Immunity disorders & infections Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

Zidovudine + corticosteroids

A

severe myopathy

respiratory muscle dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

considerations

A

ex: Lemuvidine, Zidovudine (Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors)

  1. inhibition cytochrome P450 (zidovudine + corticosteroids = severe myopathy including respiratory muscle dysfunction)
  2. Lactic acidosis is a huge issue – may have a lower threshold for getting a blood gas
  3. Nausea, diarrhea, myalgia,
  4. ↑ LFTS, pancreatitis,
  5. peripheral neuropathy (possible nerve injury),
  6. renal toxicity,
  7. marrow suppression,
  8. anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

HIV drug that decreases fentanyl clearance

A

Protease inhibitors (ritonavir)

  • inhibition of CYP450 3A4
    • ↓ fentanyl clearance ~ 67%
      • titrated fentany more conservatively
    • increased effects of versed
  • AVOID: meperidine, amiodarone, diazepam in all pts on PI therapy!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Protease inhibitors (ritonavir)

considerations

A
  1. Hyperlipidemia
  2. glucose intolerance → higher blood glucose levels
  3. abnormal fat distribution
  4. altered LFTs
  5. inhibition of CYP450 3A4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Non-nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors

considerations

A
  • Delavirdine inhibits cytochrome P450
    • may ↑ concentrations
      • sedatives
      • antiarrhythmics
      • warfarin
      • Ca2+ channel blockers
  • Nevirapine induces cytochrome P450 by 98%!
    • Make sure you are checking things like NMB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Integrase strand transfer inhibitors

considerations

A

appear well tolerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chemokine receptor 5 antagonists & entry inhibitors

considerations

A

interact with midazolam altering clearance & drug effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

HAART therapy and anesthesia

A

institution of HAART within 6 months of anesthesia & surgery actually ↑ M&M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ritonavir (Protease inhibitor) & Interactions with Anesthetic Drugs

A
  • Midazolam: ↑ effects
    • sedation, confusion, respiratory depression
    • Small carefully titrated IV dosing O.K. (just do it very slowly and carefully- working in very tiny incraments one consents are signed)
  • Fentanyl: ↑ effects
    • sedation, confusion, respiratory depression
    • Start with low dose & titrate to pain
  • Avoid (pronounced effects → life threatening due to prolonged clearance)
    • Meperidine → metabolized to normeperidine → which affects CNS (seizures) even with one dose may end up with a toxic dose
    • Amiodarone (arrhythmias) → E½ life = 29 days - may not always think about this with ACLS but is something to keep in the back of your mind
    • Diazepam → long ½ life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

sterilization product that destroys HIV

A

Na+ hypochlorite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HIV and Lab results

A
  1. CD4 counts
    • low/ominous <200 mm3;
    • high/encouraging >500-700 mm3
    • if low, maybe want them to go and change drug regimen prior to surgery
  2. T lymphocyte counts
    • low/ominous 200 cells/mg
  3. Viral load evaluates therapy efficacy but unclear significance to anesthetic outcome – wont tell us how they will do under anesthesia, drugs will still effect all other systems of these patients
  4. CBC
  5. BMP
  6. coagulation studies
  7. CXR
  8. EKG+/- ECHO
  9. PFTs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TB drugs that are hepatotoxic

A

isonazid

Rifampin

Pyrazinamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TB drugs that are hepatotoxic AND renal toxic and have significant drug interactions

A

Isoniazid

Rifampin

** these are also the most used**

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Isoniazid adverse rxn

A

Hepatotoxicity

peripheral neurotoxicity

possible renal toxicity

drug interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rifampin adverse rxn

A
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • renal toxicity
  • anemia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • gastrointestinal upset
  • drug interactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pyrazinamide adverse rxn

A

Hepatotoxicity

gastrointestinal upset

arthralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Ethambutol adverse rxn

A

Ocular neuritis

18
Q

when can a TB patient have an elective surgery

A
  1. 3 negative sputum smears
  2. improving symptoms
  3. clear chest X-ray

! must meet ALL 3 requirements to go to surgery !

19
Q

when do you give antibiotics?

A
  • normal pt: within 1 hr before surgery
  • redose if surgery > 4 hrs
20
Q

besides antibiotics how else do you prevent infections

A

AVOID:

  • Hypothermia
    • Cold pts develop infections at a much higher rate!
    • They also bleed more!!!
  • Hypocarbia
    • promotes infection causes vasoconstriction which decreases blood flow
    • make sure you are not hyperventilating the patient
  • Hypoxia
  • hyperoxia
    • concerning for free radical damage
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Blood transfusions
    • if you can avoid it is its ideal – they are at higher risk to get an infection
21
Q

Endocarditis prophilaxis - who gets it?

A

Patients who have:

  • Artificial heart valves
  • Prior history of endocarditis
  • Some congenital cardiac malformations
    • Cyanotic congenital heart disease (birth defects with O2 levels lower than normal), that has not been fully repaired, including children who have had a surgical shunts & conduits, or those with prosthetic device with a repaired
    • A congenital heart defect that’s been completely repaired with artificial material or a device for the first six months after the repair procedure
    • Repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects, such as persisting leaks or abnormal flow at or adjacent to a prosthetic patch or prosthetic device
  • Damaged heart valves
  • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  • A cardiac transplant which develops a problem in a heart valve

AND undergoing the following surgeries:

  • Dental or oral with perforation of the oral mucosa likely (dental extractions)
  • Invasive procedures of respiratory tract where respiratory mucosa perforated
    • I.e. Tonsillectomy, adenoids, abscess drainage
  • Procedure involving infection of GI/GU tract, skin/musculoskeletal tissue (not needed with routine procedures; colonoscopy, upper endoscopy, cystoscopy (removal of renal stones) or even bronchoscopy)
  • Cardiac Surgery
  • Hepatobiliary procedures with high risk of bacteremia
22
Q

When and what do you give for endocarditis prophylaxis

A

give up to 2 hours after if patient misses pre-procedure

  • Ampicillin 2 g IV (50 mg/kg pediatrics)
  • Cefazolin (Ancef) 1 g IV (50 mg/kg pediatrics)
  • Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 1 g IV (50 mg/kg pediatrics)

If allergic to penicillins

  • Clindamycin 600 mg IV (20 mg/kg IV pediatrics)
23
Q

Type I allergic rxn

A

Antigen-Antibody

  • IgE, mast cells, basophils degranulation → anaphylaxis
  • immune-mediated hypersensitivity
24
Q

Type II allergic rxn

A

Cytotoxic-Complement Activation

  • IgG or IgM binding of the antigen-drug
  • alternate pathway, kinin or plasmin activation
  • Type II usually manifest as hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia
25
Type III allergic rxn
Damage secondary to immune complex formation or deposition Glomerulonephritis, vasculitis, arthralgias
26
Type IV allergic rxn
T lymphocyte mediated delayed hypersensitivity type
27
Chemical Mediator allergic rxn
Chemical Mediator with **no antigen-antibody reactio**n mast cells & basophils activate in a *_non-immune reaction_* → anaphylactoid I.e. MR, meperidine, morphine, etc.
28
Anaphylactoid Reaction
manifests as histamine release related to **total dose** of drug administered & **rate of infusion** ex: muscle relaxants, opioids, & protamine
29
Anaphylactoid Reaction prophylaxis
* Corticosteroid * H1 & H2 receptor antagonist I.e. decadron, benadryl, ranitidine
30
Anaphylaxis
* IgE mediated response * life threatening * Extravasation of up to 50% of intravascular fluid volume into the EC space possible * hypotension 1stsign * bronchospasm - seen as increased PIP * edema and airway swelling are late signs
31
Anaphylaxis: Common Offenders
* Antimicrobial agents * PCN → 90% of all allergic reactions & 97% of fatal reactions * Anesthetics * All anesthetic agents can cause anaphylactic reactions with the *exception of ketamine & benzos* * Thiopental has a low risk, but a very high mortality if they have an anaphylactic reaction * Radiocontrast dyes * Foods * I.e. peanuts * Insect venoms * Bee allergy
32
Anaphylaxis: Anesthetic agents
* Muscle relaxants * 50-60% of intra-op anaphylaxis occurances * actually much more likely to be casing than an antibiotic * protamine * seafood & salmon allergy * NPH insulin * Induction agents * Consider ketamine to prevent reaction in high risk patients * Antibiotics (10-15%) * Volatile anesthetics * Opioids * D/t histamine release * Local Anesthetics * esters more likely than amides * Blood → even with crossmatch * 3% of patients * Dextran/Hetastarch * Vascular grafts * DIC more than anaphylaxis * Latex * 15% periop
33
Anaphylaxis: Differential Diagnosis
* Pulmonary embolism * Pneumothorax – high peak inspiratory pressure * AMI * CVA * Hemorrhage * Aspiration * Pulmonary edema * Venous Air embolism * Vasovagal reaction * Medication overdose * Asthma → shouldn’t produce immediate cardiovascular collapse * Arrhythmia → one of the first signs from the muscle reactants these patients could become very bradycardic → may have a loss of profusion to the coronaries and look like an MI * Pericardial tamponade * Postextubation stridor * Sepsis
34
Anaphylaxis: Signs & Symptoms
* Rapid onset CV collapse often 1st sign → myocardial ischemia & dysrhythmias * **Hypotension** → up to 50% of the ICF moves to ECF secondary to capillary permeability changes + leukotrienes are negative inotropes) * this happens within minutes * Suspect anaphylaxis with sudden hypotension, +/- bronchospasm, following IV drug administration * Bradycardia may occur especially with muscle relaxants * Difficult intubation → laryngeal edema (usually this is if it is in the later phase – keep in mind if they have an LMA or are masking you will need to intubate immediately because it will get worse and worse) * ↑ PIP or inability to ventilate → **bronchospasm** * Flushing, urticaria ## Footnote Ketamine → propofol → epi All could work in severe situation
35
anaphylaxis most common offending abx
1. β-lactam * Penicillin, Amoxicillin, Ampicillin, Meticillin 2. quinolones * Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin, Ofloxacin, Moxifloxacin 3. sulfonamides 4. vancomycin
36
Anaphylaxis: Prompt Intervention
* Communication (let everyone know → surgeon, additional personnel) * should stop the case immediately until stable again * Stop administration of likely agent(s) * Oxygenation * Elevate legs if possible to promote blood flow to central circulation * Volume infusion → need at least 10-25 ml/kg * Colloids fluids (10 ml/kg) are preferred to crystalloid fluids (colloids may stay in the intravascular space more) * Fluids boluses over 20 minutes
37
Anaphylaxis: Pharmacology
* Epinephrine – (always always start with epi but sometimes it does fail) * Blocks inflammatory mediator release from sensitized cells * Restores cell membrane permeability * β-agonist effect = relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle, ↑ BP & ↑ inotropy * β2 → bronchodilation, ↓ histamine release from mast cells; also best to reverse bronchospasm * β1 → will help heart compensate &↑ inotropy * α1 stimulation → vasoconstriction & restore vascular integrity * Adult IV: 10 mcg-1 mg titrate q 1-2 minutes * Start with 10 mcg then double with each repeated dose * Children: 1-10 mcg/kg titrate q 1-2 minutes
38
Anaphylaxis: if resistant to epinephrine
* **Glucagon**: 1-5 mg bolus + infusion 1-2.5 mg/hr * ↑ cAMP promotes inotropic activity and helps with the bronchoconstriction * **Norepinephrine:** 0.05-0.1 mcg/kg/min * will not help the bronchospasm situation – but will help in shunting blood to central areas –emergency drug * **Vasopressin**: 2-10 unit bolus + infusion 0.01-0.1 unit/min infusion * moves blood to central circulation
39
Anaphylaxis: secondary Pharmacology
Not necessarily life saving but will help slow down or stop reaction causing anaphylaxis * β2 agonists * albuterol if patient is still moving air * Histamine antagonism * Diphenhydramine (IV)(0.5-1 mg/kg IV) with Ranitidine 50 mg IV → better for prevention than for tx. * H1 & H2 need to be blocked together - has the best effect * Corticosteroids: * Enhances β-effects of other agents * Inhibits arachidonic acid release (↓ leukotrienes & prostaglandins) * Reduced activation of the complement system * **Hydrocortisone** is favored 250 mg IV (Methylprednisolone also OK 80 mg IV) * Children hydrocortisone 50-100 mg & methylprednisolone 2 mg/kg * Get them on board as soon as possible - wont see immediate effects
40
Septic Patient - Anesthesia Optimization Goals
Delay case if not an absolute emergency 1. Normal temperature 2. Normal blood glucose 3. MAP \>65 mmHg 4. CVP 8-12 mmHg 5. Urine output adequate 6. Normalized pH * correct metabolic acidosis - Plasmalite or Normasol- better compared to LR and NS because they are right at physiologic pH – it is maintained MUCH easier 7. Mixed venous O2 Sat \>70% 8. Lower VT 6-8 ml/kg → to prevent barotrauma 9. PIP \< 30 cmH2O 10. Hgb 7-9 g/dL 11. Prevent additional infection
41
Septic pt and epiduals
Don't even try **Absolute contraindication** to do an epidural anesthesia * Especially with hemodynamic instability → patient may not tolerate ↓ SVR * Epidural abscess if bacteremic blood introduced into epidural space