Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Year 3 - Infection > Immunisation and Prophylaxis > Flashcards

Immunisation and Prophylaxis Flashcards

1
Q

When should immunisation occur?

A

> Childhood
Special patient groups
Occupational
Travelers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When should prophylaxis occur?

A

> Travelers
Post-exposure
Post-exposure (HIV)
Surgical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What types of adaptive immunity are there?

A

Natural:
> Passive (Maternal)
> Active (Infection)

Artificial:
> Passive (antibody transfer)
> Active (Immunisation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What types of natural adaptive immunity are there?

A

Natural:
> Passive (Maternal)
> Active (Infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What types of artificial adaptive immunity are there?

A

Artificial:
> Passive (antibody transfer)
> Active (Immunisation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who pioneered vaccination and how?

A

Edward Jenner, 1798 - Small boy is injected with pus from a cowpox pustule. This led to immunisation against smallpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which types of vaccine are there?

A 
> Live attenuated
> Inactivated (Killed)
> Detoxified exotoxin
> Subunit of micro-organism:
- Purified microbial products
- Recombinant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which pathogens are targeted with live attenuated vaccines?

A 
> Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
> BCG
> Varicella-zoster virus
> Yellow fever
> Smallpox
> Typhoid (Oral)
> Polio (Oral
> Rotavirus (Oral)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which pathogens are targeted with inactivated (Killed) vaccines?

A 
> Polio (in combined vaccine D/T/P/Hib)
> Hepatitis A
> Cholera (oral)
> Rabies
> Japanese encephalitis
> Tick-borne encephalitis
> Influenza
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which pathogens are targeted with detoxified exotoxin vaccines?

A

> Diphtheria

> Tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Example of a detoxified exotoxin vaccine?

A

Toxin treated with formalin to produce toxoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which pathogens are targeted with subunit vaccines?

A

> Pertussis (acellular)

> Haemophilus influenzae b

> Meningococcus (group C) = conjugated: capsular polysaccharide antigen & Corynebacterium diphtheria protein

> Pneumococcus

> Typhoid

> Anthrax

> Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An example of a pathogens which is targeted by recombinant vaccine?

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do recombinant vaccine work?

A

1) DNA segment coding for HBsAg
2) Removed, purified, mixed with plasmids
3) Inserted into yeasts
4) Fermented
5) HBsAg produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In term of primary antibody response which antibody rise first in infection?

A

IgM and then IgG both in primary and secondary response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What differences are there between primary and secondary response to infection?

A

1) Secondary = More rapid response
2) Secondary = Greater increase of IgG
3) Secondary = Greater and more rapid rise in total Ab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What response is there to a killed vaccine?

A

With each vaccine there is an increased rise in immune response:
> 1st dose = small rise, fall to almost same as before

> 2nd dose = Greater rise with slight decrease

> 3rd dose = Even greater rise and then plateau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the 6 in 1 vaccine?

A

Infanrix hexa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the parts of the infanrix hexa?

A

“6 in 1” vaccine:
> D = Purified diphtheria toxoid

> T = Purified tetanus toxoid

> aP = Purified Bordetella pertussis

> IPV = Inactivated polio virus

> Hib = Purified component of Haemophilus influenzae b

> HBV = Hepatitis B rDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

UK Childhood Immunisation Schedule - 2 months?

A

> 6 in 1 vaccine
Pneumococcal conjugate
Rotavirus
Men B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

UK Childhood Immunisation Schedule - 3 months?

A

> 6 in 1 vaccine

> Rotavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

UK Childhood Immunisation Schedule - 4 months?

A

> 6 in 1 vaccine
Pneumococcal conjugate
Men B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

UK Childhood Immunisation Schedule - 1 year?

A

> HiB/Men C
MMR
Pneumococcal conjugate
Men B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

UK Childhood Immunisation Schedule - 2-8 years?

A

> Influenza nasal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
UK Childhood Immunisation Schedule - 3-5 years?
> 4 in 1 booster (DTaP/IPV) | > MMR
26
UK Childhood Immunisation Schedule - Girls, 12-13 years?
Human papilloma virus
27
UK Childhood Immunisation Schedule - 14 years?
> 3 in 1 booster (dT/IPV) | > Men ACWY
28
What is the concept of herd immunity?
Target 90-95 coverage which stops transmission of the disease
29
Which immunisations are needed for special patients and occupational groups?
``` > BCG > Influenza > Pneumococcal > Hepatitis B >Varicella-Zoster (Chickenpox) > Herpes-zoster (shingles) ```
30
What is BCG vaccine?
Bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccine - target TB
31
Who should receive a BCG vaccine?
> Some infants (0-12 months): - areas with high incidence of TB >40/100,000 - With parents or grandparents born in an area with high incidence > New immigrants (previously unvaccinated) from high prevalence countries for TB > Contacts (<35yrs) of respiratory TB patients > Healthcare workers
32
What are the indications for an influenza vaccine?
``` > Age >65 years > Nursing home residents >Some health care workers > Immunodeficiency, > Immunosuppression > Asplenia/hyposplenism > Chronic liver disease > Chronic renal disease > Chronic cardiac disease > Chronic lung disease > Diabetes mellitus > Coeliac disease > Pregnant women > Heath care workers ```
33
Which patient group should the influenza vaccine be given to with caution?
Egg allergy - Due to the production of the vaccine being in chicken egg embryo
34
What does the the 2017-2018 influenza vaccine contain?
2017-18 Vaccine contains - A/ (H1N1) - A/ (H3N2) - B/
35
What is regularly changed in the influenza vaccine?
Influenza A and B constantly change antigenic structure: - haemagglutinins (H) - neuraminidases (N) on surface of virus
36
What are the two pneumococcal vaccines?
1) Pneumococcal conjugate polysaccharide vaccine (13 serotypes): Prevenar13® 2) Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (23 serotypes) Pneumovax II ®
37
What are the indications of the pneumococcal vaccine?
``` Indications: > Immunodeficiency > Immunosuppression > Asplenia/hyposplenism > Sickle cell disease > Chronic liver disease > Chronic renal disease > Chronic cardiac disease > Chronic lung disease > Diabetes mellitus > Coeliac disease ```
38
How many doses does the influenza vaccine require?
1 dose
39
How many doses does the Pneumococcal conjugate polysaccharide vaccine (13 serotypes): Prevenar13® require?
3 doses
40
How many doses does the Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (23 serotypes) Pneumovax II ®?
1 dose
41
Who receives the Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (23 serotypes) Pneumovax II ®?
Those with increased risk of pneumococcal infection
42
Who receives the Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (23 serotypes) Pneumovax II ®?
Part of childhood immunisation schedule
43
Who receives hepatitis B vaccination?
> All new born children from 2018 (6 in 1), given at 0, 1 month, 2 month and 1 year > Children at high risk of exposure to HBV > Healthcare workers > Liver disease > Kidney disease > Prisoners > PWID, MSM
44
Who receives varicella-zoster (chickenpox) vaccination?
> Immune suppressed (Cancer treatment or organ transplant) > Children in contact with those at high risk of severe VZV > Healthcare workers
45
Which type of vaccine is the varicella-zoster (chickenpox) vaccination?
Live attenuated virus
46
How many doses are used with the varicella-zoster (chickenpox) vaccination?
2 doses, 4-8 weeks apart
47
Who receives herpes-zoster (shingles) vaccination?
All elderly patients (70-80 years)
48
Which type of vaccine is the herpes-zoster (shingles) vaccination?
Live attenuated virus
49
What is the name of the herpes-zoster (shingles) vaccination?
Zostavax
50
Which disease are targeted with normal human normal immunoglobulins (passive immunisation)?
> Contains antibodies against hepatitis A, rubella, measles > Immunoglobulin deficiencies > Some autoimmune disorders e.g. myasthenia gravis
51
Which disease are targeted with normal disease specific immunoglobulins (passive immunisation)?
``` Used post exposure: > hepatitis B Ig > rabies Ig > tetanus anti-toxin Ig > varicella (chickenpox) Ig > diphtheria anti-toxin Ig (horse) > botulinum anti-toxin Ig ```
52
What is involved int he risk assessment with prophylaxis when travelling?
``` > Health of Traveller > Previous immunisation and prophylaxis > Area to be visited > Duration of visit > Accommodation > Activities > Remote areas > Recent outbreaks ```
53
Sources of information with infection and prophylaxis?
> British National Formulary (BNF) > “Immunization Against Infectious Diseases” (Green Book) > Internet: - www.travax.scot.nhs.uk (registration required) - www.fitfortravel.scot.nhs.uk/ - www.cdc.org > Schools of Tropical Medicine - telephone advice
54
Common immunisation for travellers?
``` > Tetanus > Polio > Typhoid > Hepatitis A > Yellow fever > Cholera ```
55
Immunisation for Travelers | in Special Circumstances?
``` > Meningococcus A, C, W, Y > Rabies > Diphtheria > Japanese B encephalitis > Tick borne encephalitis ```
56
Prophylaxis used in travelling?
> Chemoprophylaxis against Malaria > Post-exposure prophylaxis: - ciprofloxacin for meningococcal disease > HIV post-exposure prophylaxis: - “needle stick” (PEP) - sexual intercourse (PEPSI) > Surgical antibiotic prophylaxis: - perioperative
57
What are the ABCD of malaria prevention?
``` A = Awareness of risk B = Bite prevention C = Chemoprophylaxis D = Diagnosis and treatment ```
58
What are the ABCD of malaria prevention - Awareness of risk?
Areas of the world with highest prevalence
59
What are the ABCD of malaria prevention - Bite prevention?
> Cover-up at dawn and dusk > Insect repellent sprays, lotions (DEET) > Mosquito coils > Permethrin-impregnated mosquito nets
60
What are the ABCD of malaria prevention - Chemoprophylaxis?
> Malarone ® (proquanil & atovaquone) daily doxycycline daily: - Not for children <12 years - photosensivity > Mefloquine weekly - Side effects: psychosis, nightmares (1:10,000) - Avoid if history of psychosis, epilepsy > Chloroquine weekly + proquanil daily: - For vivax/ovale/malariae only
61
Who shouldn't use Malarone ® (proquanil & atovaquone) daily doxycycline daily?
Children <12 years old
62
What are one of the key side effects of Malarone ® (proquanil & atovaquone) daily doxycycline daily for malaria?
Photosensitivity
63
Who's shouldn't use Mefloquine weekly for malaria?
Avoid if history of psychosis, epilepsy
64
What are one of the key side effects of Mefloquine weekly for malaria?
Side effects: psychosis, nightmares (1:10,000)
65
What is the advice for travellers upon returning in terms of malaria?
> Any illness occurring within 1 year and especially within 3 months of return might be malaria > Patients should seek medical attention if become they ill particularly within 3 months and mention malaria risk

Year 3 - Infection (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions