Immune System and Immunity Flashcards
(231 cards)
1
Q
Immune system is also referred to as the ________.
A
Lymphatic system
2
Q
Network of cells, tissues and organs that provides the body mechanisms to resist infection and
disease
A
Immune system
3
Q
Lymphoid organs are classified as __________.
A
Primary or Secondary
4
Q
Primary lymphoid organs
A
bone marrow
thymus
5
Q
secondary lymphoid organs
A
spleen lymph nodes mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT) ------------ cutaneous-associated lymphoid tissue (CALT) adenoids lymphatic vessels Peyer's patches tonsils
6
Q
responsible for B lymph maturation
A
bone marrow
7
Q
responsible for T lymph maturation
A
thymus
8
Q
provide a location where contact with foreign antigens can occur
A
secondary lymphoid organs
9
Q
2 glands located at the back of the nasal passage
A
adenoids
10
Q
where are adenoids located
A
back of the nasal passage
11
Q
channels throughout the body that carry the lymphocytes to the lymphoid organs and into your circulation
A
lymphatic vessels
12
Q
lymphoid tissue in the small intestine
A
Peyer’s patches
13
Q
where are peyer’s patches located
A
small intestine
14
Q
2 oval masses at the back of the throat which contributes to the immune system
A
tonsils
15
Q
filters antigen in the blood
A
spleen
16
Q
study of a host’s reactions when foreign substances are introduced into the body
A
Immunology
17
Q
foreign substances that induce host response
A
antigens
18
Q
the condition of being resistant to infection
A
immunity
19
Q
first successful invented vaccine
A
smallpox
20
Q
who developed first smallpox vaccine
A
Edward Jenner (late 1700s)
via injection of cowpox (from disease affecting cows; more harmless substance)
21
Q
father of immunology
A
Louis Pasteur
22
Q
the process of making a pathogen less virulent which can take place via heat, aging or chemical means
A
attenuation
23
Q
rabies vaccine was developed by
A
Louis Pasteur
24
Q
who discovered phagocytosis
A
Elie Metchnikoff (observed under a microscope that foreign objects introduced into transparent starfish larvae became surrounded by motile, amoeboid-like cells that attempted to destroy penetrating objects
25
process of cells eating other cells
phagocytosis
26
who demonstrated that diphtheria tetanus toxins could be neutralized by noncellular portion of the blood of animals previously exposed to the mciroorganisms
Emil von Behring
27
type of immunity where the noncellular elements in the blood were believed to be responsible for protection from microorganisms.
humoral immunity
28
showed that the immune response involved both cellular and humoral elements
Almroth Wright
29
who observed that certain humoral, or circulating, factors called opsonins acted to coat bacteria so that they became more susceptible to ingestion by phagocytic cells.
Almroth Wright
30
A substance in the blood that increases as a response to an acute conditions such as infection, injury, tissue destruction, some cancers, burns, surgery, or trauma
are inflammation markers that exhibit significant changes in serum concentration during inflammation
acute phase reactant (APR)
31
serum proteins produced by certain lymphocytes when exposed to a foreign substance and they react
specifically with that foreign substance
antibodies
32
acute phase reactants are part of (innate/adaptive) immune response
innate
33
two branches of immunity
innate
| adaptive
34
branch of immunity wherein the individual’s ability to resist infection by means of normally present
body functions.
innate immunity
35
type of resistance that is characterized by specificity for each individual pathogen, or microbial agent, and the ability to remember a prior exposure
adaptive immunity
36
what branch of immunity?
no prior exposure is required
innate
37
what branch of immunity?
response lacks memory and specificity
innate
38
what branch of immunity?
subject to influence by factors such as nutrition, age, fatigue, stress and genetic determinants
innate
39
what branch of immunity?
ability to remember prior exposure
adaptive
40
what branch of immunity?
memory and specificity result in increased response to pathogen upon repeated exposure
adaptive
41
T/F:
innate and adaptive immunity operate in combination and are dependent upon one another for maximal effectiveness
TRUE
42
Cells of Innate Immune System
Leukocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes)
Tissue cells (mast cells, macrophages, dendritic cells)
43
T/F:
White blood cells (WBCs), or leukocytes, in the peripheral blood play a key role in both innate and adaptive immunity.
TRUE
44
Blood cells arise from ________.
hematopoietic stem cell (HSC)
45
precursor cells from HSC which would form WBCs
common myeloid precursor
| common lymphoid precursor
46
cells from the common myeloid precursor
WBCs that participate in phagocytosis
47
cells from the common lymphoid precursor
lymphocytes
48
where are mature lymphocytes found
peripheral blood
| tissues
49
blood cell formation and development is called
hematopoiesis
50
T/F:
Phagocytic cells function exclusively for innate immunity
FALSE
Phagocytic cells are
key to innate immunity, but they are also important in processing antigens for the adaptive response.
51
neutrophil is also termed as ____________.
polymorphonuclear neutrophilic (PMN) leukocyte
52
neutrophils represent what percentage of the total peripheral WBCs in adults
50%-75%
53
neutrophils measure _________ um.
10-15 um
54
which WBCs consist of a nucleus that has between two to five lobes
neutrophils
55
segs refer to what WBCs
neutrophils
| segmented neutrophils
56
neutrophils contain a large number of neutral staining granules when stained. what types of granules are seen?
2/3 specific granules
| 1/3 azurophilic granules
57
neutrophilic granules which contain antimicrobial products such as myeloperoxidase,
lysozyme, elastase, proteinase-3, cathepsin G, and defensins, which are small proteins that have antibacterial activity
Azurophilic granules
58
primary granules of the neutrophils are referred to as:
azurophilic granules
59
secondary granules of the neutrophils are referred to as:
specific granules
60
neutrophilic granules which contain lysozyme, lactoferrin, collagenase, gelatinase, and respiratory
burst components
specific granules
61
specific granules contain:
```
lactoferrin
lysozymes
collagenase
gelatinase
respiratory burst components
```
62
azurophilic granules contain:
```
myeloperoxidase
lysozymes
elastase
proteinase-3
cathepsin G
defensins
```
63
WBC whose main function is phagocytosis, which result in destruction of foreign particles
neutrophils
64
neutrophils may circulate freely for how many hours
6-8 hrs
65
this pool allows neutrophils to move from circulating blood to tissues
margination (marginating pool)
66
the process of cells moving from the circulating blood to the tissues (movement through blood vessel walls)
diapedesis
67
chemical messengers that cause cells to migrate in particular direction
chemotaxins
68
T/F:
| Once in the tissues, neutrophils have a life span of up to several days.
TRUE
69
T/F:
Normally, the influx of neutrophils from the bone
marrow equals the output from the blood to the tissues to maintain a steady state.
TRUE
70
In the case of acute infection, an increase of neutrophils in the circulating blood can occur almost immediately.
TRUE
71
Demonstrate hematopoiesis
CMP
* eosinophils/basophils
* neutro/monocyte/dendritic
* RBC/platelets
CLP
* T/NK progenitors (T cells, NK cells)
* B-cell progenitor (B cells, dendritic*)
72
eosinophils measure _________um.
approx. 12-15 um
73
eosinophils make up _______% of circulating WBCs in a nonallergic person
1%-3%
74
WBC which increases in an
| allergic reaction or in response to certain parasitic infections.
eosinophils
75
WBC which has a bilobed or ellipsoidal nucleus and is often centrally located
eosinophil
76
which WBC take acidic dye and the cytoplasm is filled with large orange to reddish orange granules
eosinophils
77
WBCs with spherical and evenly distributed granules throughout the cells
eosinophils
78
eosinophil granules contain:
```
catalase
lysozyme
cytokines
growth factors
cationic proteins
```
79
WBC capable of phagocytosis but much less efficient than neutrophils
eosinophils
80
why are eosinophils less efficient in phagocytosis as compared to neutrophils
eosinophils are present in smaller numbers and they lack digestive enzymes
81
eosinophils are able to neutralize which cells
basophils
| mast cells
82
WBC which use cationic proteins to damage cell membranes and kill
larger parasites that cannot be phagocytized
eosinophils
83
most important role of eosinophils
regulation of immune response (e.g, regulation of mast cell function)
84
least numerous of WBCs found in peripheral blood
basophils
85
basophils make up ________ of all circulating WBCs.
<1%
86
smallest granulocyte
basophils
87
T/F:
| basophils are slightly larger than RBCs
TRUE
88
WBC which contain coarse, densely staining deep-bluish-purple granules that often obscure nucleus
basophils
89
eosinophil granules are ___________ in color.
reddish orange
90
basophil granules are _________ in color.
deep blue/purple
91
basophil granules contain:
histamine
cytokines
growth factors
heparin
92
WBC which regulate T helper cell responses and stimulate B cells to produce IgE antibody
basophils
93
basophils are involved in production of which immunoglobulin
IgE
94
T/F:
Basophils have a short life span of only a few hours in the bloodstream and are then pulled out and destroyed by macrophages in the spleen
TRUE
95
largest cells in the peripheral blood
monocytes
96
monocytes measure __________ um.
12-22 um (average:18 um)
97
WBC with irregularly folded or horseshoe-shaped nucleus that occupies almost half of the cell's entire volume
monocyte
98
WBC with abundant cytoplasm that stain dull grayish-blue
monocyte
99
Cytoplasm of monocyte are described to be __________ in appearance.
ground-glass (due to presence of fine dustlike granules
100
There are two types of granules found in a monocyte. Differentiate the two.
First type is similar to the lysosomes of neutrophils and contains peroxidase, acid phosphatase, arylsulfatase.
Second type contains B-glucoronidase, lysozyme and lipase with no alkaline phosphatase
101
Monocytes make up _________ of total circulating WBCs.
4%-10%
102
how long do monocytes stay in the peripheral blood
30 hours
103
what happens to monocytes after migration from peripheral blood
they migrate to tissues and become macrophages
104
macrophages arise from ___________.
monocytes
105
The transition from monocyte to macrophage in the tissues is characterized by
progressive cellular enlargement to between _____ um.
25-80 um
106
T/F:
Macrophages contain peroxidase
FALSE
Unlike monocytes, macrophages contain no peroxidase
107
Macrophages in the lung
alveolar macrophages
108
macrophages in the liver
Kupffer cells
109
Macrophages in the brain
microglial cells
110
macrophages in the bone
osteoclasts
111
macrophages in connective tissue
histiocytes
112
Macrophages may not be as efficient as neutrophils in phagocytosis because?
Macrophages have slower motility
113
How do macrophages progress through tissue
by means of amoeboid action; others are immobile
114
macrophage lifespan
months
115
T/F:
| Macrophages play an important role in initiating and regulating both innate and adaptive immune responses
TRUE
116
Innate immune functions of macrophages
```
microbial killing
anti-tumor activity
intracellular parasite eradication
phagocytosis
secretion of cell mediators
```
117
adaptive immune functions of macrophages
presenting antigens to T and B cells
118
T/F:
Killing activity is enhanced when macrophages
become “activated” by contact with microorganisms or with
chemical messengers called cytokines, which are released by T lymphocytes during the immune response
TRUE
119
Which granulocytes do mast cells resemble?
basophils
120
lifespan of mast cells
9-18 months
121
T/F:
| Mast cells are distributed throughout the body in a wide variety of tissues
TRUE
| skin, CT, mucosal epithelial tissue of the respiratory, genitourinary, and digestive tract
122
What are some characteristics of mast cells
smaller than basophils
small round nucleus
presence of lots of granules
123
Mast cell granules contain:
acid phosphatase
alkaline phosphatase
protease
histamine
124
mast cell function
for allergic reactions
function as antigen-presenting cells
can both enhance and suppress adaptive immune response
125
cells that are covered with long membranous extensions that resemble nerve cell dendrites
dendritic cells
126
who discovered dendritic cells
Steinman and Cohn (1973)
127
T/F:
Progenitors in the bone marrow give rise to dendritic cell precursors that travel to lymphoid as well as nonlymphoid
tissue.
TRUE
128
considered the most effective APC and the most potent phagocytic cell
dendritic cell
129
key cell involved in the adaptive immune response
lymphocyte
130
lymphocytes make up ____________ of the total circulating WBCs
20%-40%
131
Typical small lymphocyte is similar in size to that of:
RBCs (7-10 um in diameter)
132
Which WBC has a large rounded nucleus that may be somewhat indented; the nuclear chromatin is dense and tends to stain a deep blue
lymphocyte
133
Which WBC has a sparse cytoplasm, containing a few organelles and no specific granules , and consists of a narrow ring surrounding the nucleus; cytoplasm stains a lighter blue
lymphocyte
134
Which WBC are unique because they arise from an HSC and then are further differentiated in the primary lymphoid organs
lymphocyte
135
3 major populations of lymphocytes based on specific functions and proteins on their cell surface
T cells
B cells
Natural Killer cells
136
How much of the 3 major lymphocytes are present in the peripheral blood of adults
10%-20% B cells
61%-80% T cells
10%-15% NK cells
137
T/F
Three types of lymphocyte cells are difficult to distinguish visually
TRUE
138
How to differentiate lymphocyte subpopulations?
by the proteins or antigens present on the cell surface
139
a surface marker that identifies a particular differentiation lineage recognized by a group of monoclonal antibodies.
Clusters of differentiation (CD)
140
Panels of antibodies from different laboratories were used for analysis and antibodies reacting similarly with standard cell lines were said to define
Clusters of differentiation (CD)
141
How many CD designations are there?
more than 500
142
Identify surface marker (CD) present:
Thymocytes
CD3
143
Identify surface marker (CD) present:
T cells
CD3
144
Identify surface marker (CD) present:
T helper cells
CD4
145
Identify surface marker (CD) present:
Monocytes
CD4
146
Identify surface marker (CD) present:
Macrophages
CD4, CD16
147
Identify surface marker (CD) present:
Thymocyte subsets
CD8
148
Identify surface marker (CD) present:
cytotoxic T cells
CD8
149
Identify surface marker (CD) present:
NK cells
CD16, CD56
150
Identify surface marker (CD) present:
neutrophils
CD16
151
Identify surface marker (CD) present:
B cells
CD19, CD21
152
Identify surface marker (CD) present:
follicular dendritic cells
CD19, CD21
153
Identify surface marker (CD) present:
subsets of T cells
CD56
154
Identify surface marker (CD) described:
found on all T cells and is associated wit T-cell antigen receptor
CD3
155
Identify surface marker (CD) described:
identifies T helper cells; also found on most T regulatory cells
CD4
156
Identify surface marker (CD) described:
identifies cytotoxic T cells
CD8
157
Identify surface marker (CD) described:
low affinity Fc receptor for antibody
CD16
158
Identify surface marker (CD) described:
mediates phagocytosis
CD16
159
Identify surface marker (CD) described:
part of b-cell receptor; regulates B-cell development and activation
CD19
160
Identify surface marker (CD) described:
receptor for complement component C3d
CD21
161
Identify surface marker (CD) described:
part of B-cell receptor with CD19
CD21
162
Identify surface marker (CD) described:
no definitive function
CD56
163
What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?
CD3
thymocytes, T cells
164
What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?
CD4
T helper cells, macrophages, monocytes
165
What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?
CD8
Thymocyte subsets, cytotoxic T cells
166
What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?
CD16
macrophages, NK cells, neutrophils
167
What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?
CD19
B cells, follicular dendritic cells
168
What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?
CD21
B cells, follicular dendritic cells
169
What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?
CD56
NK cells, subsets of T cells
170
What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?
CD3
20-28
171
What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?
CD4
55
172
What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?
CD8
60-76
173
What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?
CD16
50-80
174
What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?
CD19
>120
175
What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?
CD21
145
176
What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?
CD56
175-220
177
These are derived from a lymphoid precursor that differentiates to become either a T cell, B cell, or NK depending on exposure to different cytokines
B cells
178
B cells can be recognized by the presence of membrane-bound antibodies of two types. Name the two.
IgM
| IgD
179
What are other surface proteins that may appear on the B cells?
CD19
CD21
MHC-II
180
B cells remain in the environment provided by ________.
bone marrow stromal cells
181
these are programmed to produce a unique antibody molecule
B lymphocytes
182
These go through a developmental process that prepares them for their role in antibody production and at the same time restricts the types of antigens to which any one cell can respond
B cell precursors
183
T cells are differentiated in the _____.
thymus
184
precursor of T cells
thymocytes
185
T cells express unique surface markers that allow them to recognize foreign antigens bound to cell membrane proteins called __________.
MHC molecules
186
Route of thymocytes
BM -> Bloodstream -> Thymus
187
Its role is to produce cytokines
T cells
188
These stimulate B cells to produce antibodies that will assist in killing tumor cells or infected target cells and help regulate innate and adaptive immune response
Cytokines
189
Three main subtypes of T cells according to their functions:
helper
cytolytic
regulatory
190
Name the three subtypes of T cells and their surface markers.
CD4: helper/regulatory
| CD8+: cytolytic (cytotoxic T cells)
191
ratio of CD4+ to CD8+ cells in peripheral blood
2:1
192
T cell subtypes can be identified by the presence of what surface markers
CD3, CD4, CD8
193
A small percentage of lymphocytes do not express the markers of either T cells or B cells. What are these?
NK cells
194
These cells can kill target cells without prior exposure to them
NK cells
195
Where do NK cells develop?
bone marrow
196
These cells contain kidney-shaped nuclei with condensed chromatin and prominent nucleoli
NK cells
197
NK cells measure ____________.
15 um in diameter
198
third population cells/ large granular lymphocytes
NK cells
199
Where are NK cells found?
liver
spleen
peripheral blood
200
NK cells make up ___________ of the circulating lymphoid pool
10%-15%
201
T/F:
| There are specific surface markers that are unique to NK cells
FALSE
There are NO specific surface markers that are unique to NK cells, but they express a specific combination of antigens that can be used for ID.
202
Ag combination for NK cells
CD16
| CD56
203
this surface marker is a receptor for the nonspecific end of antibodies
CD16
204
What surface marker helps NK cells to make contact with and lyse any cell coated with antibodies
CD16
205
T/F:
NK cells are capable of recognizing any foreign cell and
represent the first line of defense against virally
infected cells and tumor cells
TRUE
206
T/F:
| Since NK cells are part of the innate immune system, they cannot develop memory to specific antigens
FALSE
| NK cells also have the capability to develop memory to specific antigens in a similar manner to T cells
207
half-life time of NK cells
>/=7-10 days
208
NK cells play an important role in __________ the innate and adaptive immune response against pathogens
transitional cell bridging
209
considered one of the largest tissues in the body and fills the core of all long flat bones
bone marrow
210
main source of HSC
bone marrow
211
Why are B cells named as such?
They were originally found in birds in an organ called the bursa of Fabricius
212
bursa of Fabricius is similar to what organ in humans
appendix
213
Immature T cells appear in the fetus as early as __________ in the gestational period
8 weeks
214
a small, flat, bilobed organ found in the thorax or chest cavity, right below the thyroid gland and overlying the heart
thymus
215
thymus weight by puberty
30-40g
216
T/F:
| Thymus gradually shrinks in size as you age
TRUE
217
Each love of the thymus is divided into smaller lobules filled with what type of cells
epithelial cells
| play a role in differentiation process
218
How long does the maturation of T cells take place
3 weeks
| as cells filter through the thymic cortex to the medulla
219
This part of the thymus contain most of the mature T lymphocytes. This is also where these mature lymphocytes are released
medulla
220
largest lymphatic vessel in the body
thoracic duct
221
T/F:
Lymphocytes spend most of their life span in solid tissue, entering the circulation only periodically to from from one secondary organ to another
TRUE
222
majority of circulating lymphocytes
T cells
223
this collects most of the body's lymph fluid and empties it into the left subclavian vein
thoracic duct
224
where does the thoracic duct empty the collected lymph fluid of the body?
left subclavian vein
225
T cells or B cells?
a. effector cells that serve as regulatory role
b. produce antibodies
a. T
| b. B
226
T/F:
It is in the secondary organs that contact with foreign antigens is most likely to take place
TRUE
227
the process of multiplication of lymphocytes
lymphopoiesis
228
where does lymphopoiesis occur?
secondary lymphoid tissue
229
T/F:
Lymphopoiesis is strictly independent from antigenic stimulation
FALSE
Lymphopoiesis is dependent on antigenic stimulation
230
T/F:
Lymphocyte formation is antigen-independent.
TRUE
231
T/F:
Most naive or resting lymphocytes die within a few days after leaving the primary lymphoid organs unless activated by the presence of a specific foreign antigen.
TRUE
