Immune system + transplantation Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

Examples of calcineurin inhibitors

A

ciclosporin and tacrlimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is azathioprine metabolised to?

A

Mercaptopurine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If allopurinol is given alongside azathioprine what needs to be considered?

A

Dose reduction of Azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What disease is ciclosporine used prophylactically for?

A

graft vs host disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neurotoxicity, cardiomyopathy and disturbance to glucose metabolism is associated with whihc calcineurin inhibitor?

A

tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What needs to be prescribed prior to adminstration of antithymocyte immunoglobulin?

A

pre-treatment with paracetamol, anti histamine and corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If a patient has absent TMPT activity, can they have azathioprine?

A

No - contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 main side effects of azathioprine

A
  1. Hypersensitivity reactions - malaise, fever, vommiting diarrhoea
  2. Neutropenia + thrombocytopenia - dose dependent
  3. nausea - managed by dividing doses, giving after food + antiemetics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What pre treament screening is required before starting azathioprine?

A

TPMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a patient has reduced TPMT activity, what is the risk?

A

myleosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Monitoring requirements for Azathioprine

A

FBC weekly for first 4 weeks then 3 monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MHRA warning regarding ciclosporin

A

Must be prescribed by brand name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Can a patient with uncontrolled HTN + active infection have ciclosporin?

A

no - contra indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Side effects of ciclosporin

A

Gingival hyperplasia, headaches, apetite decreaase, hyperglycaemiahyperlipidemia, HTN,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Monitoring requirements for ciclosporin

A
  1. ciclosporin level (trough)
  2. BP,
  3. renal function
  4. LFT
  5. serum potassium
  6. serum magnesium
  7. lipids - baseline and at 1 month
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What should patients be counselled on regarding their skin when on sicrolimus

A

void excessive exposure to UV light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the MHRA warning regarding Tacrolimus?

A

prescribe and dispense as brand name only

18
Q

Adoport, prograf, capexion and tacni are what form of tacrolimus capsules?

A

Immediate release BD capsules

19
Q

Advagraf is what form of tacrolimus medication

A

Modified release taken OM

20
Q

True or false - tacrolimus can cause QT prolongation?

21
Q

Why is echocardiography needed for patients on tacrolimus?

A

risk of cardiomyopathy

22
Q

Belimumab has an MHRA warning about what?

A

increased risk of serious psychiatirc events

23
Q

What is the contraceptive advice regarding mycophenolate?

A

mycophenolate is genotoxic - females need pregancy to be ruled out before treatment. 2 tests required 8-10 days apart. Women need at least 1 form of contraception and for 6 weeks on discontinuation

24
Q

Monitoring requirement for mycophenolate

A

FBC for 4 weeks then twice a month for 2 months then every month for the first year

25
Low levels of what vitamin are a risk factor for developing MS?
vitamin D
26
What medication is sometimes used to treat fatigue associated with MS?
Amantadine
27
What is the first line treatment of Oscillopsia in MS?
Gabapentin
28
What should patients receive prior to anti lymphocyte antibodies?
pre medication to reduce risk of infusion related side effects
29
If a patient is prescribed Alemtuzumab, what condition do they requrie prophylaxis medication for?
Herpes infection
30
Nataliumab is associated with what neurological condition?
PML - progressive multi focal leukonencepthalopathy MRI required before initiation
31
What food interaction should patients be aware of with ciclosporin?
Pomelo/grapefruit juice - increases Ciclosporin levels | Purple grape juice decreases levels
32
How often dose ciclosporin levels need to be taken?
Every weel until stable for 6 weeks then monthly
33
What is a risk when a patients cholesterol is < 3 and they are on ciclosporin
toxicity
34
What is the MHRA warning associated with giving Bevacizumab and Sunitinib?
Risk of ONJ
35
What should be measured if hypogammaglobinaemia is suspected following mycophenolate use?
serum immunoglobulin
36
Men must use a condom for how many days after completing mycophenolate course?
90 days
37
EGFR inhibitors have an MHRA warning about what?
serious cases of keratitis and ulcerative keratitis
38
Brand name for Trastuzumab
Herceptin
39
What is the main risk with herceptin therapy
Cardiotoxic - need to monitor function before and during treatment
40
What hepatic condition can RTX reactivate
Hep B