSL; 1 SM.
78
When tracking in bound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?
C) Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2°.
79
(Refer to figures 139 and 140.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?
A) 710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope.
79
(Refer to figures 139 and 141.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300 foot point from the runway is indicated?
C) 21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
80
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed?
C) When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase.
81
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
C) When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
82
(Refer to figure 193.) Which indications on the VOR receivers and DME at the Easterwood Field VOR receiver checkpoint would meet the regulatory requirement for this flight?
VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM DME
No.1 No.2
C) 097° FROM 101° FROM 3.3
83
(Refer to figure 210.) When on the RWY 6 approach procedure, when approaching the threshold or on the missed approach, you should expect to see
A) White light flashing all dots.
84
Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
B) Slant range distance in NM.
85
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?
B) High altitudes close to the VORTAC.
86
What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?
A) No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.
87
A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by
B) removal of the identification feature.
88
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?
B) The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.
89
Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?
A) 1.0.
90
When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of
C) 30 second intervals at 1350 Hz.
91
When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used
A) in lieu of the OM.
92
(Refer to figure 240.) How should a pilot determine when the DME at Price/Carbon County Airport is inoperative?
A) The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone.
93
Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a two letter coded signal?
B) Compass locator.
94
Which indications will a pilot receive where an IM is installed on a front course ILS approach?
C) Six dots per second and a flashing white light.
95
Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?
C) 200 feet.
96
Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is
A) permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
97
Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as
B) an aid to situational awareness.
98
If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should
B) select another type of navigation and approach system.
99
During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities
C) must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage.
100
During IFR operation using an approved GPS system for navigation,
C) the aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.
101
When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches without WAAS input, any required alternate airport must have
A) an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.
102
If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?
A) Airport Advisory Service
103
Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?
C) Airport advisories.
104
If during a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should be taken?
B) Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR.
105
You can expect ATC to assign these procedures without a specific pilot request?
B) DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches.
106
The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from
C) Flight Service Station.
107
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
B) Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.
108
Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?
B) Destination plus specific fix and altitude.
109
Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?
B) If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description.
110
During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?
A) When advised by the tower.
111
What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?
B) Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.
112
(Refer to figure 87.) At STRUT intersection headed eastbound, ATC instructs you to hold west on the 10 DME fix west of LCH on V306, standard turns, what entry procedure is recommended?
B) Direct.
113
(Refer to figures 87 and 88.) You are traveling westbound on V222, and ATC would like you to report when you reach FALSE intersection. Which VOR would you use?
C) When the CDI on VOR 2 centers, contact ATC and state you have reached FALSE.
114
(Refer to figure 112, #1.) While on a heading of 350° flying direct to the 15 DME fix from the ABC VORTAC, ATC issues you this clearance. 'HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX, LEFT TURNS, FIVE MILE LEGS, ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC. EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE AT 2215Z." What is the recommended entry?
A) Direct entry.
115
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:
"...HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Parallel only.
116
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ONT HE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Direct.
117
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Teardrop only.
118
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A) Direct only.
119
(Refer to figure 114.) You receive this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Direct only.
120
(Refer to figure 114.) You receive this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Direct only.
121
(Refer to figure 114.) You receive this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Teardrop only.
122
(Refer to figure 115.) You receive this ATC clearance:
"HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS..."
You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding entry procedure is recommended?
C) Direct.
123
(Refer to figure 116, #2.) "...HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS..."
You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 330°. What is the recommended entry procedure?
C) Teardrop entry.
124
(Refer to figure 242.) What indication should you get when it is time to turn in bound while in the procedure turn at FEHXE?
B) 4 DME miles from FEHXE.
125
If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to
A) make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.
126
When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than
A) 200 knots IAS.
127
Which is true regarding STAR's?
STAR's are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.
128
While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until
A) established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
129
While briefing the assigned approach, you review the missed approach procedure. If you execute the missed approach before reaching DA or MDA, you must
A) fly to the MAP at or above DA/MDA before making any turns.
130
During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?
C) When radar vectors are provided.
131
During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to
C) minimum altitude shown on the IAP.
132
(Refer to figure 240.) What is the purpose of the 10,600 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?
A) It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.
133
Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?
C) Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.
134
Where may you use a surveillance approach?
B) At airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published.
135
You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?
A) Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility.
136
(Refer to figure 186.) You are flying a Category B airplane, and ATC has cleared you for the PDX ILS RWY 10R, circle to land RWY 28L. For weather reasons, you are flying 5 knots above the maximum airspeed for Category B. You will use
B) the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.
137
Aircraft approach categories are based on
A) 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.
138
What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?
C) The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.
139
You are being vectored to the ILS approach course, but have not been cleared for the approach. It becomes evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What action should be taken?
A) Query ATC.
140
What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?
A) The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.
141
When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
A) As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
142
What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?
A) You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.
143
If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon
C) arrival at the DH on the glide slope.
144
Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?
C) Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF.
145
When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?
A) A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.
146
A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used
B) in lieu of conducting a SIAP.
147
While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issues, what action should be taken by the pilot?
A) Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC.
148
You received the following clearance: "CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT." When does ATC expect you to commence the side step maneuver?
B) As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
149
During a "no-gyro" approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns
B) standard rate unless otherwise advised.
150
After being handed off to the final approach controller during a "no-gyro" surveillance approach, the pilot should make all turns
B) one half standard rate.
151
When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?
A) When assigned a VFR-on-Top clearance.
152
What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?
B) To see and avoid other traffic.
153
According to 14 CFR Part 91, what do you set your altimeter to if your aircraft is not equipped with a radio?
C) Departure airport elevation.
154
How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?
A) ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting.
155
Lading on a narrow runway may cause you to perceive the aircraft is
C) higher than actual altitude.
156
You break out of the clouds on an instrument approach. A narrower than usual runway will have the same appearance as
C) an upsloping runway.
157
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause
A) Coriolis illusion.
158
Street lights, stars, sloping cloud formations, or an obscured horizon may lead to
A) false horizon.
159
An abrupt transition from a climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of
C) tumbling backward.
160
A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of
B) being in a noseup attitude.
161
The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions
C) must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.
162
How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
B) Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.
163
You are subject to spatial disorientation when you
C) use your sense of kinesthesia to interpret flight attitude.
164
What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight in IAP Charts, represent?
C) The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.
165
How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?
C) All fixes that are labeled IAF.
166
(Refer to figure 162.) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the control tower at Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?
C) 0600 2330.
167
(Refer to figure 184.) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the Tower for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect?
B) 0600 to 2200.
168
(Refer to figure 64.) The course deviation indicators (CDI) are centered. Which indications on the No. 1 and No. 2 VOR receivers over the Lafayette Regional Airport would meet the requirements for the VOR receiver check?
VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM
No. 1 No. 2
A) 162° TO 346° FROM
169
(Refer to figures 65 and 66.) What is your position relative to GRICE intersection?
C) West of GRICE intersection.
170
(Refer to figures 71 and 71A.) You are traveling northbound on V213, and ATC would like you to report when you reach FLOSI. Which VOR would you use?
A) When the CDI on VOR 1 centers, contact ATC and state you have reached FLOSI.
171
(Refer to figures 89 and 90.) What is your relationship to the airway while en route from BCE VORTAC to HVE VORTAC on V8?
C) Left of course on V8.
172
(Refer to figure 91.) What are the two limiting cruising altitudes usable on V343 for a VFR-on-Top flight from DBS VORTAC to RANEY intersection (for 0° to 179° degree heading above the MEA)?
C) 15,500 and 17,500 feet.
173
(Refer to figures 182 and 48.) What is your position relative to the 9 DME ARC and the 206° radial of the instrument departure procedure?
B) On the 9 DME ARC and approaching R 206.
174
(Refer to figure 211.) Where does the STAKK THREE departure procedure end?
A) STAKK intersection.
175
(Refer to figure 211.) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?
A) 10,200 feet MSL.
176
(Refer to figures 216 and 216A.) After departing from RWY 16L at RNO, you discover you are unable to contact Reno Departure Control. What procedure should you follow?
B) Continue on assigned heading and via the I-RNO localizer south course until passing 10,000 MSL, then turn direct FMG.
177
(Refer to figures 174 and 175.) At which point does the Glen Rose Nine Arrival begin?
B) JEN VOR.
178
(Refer to figures 174, 175, 176, and 176A.) You are flying the GLEN ROSE NINE ARRIVAL from the Abilene VORTAC to DFW. Which frequencies would you anticipate using to contact Regional Approach Control, tower, and ground control?
B) 119.875, 124.15, 121.85.
179
(Refer to figures 208 and 209.) At which location or condition does the STELA.STELA1 arrival begin?
B) CANAN intersection.
180
(Refer to figure 188,) What is the MDA and visibility criteria for a straight-in LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland International?
B) 700 feet MSL; visibility 1 SM.
181
(Refer to figure 188.) When conducting the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at PDX, what is the Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) while maneuvering between the BTG VORTAC and CREAK intersection?
B) 6,200 feet MSL.
182
(Refer to figure 188.) You have been cleared to intercept the BTG VORTAC radial 054 at 7,000 feet direct CREAK and the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at PDX. You should descend to the procedure turn altitude
A) after CREAK outbound.
183
(Refer to figure 192.) Under which condition should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment (Paso Robles Municipal Airport) is not in sight?
C) Once you are over the VOR.
184
(Refer to figure 210.) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?
A) 1,800 feet MSL.
185
(Refer to figure 210.) When should you execute the published missed approach for an S-ILS RWY 6 approach at BDL?
A) When reaching 373 feet MSL indicated altitude.
186
(Refer to figure 213.) You have been cleared for the VOR/DME RWY 28R approach to Billings Logan International, and plan to circle to land at 95 knots groundspeed. Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach?
A. B.
187
(Refer to figure 213.) How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 28R (Billings Logan) approach procedure?
A) Three.
188
(Refer to figure 217.) During the ILS RWY 13 procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?
A) 1,380 feet.
189
What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
A) A procedure turn in not authorized.
190
(Refer to figure 221.) The final approach fix for the ILS RWY 24R is located at glide slope intercept at
C) JETSA
191
(Refer to figure 223.) During the ILS RWY 31 procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is
A) 2,400 feet MSL.
192
(Refer to figure 228.) The missed approach point for the LOC RWY 21 procedure is
A) 2:33 from PECAT.
193
(Refer to figure 232.) When choosing a course reversal for the LOC RWY 35 approach to Duncan/Halliburton Field, what options are available?
C) The type of turn is optional if it is made to the east of the approach course.
194
(Refer to figure 232.) The point on the procedure turn where the turn in bound (LOC RWY 35 at Duncan/Halliburton), is initiated is determined by
C) DME and timing to remain within the 10-NM limit.
195
(Refer to figure 238.) You are cleared for the LHQ RNAV (GPS) RWY 28 approach over APE VORTAC. ATC will expect you to
B) proceed straight in from FAIRF, descend after FAIRF.
196
How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?
C) IAP indicate DME\TACAN channel in LOC frequency box.
197
(Refer to figure 240.) You are cruising at 12,000 feet and are clearing for the VOR/DME RWY 36 approach at COPUK. Once established on the PUC arc, you can descend
B) at COPUK, from 8,900 at PUKNE, and from 7,500 at WELEN.
198
(Refer to figure 242.) What minimum airborne equipment is required to be operative for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach at Adams Field (LIT)?
A( Any IFR approved GPS receiver.
199
(Refer to figure 244.) What are the course reversal restrictions on the LDA RWY 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?
A) Remain within 10 NM of EXUNE INT and on the south side of the approach course.
200
(Refer to figure 244.) What are the restrictions regarding circle to land procedures for LDA RWY 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?
B) Circling not authorized NW of RWY 6-24.
201
(Refer to figure 244.) At what minimum altitude should you cross RAMKE intersection during the S-LDA RWY 6 approach at ROA?
B) 4,300 MSL.
202
(Refer to figure 247.) You are over Seal Beach VOR and have been cleared for the ILS RWY 9 at Riverside Muni. How should you proceed?
C) Descend using the LOC to 2,500 feet, and intercept the glideslope.
203
Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?
B) Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusuable.
204
Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?
B) Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise.
205
Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn and slip indicator to determine if the
B) needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid.
206
What are the proper indications on the turn needle and inclinometer during a taxi turn?
A) The needle will move int he direction of the turn while the ball moves opposite the turn.
207
(Refer to figures 140, 141, and 142.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are low and to the left of the ILS course?
C) Figure 142.
208
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is
A) a RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways.
209
(Refer to figures 140, 141, and 142.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the right of the ILS course?
A) Figure 140.
210
What recent instrument flight experience requirements must be met before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?
C) A minimum of six instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved flight simulator (airplane) or flight training device, within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight.
211
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must
C) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.
212
Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?
A) Altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, transponder within 24 calendar months, and VOR within 30 days.
213
(Refer to figures 140, 141 and 142.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the left of the ILS course?
B) Figure 141.
214
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower-than-actual altitude?
C) Air temperature warmer than standard.
215
A hazardous situation can occur when true altitude is lower than indicated altitude. This can occur when your altimeter is set to 29.92"
A) in colder than standard air temperature.
216
(Refer to figure 249.) You are flying the RNAV (GPS) RWY 30 approach to LBF, over BEMXI, and you receive a RAIM error. You should
A) continue to RW30 while climbing to 4,900 feet, and then execute the missed approach instructions to AGHAN.
217
(Refer to figure 249.) Which points are designated fly-over waypoints?
B) RW30.
218
When planning an IFR flight using GPS, the pilot should know that VFR waypoints
B) are not recognized by the IFR system and will be rejected for IFR routing.
219
(Refer to figure 249.) How do you recognize the missed approach point on the LNAV approach?
A) At the RW30 waypoint.
220
During a WAAS GPS approach, you receive an LNAV+V annunciation on the GPS display. You should
A) descend to LNAV approach minimums using the barometric altimeter to comply with altitude restrictions, referencing advisory vertical guidance as an aid.
221
For a stabilized approach, what is the maximum descent rate during the final stage of a precision approach?
A) 1,000 FPM.
222
Prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot must verify the validity of the database. One method of doing this is to
C) determine that the waypoints are logically located and in correct order as per the procedure chart.
223
The Glidepath Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between
B) Decision Altitude and the Runway Threshold.
224
While conducting a GPS approach, if you disengage the auto sensitivity, what will occur?
A) The approach mode annunciation will disengage.
225
(Refer to figure 259, illustrations C.) You are taxiing to the active runway and pass this sign. This means
A) you are entering the ILS critical area.
226
(Refer to figure 249.) You are 27NM west of AJCIZ at 7,000 feet and have been cleared for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 30 approach. You should
C) remain at 7,000 feet until AJCIZ, descend to 4,700 feet in the holding pattern, cross AJCIZ and begin descent to cross BEMIX at 4,600 feet.
227
GPS systems certified for IFR operations can not be used as substitute for ADF and DME receivers
C) in selection of an alternate that requires use of ADF or DME.
228
While on an IFR flight plan at 7,000 feet, you encounter structural icing. You know that clear conditions are a few hundred feet above you. You contact ATC and request a climb to 9,000 feet, but they are unable to give it to you. You then request a "VFR-on-top" clearance to 7,500 feet which is granted. When you accept this clearance, your IFR clearance is
C) still in effect.
229
(Refer to figure 249.) Which type waypoint is the AGHAN fix?
C) Fly-by waypoint.
230
When converting from conventional instruments to a primary flight display (PFD), experienced pilots of conventional instruments tend to
B) fixate on correcting for altitude deviations as small as two feet.
231
You are flying on an IFR flight plan at 5,500 feet with a VFR-on-top clearance when you encounter icing. You know there is clear air above and you request 9,500 feet from ATC. They deny the request, but give you 7,500 feet. Are you still VFR-on-top?
A) Yes, you are still IFR with a VFR-on-top clearance.
232
When using a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have
C) an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.
233
Upon arrival at your destination airport, there is an active NOTAM stating "WAAS MAY NOT BE AVAILABLE." Your aircraft avionics indicate LNAV/VNAV service is available. You know that
B) vertical guidance can be used to complete the approach.
234
(Refer to figure 162.) You are on a visual approach to Rwy 16R at Eugene Mahlon Sweet Field at night, and you do not see the centerline lights. You are likely
C) lined up on the wrong runway.
235
(Refer to figure 251.) When lined up for takeoff on Rwy 18, the compass and heading indicator should say a heading of about
B) 185°.
236
(Refer to figure 251.) When lined up for takeoff on Rwy 27, the compass and heading indicator should say a heading of about
B) 275°.
237
(Refer to figure 233.) The missed approach point for the DUC RNAV (GPS) RWY 17 LNAV/VNAV procedure is
A) 1903 feet MSL.
238
(Refer to figure 251.) What is the slope of RWY 9?
B) 0.4% down.
239
The standard IFR ATC climb gradient is
C) 200 feet per NM
240
(Refer to figure 232.) During the LOC RWY 35 missed approach at Duncan/Halliburton Field (DUC), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?
C) Parallel.
241
Aircraft operating under IFR with a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for enroute navigation must also have installed
C) the avionics necessary to receive appropriate NAVAIDs along the route.
242
(Refer to figure 251.) When lined up for takeoff on Rwy 4, the compass and heading indicator should say a heading of about
B) 050°.
243
(Refer to figure 187.) When the MALSR are NOTAM'd out of service, what are the minimums for a category B airplane LPV approach?
C) 4500 RVR.
244
(Refer to figures 230 and 231.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME or GPS-A procedure at Baldwin Muni?
B) One VOR receiver and DME, or GPS.
245
(Refer to figure 232.) The missed approach point for the DUC LOC RWY 35 procedure is
B) 2:27 from GYROE at 120 knots groundspeed.
246
(Refer to figure 234.) During the LOC RWY 18 missed approach at Lincoln (LNK), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?
C) Parallel
247
(Refer to figure 230.) During the VOR/DME or GPS-A missed approach at 7D3, what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?
B) Teardrop.
248
(Refer to figure 240.) During the VOR/DME RWY 36 missed approach at Buck Davis Field (PUC), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?
B) Parallel or Teardrop.
249
(Refer to figure 148.) Which instrument would aid in determining which system has malfunctioned?
B) Magnetic compass.
250
During IFR enroute operations, using an approved GPS (Non-WAAS) system for navigation,
A) the aircraft must have an approved alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.
251
When the marker beacon shows a blue light with tones of all dashes on ILS approach, this indicates you are
B) near glide slope intercept.
252
In order to fly the LPV minima line on an RNAV GPS approach,
C) the AFM must contain a statement verifying that the installed equipment supports LPV performance.
253
When planning a random IFR route, it is a good rule of thumb to avoid restricted and prohibited areas by at least
C) 3 NM.
254
(Refer to figure 149. Ignore the arrow; instead, assume the directional gyro indicates a turn to the right.) During your instrument crosscheck, you notice the instruments disagree. What is the flight attitude, and which instrument has failed.
B) Level turn to the right with a failed turn coordinator.
255
(Refer to figure 148. Ignore the arrow; instead, assume the directional gyro indicates a turn to the left.) Which system has malfunctioned if both the artificial horizon and directional gyro are providing false indications?
C) Vacuum pump or AC power.
256
(Refer to figure 149.) Which system has malfunctioned?
A) Gyroscopic vacuum system.
257
What is the purpose of an off-route obstruction clearance altitude (OROCA) along a designed route?
A) For emergencies and situational awareness.
258
(Refer to figure 245.) The MAP for the RNAV (GPS)-B approach at CQX is
C) RW24 waypoint.
259
(Refer to figure 247.) During a stabilized IMC approach, the pilot should have the aircraft in a landing configuration
B) established on the glide slope before descending below 1819 MSL.
260
(Refer to Figures 195 and 196.) You are on the ground just prior to runup, when you notice the cloud level has dropped. Rather then exiting the plane, how can you contact a Flight Service Station for an updated weather briefing?
B) 122.35 and 800-992-7433.
261
(Refer to figure 99.) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation "B"?
C) West of the waypoint, 080° bearing TO the waypoint.
262
(Refer to figure 99.) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation "E"?
A) Northeast of the waypoint.
263
(Refer to figure 99.) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation "F"?
C) South of the waypoint, 180° bearing FROM the waypoint.
264
(Refer to figure 171.) What is the minimum number of waypoints required for the complete RNAV (GPS) RWY 33 approach procedure including the IF and missed approach procedure?
C) Five waypoints.
265
(Refer to figure 236.) During the ILS or LOC RWY 32 approach at Dothan Regional (DHN), if you can identify FEKRA, minimums for Cat B circling are lowered by
A) 360 feet.
266
(Refer to figure 249.) What approach should be selected to ensure the safest approach at night?
A) LPV since it takes you to the lowest height above the runway and provides close guidance all the way to the DA, ensuring obstacle avoidance along the approach.
267
(Refer to figure 242.) If using the hold for course reversal for the RNVA (GPS) RWY 36, at what point would you turn inbound for the approach?
A) 4 DME from FEHXE.
268
If while on an instrument approach, approach control advises you of inoperative equipment, you must
B) increase minimums to that of the inoperative equipment.
269
(Refer to figure 236.) If you are cleared for the straight-in LOC RWY 32 approach at Dothan Regional (DHN) from over OALDY, you have to
B) proceed on the approach segment without making a procedure turn.
270
GPS systems certified for IFR enroute and terminal operations may be used to
C) fly the aircraft along a DME arc.
271
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause the illusion of
A) turning or accelerating on a different axis.
272
You are within 2 nautical miles of the final approach fix on the GPS approach and notice that the approach mode annunciation disappeared. In this situation you know that you
A) must fly the published missed approach procedure.
273
In the event of an Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS) failure, what becomes your primary pitch instrument?
A) PFD altimeter.
274
(Refer to figure 210.) Cleared for the approach and about to pass HUNEE on the ILS RWY 6, Bradley Approach Control advises you that the approach light system has lost all power. You should
A) increase minimums to RVR 4000 to begin the approach.
275
When the marker beacon shows an amber light with tones of alternating dots and dashes on ILS approach, how far is the airplane from the runway threshold?
C) 3,500 feet.
276
Your IFR clearance is to fly at MEA on an airway that includes an MCA. When you arrive at the MCA waypoint, you should
C) be at the designated crossing altitude.
277
(Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOR COP when flying west on V306 from Lake Charles to Daisetta?
C) 50 NM west of Lake Charles.
278
What is the purpose of preferred IFR routes?
C) To increase system efficiency and capacity.
279
If you accelerate while on a heading of 270, the magnetic compass will
B) initially indicate a turn to the north.
280
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 12 correspond?
A) C.
281
If you decelerate while on a heading on a heading of 090, the magnetic compass will
A) initially indicate a turn to the south.
282
A pilot may conduct a contact approach
B) if ATC approves the PIC's request to do so.
283
(Refer to figure 141.) Figure 141 indicates that
B) you are above the glide slope and to the left of the localizer.
284
(Refer to figure 31.) You are flying on an IFR flight plan and encounter thunderstorms. You ask ATC for a new route of Rogue Valley (OED) to North Bend (OTH) via V287, and then Eugene (EUG) via V121. How much time will it take, and fuel consumed, given a TAS of 135 knots, altitude 10,000 feet, winds 340/25, and 15 gallons per hour?
A) 1 hour 11 minutes; 17.7 gallons.
285
What weather would you expect when moist, cool air blows over a warm land mass?
C) Thunderstorms.
286
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VOR. HOLD EAST ON THE ZERO SIX ZERO RADIAL..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A) Teardrop only.
287
(Refer to figure 99.) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation "A"?
C) West of the waypoint, 100° bearing TO the waypoint.
288
(Refer to figure 99.) The HSI represents GPS navigation to a GPS waypoint. What indication is represented by HSI presentation "C"?
A) South of the waypoint, 350° bearing TO the waypoint.
289
(Refer to figure 159.) How would you enter holding at SOVDE during the missed approach from the DRO ILS or LOC/DME RWY 3 approach?
C) Direct.
290
(Refer to figure 87.) While flying east on V194, ATC instructs you to hold east of TEMCO on V194, standard turns. What entry procedure is recommended? [Please read the Explanation.]
A) Parallel.
291
Flight at the MOCA assures
C) acceptable navigational signal coverage within 25SM on off-airway routes.
292
(Refer to figure 236.) You have just executed a missed approach from your original destination. What are the landing minimums at your alternate, the ILS RWY 32 at Dothan Regional?
C) 200 AGL - 1/2 SM.
293
(Refer to figure 114.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A) Parallel only.
294
(Refer to figure 192.) You have been cleared for the VOR/DME-B approach at PRB in a category D aircraft. Consider the IAP only specifies circling minimums. Under what conditions could you perform a straight-in landing on runway 31?
B) A straight-in landing may be performed if runway 31 is in sight and the aircraft is in a position to make a normal approach.
295
(Refer to figure 71.) What is the MCA over the Huguenot VOR (HUO)?
A) Start climb to 4,000 feet over HUO northbound on V273.
296
(Refer to figure 186.) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 10R at Portland International. At SCAPO the controller clears you to side-step to RWY 10L. At what point can you side-step to RWY 10L?
B) At 4.5 DME and when the runway environment is in sight.
297
The minimum safe altitudes depicted in the MSA circle on an IAP are intended for
A) emergency use.
298
(Refer to figure 240.) What is the minimum safe altitude for PUC when navigating between R-293 and R-203?
C) 12,400
299
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 11 correspond?
C) I.
300
(Refer to figure 40.) What would be the total enroute time and fuel consumed from BGS to ABI on V16 at a true airspeed of 125 knots if the average fuel consumption is 12 GPH?
Wind 190/15
A) 45 minutes and 8.9 gallons.
301
(Refer to figure 53.) Calculate the time and fuel burn for an IFR flight from San Marcus (RZS) VORTAC to Paso Robles (PRB) VORTAC on V25 with the following conditions.
TAS 120 kts
Altitude 8,000 feet MSL
Reported winds 070/25
Fuel burn rate 12 GPH
C) 38 minutes, 7.7 gallons.
302
(Refer to figure 106.) Determine the correct HSI description for the aircraft shown in position 2 if the OBS were turned to 360°.
A) The HSI would have a FROM flag, and the CDI would be to the left of center.
303
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 7 correspond?
B) I.
304
(Refer to figure 247.) You arrive at Riverside Municipal after the tower is closed, and the ATIS is unavailable. You must raise the S-ILS 9 approach DA by
A) 46 DA.
305
(Refer to figures 208 and 209.) You are flying the STELA ONE ARRIVAL from AUDIL at FL270 to KBDL. You are instructed 'Jet 123AB, cleared AUDIL STELA ONE." Which of the following is true?
A) You must receive further verbal instructions to begin your descent to reach STELA at 11,000 feet.
306
If GPS RAIM is lost while flying IFR enroute, you should
C) advise ATC and continue while actively monitoring required alternate navigation systems.
307
When might you expect ATC to issue a visual approach as you approach your destination on an instrument flight plan?
A) When ATC deems it beneficial and the weather is reported as 1,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.
308
When issued a 4 DME hold on a VOR above 14,000 feet, when do you turn inbound from the outbound leg above 14,000 feet?
C) at 4 DME.
309
A 180° turn at half standard rate would take
B) 120 seconds.
310
(Refer to figure 113.) You received this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD NORTHWEST ON THE THREE THREE ZERO RADIAL..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
B) Parallel only.
311
(Refer to figure 236.) You are inbound at 2,600 feet via the initial approach fix OALDY for the ILS RWY 32 approach at Dothan Regional (DNH). You should
A) proceed inbound at 2,600 feet to CABTA, then descend to 2,200 feet to the FAF.
312
(Refer to figures 87 and 88.) You are westbound on V222, and ATC asks you to report reaching FALSE intersection. To identify FALSE intersection, you should
A) adjust the OBS for #2 to 142 and expect the needle to center soon.
313
(Refer to figure 71.) ATC has issued an amended clearance as follows. 'Cleared IGN V58 HELON V213 SAX'. Calculate the time and fuel required to fly the amended route. [Please READ the Explanation!]
True Airspeed: 110 knots
Average Fuel Consumption: 17 GPH
Winds: 180/20
Altitude: 6,000 feet
B) 41 minutes and 12 gallons.
314
(Refer to figure 247.) You are enroute to RAL, and ATIS indicates they are landing RWY 09. Inbound from PIRRO to JASPER, you experience complete two-way radio failure. How should you proceed?
C) Proceed inbound, complete the approach, and land RWY 09.
315
While taxiing from departure on an IFR flight, you notice that the attitude indicator tilts more than 10 degrees while making turns. You determine
A) the aircraft cannot be flown under IFR.
316
(Refer to figure 47.) What are the two limiting cruising altitudes usable on V448 for a VFR-on-Top flight from BTG to YKM (above the MEA)?
C) 15,500 and 17,500 feet.
317
(Refer to figures 71 and 71A.) You are northbound on V213, and ATC asks you to report reaching FLOSI intersection. (71A left figure is VOR 1, 71A right figure is VOR 2) To identify FLOSI intersection, you should
A) wait for the VOR 1 needle to center.
318
While arriving at the final of a GPS approach in IMC conditions, you notice that the approach mode is not active. How does that affect the approach?
B) Immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
319
(Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOP COR when flying on V70 from the Lake Charles (LCH) VORTAC to the Sabine Pass (SBI) VOR/DME?
A) The halfway point.
320
(Refer to figure 114.) You received this ATC clearance:
"N270BC, CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD NORTHWEST ON THE THREE THREE ZERO RADIAL..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A) Direct only.
321
(Refer to figure 113.) You received this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE XYC VORTAC. HOLD NORTHWEST ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A) Parallel only.
322
(Refer to figure 230.) The weather delayed your arrival and the sun is setting. You are still 90 minutes from 7D3, and the ceiling is 800 feet with 4 miles visibility. You should
A) divert to another airport.
323
(Refer to figure 150.) The heading indicator shows a turn to the left. Which instrument should be used to determine bank?
A) Attitude indicator.
324
(Refer to Legend 32 and Figure 227.) ATC has instructed you to expect the ILS RWY 35R approach to APA. How are the minimums affected when you learn the MALSR lighting system is out of service?
B) Increase the visibility requirement by 1/4 mile.
325
(Refer to figure 78.) You are southbound on V343 from SUZZY crossing BZN enroute to RANEY. The minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is
B) 10,500
326
(Refer to figure 109.) ATC has instructed you to fly present position direct the VOR, you will turn to a heading of approximately
B) 190.
327
(Refer to figure 159.) You are approaching FIMGA. ATC has cleared you to FIMGA, and the 14 DME arc for the ILS RWY 3 approach at DRO. You should
B) proceed direct to FIMGA, fly the arc and complete the approach.
328
What do instrument departure procedures enable?
A) A preplanned IFR obstruction clearance route from the terminal area to the enroute structure.
329
While flying under IFR, which of the following equipment is required?
C) Navigation equipment suitable to the route to be flown.
330
You receive the following ATC clearance. "Cessna 733WS, cleared for takeoff Rwy 04 (magnetic heading 044°), fly runway heading, winds 090 at 15 gust 25." Which direction should you fly?
A) Magnetic heading 044° with no wind correction.
331
You are flying IFR in an aircraft equipped with GPS (no WAAS). Your destination airport approach requires GPS. Any alternate airport must have an instrument approach procedure
C) that is not GPS based.
332
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) Your aircraft has HSI presentation "A". In which quadrant are you?
C) Northwest.
333
(Refer to figure 249.) When approaching AJCIZ from the south, you
B) must use turn anticipation to avoid overshooting the next segment of the approach.
334
(Refer to figure 250.) While flying at an assigned altitude of 7,000 feet MSL, you are cleared for the GPS RWY 3 approach at OWK. At what point may you leave 7,000 feet MSL?
A) Upon crossing UCCOX for the procedure turn.
335
(Refer to figure 177.) You are at 4,000 feet being vectored for the ILS RWY 36L at DFW. ATC gives you the following instructions: "Lear 123AB, you are 3 miles form the final approach course, turn right heading 325, maintain 4,000, you are cleared for the ILS RWY 36L, contact tower on 126.55. When may you begin a descent from 4,000 feet?
C) When established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
336
If you are being radar vectored and cleared to fly an instrument approach, you should be aware that terrain and obstacle clearance depends upon
B) maintaining the last altitude assigned by ATC until the aircraft is established on a published segment.
337
(Refer to figure 87.) While flying east on V194, ATC instructs you to hold east of TEMCO on V194, left turns. What entry procedure is recommended? [Please read the Explanation.]
C) Teardrop.
338
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 8 correspond?
C) E.
339
(Refer to figures 208 and 209.) You are flying at FL270. ATC instructs you, 'JET 123AB, proceed direct AUDIL for the STELA ONE arrival, cross SWEDE at FL230.' You should fly the procedure as cleared,
C) cross SWEDE at FL230, but you must receive further verbal instructions from ATC before descending to cross STELA at 11,000 feet.
340
While flying an RNVA GPS approach, the published vertical descent angle can be used to
A) establish a stabilized descent from the FAF or stepdown fix to the MDA.
341
The main purpose of a vertical descent angle on a non-precision approach
A) is advisory in nature and allows the pilot to establish a stabilized descent during the approach.
342
(Refer to figure 234.) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 18 at Lincoln Municipal (LNK) and have received the local altimeter setting. When crossing CLONE, you observe a glideslope warning flag. Which of the following is true?
A) You may descend to 1,780 MSL while tracking the localizer inbound.
343
(Refer to figure 240.) How do you determine that the Carbon VOR/DME is operating normally?
C) Listen for the correct Morse code or verify the signal decoded as PUC.
344
(Refer to figure 114.) You received this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD EAST ON THE ZERO-NINER-ZERO RADIAL..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
B) Parallel only.
345
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 5 correspond?
C) B.
346
(Refer to figure 157.) You have cleared for the ILS RWY 11, circle to land RWY 29 at GJT. What are you landing minimums in an airplane with a 100 knot approach speed?
A) 5380-1.
347
(Refer to figure 116, #2.) You are given the following instruction. 'HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VOR, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS." You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 055°. What is the recommended entry procedure?
A) Direct entry.
348
(Refer to figures 86 and 87.) Referring to CDI indicators number 1 and 4, what is your position along V20 as you fly westbound?
B) Slightly south of V20 and past MOCKS intersection.
349
(Refer to figure 87.) While flying east on V194 at 8,000 feet, ATC instructs you to hold west of TEMCO on V194, standard turns. What entry procedure is recommended? [Please read the Explanation.]
B) Direct.
350
(Refer to figure 78.) When flying from Billings on V611 toward ESTRO, what is the altitude that provides obstacle clearance but not signal coverage?
A) 6,000 feet MSL.
351
(Refer to figure 186.) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 10R at Portland International (PDX). At what point must you execute the missed approach if you do not have the runway environment in sight?
A) When the altimeter reads 223 feet MSL.
352
(Refer to figure 196.) The ceiling is 300 feet AGL and visibility is 2 1/2 miles. ATC has cleared you for the RWY 4 LOC approach to HOU. After EISEN, the approach lighting system goes out. What action are you required to take?
C) Raise visibility requirement by 1/2 mile.
353
(Refer to figure 217.) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 13 approach at DSM. When should you initiate the missed approach if your groundspeed is 90 knots?
A) 1,121 feet MSL.
354
(Refer to figure 192.) You have been cleared for the VOR/DME-B approach at PRB. You should initiate the missed approach procedure if the runway environment is not in sight and
C) after passing the PRB VORTAC.
355
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Direct.
356
(Refer to figure 34.) While south-west bound on V54, you are approaching WASHO. What does 'MRA 4000' indicate?
A) WASHO can be identified using a dual VOR receiver if you are 4,000 feet MSL or higher.
357
(Refer to figure 78.) When flying north from Billings (BIL) on V611, what does the '*6000' indicate?
B) Minimum altitude which provides reception within 25 SM of the BIL VORTAC and obstacle clearance along the entire route segment.
358
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:
"CESSNA 270BC, HOLD EAST OF THE XYZ VOR ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? [Please Read the Explanation!!]
C) Direct only.
359
(Refer to figure 240.) What is the minimum safe altitude for PUC when navigating the area between the 023 bearing and the 293 bearing?
B) 10,600.
360
During a left turn, the primary flight display indicates a high airspeed and nose low pitch attitude. What actions are required to return the aircraft to level flight?
B) Reduce power, level the wings, and bring the pitch attitude to level flight.
361
ATC has cleared you direct to the XYZ VOR and instructed you to hold East as published. You should
C) proceed direct to the VOR and enter the published hold.
362
(Refer to figure 234.) You are cleared for the ILS RWY 18 at Lincoln Municipal (LNK) and have received the local altimeter setting. ATC clears you direct to the Lincoln VORTAC at 5,000 feet. At what point can you descend to 3,200 feet?
A) When crossing Lincoln VORTAC outbound.
363
(Refer to figure 78.) The '6000' just north of the Billings VORTAC on V611 indicates
B) adequate obstacle clearance to ESTRO intersection and adequate signal within 22 NM of BIL VORTAC.
364
(Refer to figures 174 and 175.) You are flying the GLEN ROSE NINE ARRIVAL. Which frequency would you anticipate using to contact Regional Approach Control?
A) 133.62.
365
(Refer to figure 223.) You are established on the LOC 31 approach over CYCLN, and the glide slope is inoperative. Which MDA do you use?
B) 1,320.
366
(Refer to figure 78.) When flying southbound on V187 toward Billings (BIL), what is the minimum crossing altitude?
C) 6,500 feet.
367
What does a bolded square W mean on top of an RNAV approach plate?
C) Non-reliable WAAS coverage zone.
368
(Refer to Legend 32 and Figure 178.) You have been cleared for the ILS RWY 13L approach into DAL and have been informed by ATC that the MALSR in inoperative. How does this information affect the minimums during your approach into DAL? [Please read the Explanation.]
B) Increase the visibility requirements by 1/4 mile.
369
In order to guarantee navigation signal reception, what is the maximum distance between two VOR facilities when you enroute altitude is 7,000 feet?
C) 80 NM.
370
(Refer to figures 216, 216A, and Legend 27.) When taking off RWY 16L at RNO with 700 feet ceiling and 1 1/4 mile visibility, what is the minimum climb rate to 10,900 feet at 100 knots groundspeed?
B) 585 feet per minute.
371
(Refer to figure 168.) You are flying a turbojet aircraft when ATC gives you the following clearance, 'Cessna 209NB, cleared to KARLA, BONHAM SIX arrival, cross KARLA at one one thousand, expect runway 13L.' When does ATC expect you to commence you descent?
B) At the pilot's discretion.
372
(Refer to figure 247.) ATC has cleared you to SLI with RAL as your destination, and ATIS indicates they are landing RWY 09. Before reaching SLI, you experience complete two-way radio failure. How should you proceed?
C) Upon reaching SLI, proceed to JASER, and then continue to ILS RWY 9 IAP.
373
ATC directs you to resume own navigation after completing a no-gyro surveillance or precision based approach. All turns should be
C) standard rate.
374
(Refer to figure 249.) If the RNAV (GPS) RWY 30 approach was the only IAP available at LBF, which of the following statements is true?
C) Circling to runway 17 is not authorized at night.
375
The primary reason for departure procedures is
C) to provide obstacle clearance protection information for the pilot.
376
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 1 correspond?
A) H.
377
What aural indication will you receive when passing the outer market?
C) Dash, dash, dash.
378
(Refer to figure 248.) The runway slope for RWY 9 is
A) 1.1% up.
379
(Refer to figure 243.) The 25 mile MSA for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 6 approach at ROA is determined from
C) the GPS missed approach point.
380
(Refer to figure 87.) You are west of the Sabine Pass VOR flying east on V194 at 9,000 MSL. ATC informs you of a delay in your arrival and instructs you to hold south of SBI on the 180° radial. What entry procedure is recommended?
B) Direct.
381
(Refer to figure 78.) What does the 122.2 mean above the Livingston VOR/DME NAVAID information box?
B) Great Falls remote communications outlet for AFSS.
382
(Refer to Figure 249.) The missed approach procedure for the LNAV/VNAV procedure is initiated at
B) DA 3,019 feet.
383
Once established in a turn, the miniature airplane on the turn coordinator indicates
A) rate of turn.
384
Spatial disorientation can be mitigated during instrument flight by
C) relying on the instruments.
385
(Refer to figure 243.) How should the pilot identify the missed approach point for the ROA RNAV (GPS) RWY 6 to LP minimums?
B) At CAKIX at 1,780 MSL.
386
(Refer to figure 228.) For the ILS RWY 31 approach at FFC, what is the DA?
B) 1,081 MSL.
387
What on an RNAV (GPS) approach and you lose GPS signal, you should
A) immediately fly the missed approach procedure.
388
You cross a VOR, and 7 minutes later you notice that you still have a half-scale deflection to the right with a FROM indication. You should
A) turn right to reintercept the course.
389
The proper way to check a heading indicator before IFR flight is to set the heading indicator to the magnetic compass and
B) Ensure the instrument functions properly during taxi.
390
You are planning to fly to an airport with a VOR or GPS approach (no WAAS). In this case, you should
C) plan for an alternate approach procedure that is not GPS based.
391
Which instrument serves as a primary backup in case your airspeed indicator fails?
B) Tachometer.
392
The controller has cleared you for a visual approach. What must the pilot have?
C) Be able to remain in visual conditions.
393
MOCA ensures
[Please Read the Explanation!]
A) navigation signal reception within 22SM of the VOR station.
394
(Refer to figure 232.) On the inbound leg of the procedure turn, at what point would the pilot turn to intercept the approach course?
B) Localizer intercept when within 10NM of GYROE.
395
While in IMC, in order to overcome spatial disorientation, you need to
C) rely on correct interpretation of flight instruments.
396
(Refer to figure 191.) The way, RW19, with a circle around it on the north end of the airport indicates
A) a fly-over waypoint.
397
Prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot must verify the validity of the database. One method of doing this is to
C) determine that the waypoints and the transitions coincide with the names on the procedure chart.
398
(Refer to figure 89.) What is the significance of the Bryce Canyon VOR?
B) It is a mandatory reporting point when not in radar contact.
399
Prior to commencing a flight under IFR, the pilot must become familiar with
C) alternate airports for the route flown.
400
The use of FAA form 7233-4 International Flight Plan is mandatory for
C) flights departing U.S. domestic airspace.
401
You have a GPS with WAAS and are filing an alternate airport that only has a GPS approach. What are your planned minimums?
B) LNAV or circling MDA.
402
When may you fly a procedure turn when "NoPT" is specified in the instrument approach procedure?
B) When cleared to do so by ATC.
403
You are going to conduct an IFR flight using Performance-Based Navigation (PBN) in the National Airspace System (NAS). You must
B) submit a flight plan using the standard International Flight Plan form.
404
Since GPS navigation signals can be jammed, interfered with, or spoofed (failed), what should pilots do when noticing erratic or deteriorating GPS performance?
B) Report the malfunction by radio immediately or by telephone to the controlling ATC facility.
405
(Refer to figure 227.) What altitude ensures a 1,000 foot clearance above all obstacles within 25NM of AP on the 360° bearing to the station?
B) 13,100 MSL.
406
A pilot must ensure that the directional instruments, turn coordinator, heading indicator, magnetic compass, and attitude indicator, are working properly to
A) taxi and takeoff.
407
A system or instrument failure is identified by a warning indication or a(n)
C) inconsistency between indications on the attitude indicator and the supporting performance instruments.
408
When may a pilot operate an aircraft below MEA on a published airway route segment?
A) When using a MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available.
409
What is the purpose of airspace extensions from Class G to Class E airspace at an airport with a prescribed IAP?
C) It provides controlled airspace to contain the IAP.
410
(Refer to figures 163 and 164.) You have been cleared for takeoff on runway 14, GNATS SIX DEPARTURE, MOURN transition. With the aircraft at full gross weight and expected to climb to 120 knots ground speed, you will need to maintain a climb rate of
A) 870 feet per minute.
411
(Refer to figure 24.) ATC has issues an amended clearance as follows. 'Cleared DVC V68 MTJ V26 MEYRS.' Calculate the fuel required to fly the amended route.
True Airspeed: 140 knots
Average Fuel Consumption: 17 GPH
Winds: 275/40
C) 9.5 gallons.
412
When using form 7233-4, International Flight Plan, for an IFR flight, you can expect ATC to assign clearances based on capabilities coded in the flight plan. Pilots should file
B) all capabilities the aircraft and crew are certified and authorized.
413
(Refer to figure 251.) You are cleared to circle to land on runway 18 at OSH. Upon landing, what is the runway elevation?
A) 790 feet.
414
(Refer to figures 182 and 183.) You are planning to depart IFR from Yakima (YKM) this afternoon via the GROMO THREE DEPARTURE. Which flight plan form will you use?
A) 7233-4, International Flight Plan.
415
(Refer to figure 47.) Using an appropriate GPS navigation system, you are flying east on V448. You have just crossed LEARN. How will you identify ANGOO?
C) Load YAKIMA as the active waypoint and watch for 37 NM remaining.
416
(Refer to figure 221.) At what altitude will you intercept the glideslope during the ILS approach to runway 24R at Los Angeles International?
C) 2,200 feet.
417
(Refer to figure 230.) To execute a missed approach on the Baldwin Municipal VOR/DME approach, you would
B) climb to 2,600 feet, then turn left to HOPPR via the HIC VOR/DME R-345 and hold.
418
(Refer to figure 219.) You are flying the RNVA (GPS)-A approach to Riverside (RIR) in a category A airplane. During the approach, the weather has deteriorated to 1,100 foot ceiling and 3/4 SM visibility. You decide to
B) divert because visibility minimums are not met for landing.
419
(Refer to figure 218.) ATIS is inoperative and the Tower is closed You are cleared to circle to land from the RNAV (GPS) RWY 5 approach at Des Moines International (DMS). What is the category B minimum altitude for circling?
C) 1,460 MSL.
420
The most critical period of an instrument approach, particularly during low ceiling/visibility conditions, is the point at which the pilot must decide
A) to land or execute the missed approach.
421
A pilot should suspect the accuracy of the received GPS navigation signal
A) if the GPS receiver fails a RAIM or FDE check in flight with erroneous navigation indications.
422
(Refer to figure 218.) When executing the missed approach from the RNAV (GPS) RWY 5 approach at Des Moines International (DSM), which holding entry procedure is recommended?
B) Parallel or Teardrop.
423
(Refer to figure 40.) What would be the total fuel consumed if ATC has cleared you on a route of TQA V94 HYMAN V76 BGS if the average fuel consumption is 16.5 GPH?
True Airspeed: 145 knots
Winds: 230/30
C) 12.6 gallons.
424
(Refer to figure 233.) On the LNAV approach to RWY 17 at Duncan/Halliburton Field (DUC), what is the missed approach point?
A) RW17 waypoint.
425
(Refer to figure 218.) ATIS is inoperative and the Tower is closed a Des Moines International (DSM). What are the LPV minimums?
B) 1,228 feet MSL.
426
You are planning to depart KOKC via the STPHN THREE DEPARTURE. Which flight plan form will you use?
A) 7233-4, International Flight Plan.
427
To combat the spoofing or interference of GPS navigation signals and maintain situational awareness inflight,
C) tune in to legacy ground-based navigational aids.
428
(Refer to figure 249.) You are flying the RNAV (GPS) RWY 30 LNAV/VNAV approach to LBF. What is the required visibility?
B) 1/2 SM.
