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Phase 2a mocks > Immun / Path > Flashcards

Immun / Path Flashcards

1
Q

What causes a positive coagulase test?

A

The conversion on fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin

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2
Q

What colour go gram positive organisms stain and why?

A

Purple
Peptidoglycan layer

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3
Q

What organism does the optochin test identify?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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4
Q

What is the antibiotic used for treatment of staphylococcal pneumonia?

A

Flucloxacillin and Rafampicin

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5
Q

What kind of bacteria is E.coli?

A

Gram negative bacilli

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6
Q

What colour would E.coli colonies show as on MacConkey’s agar?
What does this colour tell you about E.coli bacteria?

A

Pink

Lactose fermenting bacteria

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7
Q

What agar plate is used to determine if the bacteria has simple or fastidious growth requirements?

A

Chocolate agar

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8
Q

How would you treat traveller’s diarrhoea?

A

Oral rehydration
Antimotility agents e.g. loperamide

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9
Q

Clostridium difficile is an infective cause of diarrhoea, name 2 antibiotics that can cause C.diff infection

A

co-amoxiclav
cephalosporins e.g. cephalexin
ciprofloxacin
clindamycin

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10
Q

Following a venepuncture, bleeding is stopped by…

A

Platelet and fibrin plug formation over the area of damaged endothelial wall

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11
Q

What does TLR2 detect?

A

Lipoeichoic acid on gram positive bacteria

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12
Q

What does TLR1 detect?

A

Malaria

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13
Q

What does TLR4 detect?

A

Lipopolysaccharide on gram negative bacteria

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14
Q

What does TLR5 detect?

A

Flagellin

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15
Q

What does 1,3 beta-D-glucan assay detect?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus, Candida albicans, and pneumocystis jirovecii

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16
Q

Describe how cholera causes diarrhoea

A

Toxin degranualtion of ion transport in endothelial cells

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17
Q

1st line antibiotic for chest infection?

A

Amoxicillin / Clarithromycin / Doxycycline

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18
Q

What is myocolic acid and what does it do?

A

In the cell wall of pathogens, allows them to resist phagocytic killing

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19
Q

How does flucloxacillin work?

A

Disrupts peptidoglycan

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20
Q

What is the mechanism of amoxicillin antibiotic resistance?

A

Βeta lactamase hydrolysis

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21
Q

What sputum smear confirms TB diagnosis?

A

Acid fast bacilli

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22
Q

What its the most common causative organism of CAP?

Describe the microscopy

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Gram positive cocci, α haemolytic, optochin sensitive

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23
Q

What is the second most common cause of CAP?

A

Chlamydophila pneumoniae

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24
Q

Young adult presents with CAP, haemolytic anaemia, raynauds.
Most likely causative organism?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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25
What kind of pneumonia does Haemophilus influenza cause? Describe the microbiology. Why is it now rare?
CAP Gram negative coccobacilli Rare due to Hib vaccine
26
When might Staphylococcus aureus cause CAP?
As a complication of recent influenza infection
27
What 3 gram negative causative organisms are common in HAP?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, E.coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae
28
What is CLED agar mostly used for?
Urinary bacterial infections i.e. differentiating E.coli which is yellow on CLED agar
29
What is MacConkey used for?
Testing lactose fermenting Pink = Lactose fermenting e.g. E.coli Yellow/colourless = non-lactose fermenting e.g. salmonella, shigella
30
How do you differentiate between Salmonella and Shigella on microscopy?
XLD agar Red with black centres = Salmonella Red only = Shigella
31
What is the agar used for fungus?
Sabourard agar
32
How is S.aureus differentiated from other staphs on microscopy?
- Coagulase test: S.aureus is coagulase positive, the others are negative - Blood agar culture: S.aureus is gold, others are colourless
33
What are the sterile sites of the body?
- blood - CSF - pleural fluid - peritoneum - joints - urinary tract - lower respiratory tract
34
Gram negative, lactose fermenting. What could it be?
- E.coli - Klebsiella
35
What are the two main approaches for diagnosing viral infection?
Viral detection via PCR, e- microscopy Serology testing via ELISA, immunoflourescence etc
36
How does serology work?
Detects immunoglobulins against the virus
37
Throat infection / glandular fever. How do you determine the causative organism?
- Black charcoal swab is used to exclude S.pyogenes - EBV is diagnosed via blood tests: IgM +ve = acute infection, IgG +ve = chronic/prior infection
38
What is the characteristic feature of cytomegalovirus?
Owl eye inclusion bodies
39
What are the 4 main AIDS defining illnesses?
- Cytomegalovirus - PCP (pneumocystis pneumonia) - Oral candida - Lymphoma
40
How is CMV treated in AIDS pts?
IV ganciclovir (antiviral)
41
What are the 3 HIV markers tested for in blood?
HIV immunoglobulin HIV RNA P24 antigen
42
Is TLR3 intracellular or extra cellular?
Intracellular
43
Where is TLR5 expressed ?
Type II dendritic cells in the terminal ileum
44
Which TLRs are intracellular?
3,7,8,9
45
What makes mycoplasma resistant to β-lactam antibiotics?
They lack a cell wall
46
How do β-lactam antibiotics work?
Act by inhibiting the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls
47
What is the mechanism of dubutamine?
β1-agonist Treatment of cardiogenic shock
48
Bacterial meningitis diagnosis. Which cell type would be expected to predominate in the CSF?
Neutrophils
49
What type of hypersensitivity is SLE?
Type III Involving damage to tissues to tissues mediated by the deposition of antibody-antibody complexes, resulting in activation of complement.
50
Which peripheral leukocyte can become pulmonary macrophages?
Monocytes
51
which antibody response is the initial response to virus?
IgM
52
What type of immunity is antibody transfer from mother to in fact during breastfeeding?
Naturally acquired, passive
53
What is secreted by virally infected cells as part of a signalling mechanism?
Interferon-α
54
Which cell in the normal lymph node is a specialised, highly efficient antigen-presenting cell (APC) found mostly in areas of T-cell concentration?
Dendritic cells
55
Which is the most common causative organism of traveller’s diarrhoea?
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
56
Which pathogen is most commonly isolated in cases of chronic diarrhoea associated with HIV?
Campylobacter
57
What cells express MHC-1?
All nucleated cells
58
Explain the difference between pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics
pharmacodynamics = what the drug does to the body pharmacokinetics = what the body does to the drug
59
What are the properties of mycobacterium ?
- slow growing - predominantly immobile - rod shaped - intracellular - gram positive
60
Meningitis prophylaxis?
Ciprofloxacin
61
Malaria prophylaxis?
Doxycycline
62
What types of hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis and what immunoglobulin is involved?
Type I IgE
63
Explain the mechanism of re-exposure in anaphylaxis
- allergen binds to IgE - receptor cross linking causes a cascade - mast cell degranulation of histamine
64
What microorganism causes complicated malaria?
Plasmodium falciparum
65
Stages of malaria
1. Expo-erythrocytic stage 2. Endo-erythrocytic stage 3. Dormant stage
66
Give 2 examples of organisms that can cause UTIs and their gram stain
- Escherichia coli- gram –ve rod (lactose- fermenting) - Klebsiella pneumoniae- gram –ve cocci
67
Give an example of an upper UTI and a lower UTI
Upper: pyelonephritis, ureteritis Lower: urethritis, cystitis
68
Give 4 examples of antibiotics that can be used to treat UTI
- nitrofurantoin - trimethoprim - amoxicillin - cefalexin
69
What is the name of the criteria used in infective endocarditis diagnosis?
Modified Dukes criteria
70
Name the two major Dukes criteria
- blood culture positive >12hrs apart - evidence of endothelial involvement on ECHO
71
List some minor Dukes criteria
- fever >38 degrees C - vascular phenomena e.g. Janeway lesions - evidence from immunology e.g. Roth spots, Oslers nodes, glomerulonephritis - predisposing factor e.g. IVDU, prosthetic valve
72
Microscopy of streptococcus pneumoniae?
Gram positive cocci in chains Αlpha haemolytic
73
What is the mechanism of action of erythromycin ?
Macroglide - inhibits protein synthesis by acting on the 50s subunit of ribosomes
74
Which immunoglobulin provides immunity to parasites ?
IgE

Phase 2a mocks (11 decks)

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