Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

APA 2 Horvath > immune system > Flashcards

immune system Flashcards

(87 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

when does the rudimentary system develop

A

begins at approx 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is phagocytosis

A

destruction of foreign toxins that are harmful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what do T cells do

A

destroy many virus-infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

antibodies (activated T cells) transfused to provide protection are a form of

A

passive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

acquired (adaptive) immunity

A

destruction of organisms and toxins by antibodies and specific lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

humoral branch of acquired immunity includes which cells

A

B lymphocytes (20-50% circulating)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

cell mediated branch of acquired immunity includes which cells

A

T lymphocytes (20-50% circulating)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the 3 kinds of granulocytes

A

neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

neutrophils

A

most numerous WBCs, 6h half life, fight bacteria and fungal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

basophils

A

least common. involved in hypersensitivity. release histamine, leukotrienes, cytokines, and prostaglandins. stimulate smooth muscle contraction (bronchospasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

eosinophils

A

heavy in GI (parasites), respiratory, and urinary mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

agranulocytes consist of

A

monocytes, lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

monocytes

A

phagocytosis, release cytokines, present pieces of pathogens to T-lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

b-lymphocytes is a type of ____ immunity

A

humoral immunity (produce antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T-lymphocytes is a type of ___ immunity

A

cell mediated immunity (does not produce antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

characteristics of inflammation

A

localized vasodilation, increased blood flow, increased capillary permeability, extravasation of plasma proteins, chemotactic movement of leukocytes to site of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

histamine is released by which two cells

A

basophils mast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

stimulation of gastric secretion is by h

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

contraction of most smooth muscle other than that of blood vessels is H

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

cardiac stimulation is h

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

vasodilation is h

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

increased vascular permeability is h

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

type 1 hypersensitivity =

A

anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

type 2 hypersensitivity =

A

antibodies specific to antigens attach to cell surface. cytotoxic (autoimmune hemolytic anemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
type 3
immune complex disease. antibodies bind antigens and release enzymes that cause tissue damage (SLE, rheumatoid, glomerulonephritis)
26
type 4
delayed sensitivity (contact dermatitis, graft rejection)
27
symptoms of anaphylaxis
pruritus, urticarial, angioedema, hypotension, wheezing, bronchospasm, nausea, vomiting, abd pain, diarrhea, uterine contractions, cardiac effects, arrhythmias
28
what causes hypotension d/t anaphylaxis
increased capillary permeability. 50% fluid shift
29
which reaction can occur with first exposure
anaphylactoid
30
muscle relaxants percentage %
60 %
31
latex percentage %
15 %
32
antibiotics %
5-10%
33
opioids %
less than 5%
34
non-life threatening tx 3 drugs
epi, benadryl, corticosteriod
35
non-life threatening tx epi dose adult
100-500 mcg sub-q or IM repeat q10-15min
36
non-life threatening tx epi dose child
10mcg/kg - 500 mcg max q15 min x2 then q4h
37
non life threatening benadryl dose
1-2mg/lg or 25-50mg IV
38
life threatening (anaphylaxis) treatment
airway, 100% O2, epi, bronchodilators, H1 antihistamine and H2 receptor agonist, corticosteroid
39
life threatening epi dose
50-100mcg IV or more
40
what dose epi do?
increases cAMP which restores normal capillary permeability and relaxes smooth muscle
41
which type of patient might you see a poor response from epi
beta-blocked
42
what are some bronchodilators you can give during anaphylaxis
albuterol, terbutaline, and or anticholinergic agents (atropine, scop, glyco)
43
whats the chance of a mild transfusion reaction
1:500
44
whats the chance of a fetal hemolytic reaction
1;250,000-600,000
45
What is a fetal hemolytic reaction caused by
ABO incompatibility - antibodies destroy donor cells - DIC, renal failure
46
fetal hemolytic reaction is masked with anesthesia but you may see
CV instability, hypotension, fever, hemoglobinuria, bleeding diathesis
47
who's at high risk for a latex allergy
health care workers, neural tube defects, multiple surgeries, spina bifida, GU tract defects, banana, kiwi, mango allergy
48
latex Type 4 reaction is ___ while type 1 is ___
dermatitis, anaphylaxis
49
how does latex allergy present in the awake patient
itchy eyes, generalized pruritus, SOB, feeling of faintness, impending doom, n/v, abd cramping, diarrhea, wheezing
50
how does latex allergy present in the anesthetized patient
tachycardia, htn, wheezing, bronchospasm, cardiorespiratory arrest, flushing, facial edema, laryngeal edema, urticaria
51
autoimmune disease pathology
insufficient or limited response to antigens superseded by a self-reactive state that is inadequate and dysfunction;
52
which 3 groups of people are commonly affected by autoimmune dz
female, child bearing years, working age
53
how does anesthesia interact with the immune system
anesthesia and surgery depress non-specific host resistance mechanisms
54
how do epidurals affect immune system
significant but transient alteration of lymphocyte and killer T activity
55
how do hypnotics affect immune system
decrease ciliary action
56
HIV/AIDS pathology
retrovirus invades cell-mediated branch of immune system
57
what kind of drugs do HIV patients take and whats the significance
non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTIs), induce CYP 450 system
58
common CV comorbidities HIV/AIDS
abnormal EKG in 50%, pericardial effusions in 25%
59
common comordibities
wasting syndrome, demential , peripheral neuropathies, autonomic abnormalities, platelet stability and function impairment, non-hodgkins lymphoma, kaposi's sarcoma
60
most common opportunistic pathogen with HIV/AIDS
pneumocystis carinii (pneumonia responsible for most deaths)
61
highest risk of exposure to a blood borne pathogen is with
open bore needle
62
risk % after percutaneous exposure
0.3%
63
risk % after mucous membrane exposure
0.09%
64
non intact skin to infected fluid other than blood %
0.0%
65
what to do after exposure med tx
empirical treatment with 2 or more antiretrovirals within 1-2h, 1-2 weeks. periodic testing for 6mo.
66
SLE patho
chronic inflammatory dz, production of antinuclear antibodies
67
SLE presentation
polyarthritis and dermatitis, molar rash in 1/3 of patients, renal dz in >50%.
68
most common cause of death with SLE
renal disease. 10-20% will require dialysis
69
which patient is at a higher risk for sz, stroke, dementia, neuropathy, psychosis
SLE
70
pericardial effusion occurs in >___% of SLE patients
50
71
tx of SLE
corticosteroids, antimalarial, immunosuppresants
72
SLE is exacerbated by
infection, pregnancy, surgical stress, drugs
73
which drugs exacerbate SLE
procainamide, hydralazine, captoprol, enalapril, isoniazid, methyldopa, d-penicillamine
74
during anesthesia SLE patients are prone to
PE, pneumonitis, alveolar hemorrhage, pulm RN, restrictive lung dz
75
1/3 of SLE patients exhibit
cricoarytendoid arthritis, RLN palsy
76
cyclophosphamine, used to treat SLE & RA does what
inhibits plasma cholinesterase, so LA and succs have prolonged effects
77
scleroderma is what kind of disease , characterized by
collagen vascular disease. inflammation, vascular sclerosis, fibrosis of skin and organs.
78
how does scleroderma progress
1. injury to vascular endothelium. 2. vascular obliteration and leakage of proteins into the interstitial space. 3 tissue edema and lymphatic obstruction due to the protein leakage. 4 tissue fibrosis
79
scleroderma anesthetic implications
may require fiberoptic intubation, bleeding with airway manipulation, chronic htn (contracted vascular volume) , GERD (hypotonis of lower esophageal sphincter), corneal abrasion (prone to dry eyes), pulm htn (avoid acidosis and hypoxemia)
80
what are advantages of regional anesthesia
offers advantage of peripheral vasodilation and post op pain control
81
Rheumatoid Arthritis patho
cellular hyperplasia in synovium (infiltration by lymphocytes, plasma cells, and fibroblasts)
82
articular cartilage is eventually destroyed in which dz
RA
83
Tx of RA
corticosteroids, methotrexate, immunosuppressants, NSAIDs
84
airway considerations for RA - cervical joints
neck extension restricted, atlantoaxial subluxation
85
airway considerations for RA - temporomandibular joint
small mouth opening
86
airway considerations for RA - laryngeal joints
generalized edema, laryngeal swelling
87
5 moments of hand hygiene
before patient contact, before aeseptic tase, after patient contact, after contact with patient surroundings

APA 2 Horvath (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions