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Immuno/ID Flashcards

(68 cards)

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1
Q

What type of virus is HIV and what is the most common mode of transmission

A

Double stranded RNA

Sex

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2
Q

Which organisms are associated with the following sputum types?

  1. Rust coloured
  2. Green coloured
  3. Red-currant jelly
  4. Foul smelling/bad tasting
A
  1. Strep pneumoniae
  2. Haemophilus, Pseudomonas, pneumococcal
  3. Klebsiella
  4. Anaerobes
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3
Q

Chagas disease organism and presentation

A

Trypanasoma Cruz

Bite by Reduviid bug, forms nodule/scar
10-20 years later:
GI Sx: dysphagia, bloating, constipation
Cardiac manifestations: arrhythmia, HF, arrest

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4
Q

Yellow fever Px and Dx test

A

Acute phase: fever, myalgia, appetite loss, N+V for 3-4 days
SLOW PULSE in context of fever (60bpm)

Dx: ELISA

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5
Q

Weil’s disease route, organism, Px and Rx

A

Spread by infected rat urine
Leptospira interrogates
Abrupt fever, myalgia, cough, CP
+/- haematuria, jaundice, meningitis, renal failure, uveitis

Rx: IV Pen or Amox

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6
Q

River blindness organism and Px

A

Onchocerciasis

skin changes
itching
nodules
vision change
SSA
NB. can take years for Sx to occur
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7
Q

Name some live vaccines

A 
MMR
Oral typhoid
BCG
Yellow fever
Rotavirus
Polio
INTRANASAL influenza (Paeds)
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8
Q

Teenage vaccinations

A

12-13yo: HPV

12-18yo: tetanus, diphtheria, polio “3in1 booster” + Men ACWY

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9
Q

Which antimicrobial can cause drug-induced lupus (DLE) and which antibody tends to be +ve?

A

Isoniazid
Anti-histone

(Procainamide and hydrazine can also cause DLE)

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10
Q

Antibodies in dermatomyositis

A

Anti-Jo

Anti-Mi2

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11
Q

Antibody in scleroderma (aka limited systemic sclerosis)
And what parts of body are affected?
~CREST

A

Anti-centromere

Face, hands, feet

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12
Q

Which virus is associated with nasopharyngeal cancer?

A

EBV

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13
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity definition and an example

A

IgE mast cell mediated allergic reaction releasing histamine

eg. asthma, anaphylaxis, allergic rhinitis

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14
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity definition and an example

A

Antibody-dependent reaction binding blood elements

eg. Goodpasture’s, ABO, AIHA

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15
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity definition and an example

A

Immune-complex mediated ie. antibody binds antigen, deposit in tissues
eg. SLE, RA, EAA

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16
Q

Antibodies in antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Anti-cardiolipin
Lupus anticoagulant
Anti-b2-glycoprotein

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17
Q

Antibody in diffuse systemic sclerosis?
And what parts of body are affected?
~CREST

A

Anti-topoisomerase

Diffuse skin involvement + organ fibrosis

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18
Q

HIV PEP indications

A
  • Sexual intercourse with high risk person with unknown infection status
  • Occupational exposure to potential HIV infected bodily fluids

NB. Not indicated if HIV positive person on ART with undetectable viral load for 6months

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19
Q

Returned from Ecuador, develops fever, hepatosplenomegaly, LNopathy, neuro symptoms.

What is the organism?
What is the vector?
Treatment?

A

Bartanella bacilliformis
Sandfly
Penicillin (occasionally Chloramphenicol)

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20
Q

Sleeping sickness organism and vector?

A

Trypanosoma brucei

Tsetse fly

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21
Q

Incubation period for cholera

A

0-5 days

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22
Q

Which antimicrobial causes red urine?

A

Rifampicin

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23
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity definition and an example

A

Delayed-type. T-cell mediated ie. does not involve antibodies
eg. contact dermatitis, Mantoux test, coeliac

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24
Q

Contraindications for rabies vaccine

A

Previous reaction to rabies vaccine

NOTHING ELSE!

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25
Rocky Mountain spotted fever organism and vector and management?
Rickettsia rickets (most commonly) Ticks Rx: Doxy
26
What is DiGeorge syndrome?
Selective t-cell deficiency due to failure of development of third and fourth pharyngeal pouches
27
Example of a primary B-cell deficiency and what does it make you predisposed to?
Selective IgA deficiency (most common) | Prone to encapsulated Gram +ves
28
Leishmaniasis vector? | Types of leishmaniasis?
``` Sand fly Types: - cutaneous: ulcers, life long scar - mucocutaneous: nasal and buccal damage - visceral: hepatosplenomeg, anaemia ```
29
River blindness organism (itchy and vision loss)
Onchocerciasis volvulus
30
Sources of tapeworm (diarrhoea with thin, flat, pale segments)
Infected raw meat Ingesting faecal matter Contaminated water
31
Treatment of treponema pallidum
penicillin
32
Tests for EBV
Paul Bunnel test | Monospot
33
Antibodies in GuillanBarre
Anti-ganglioside
34
Emergency IM BenPen doses
<1yo: 300mg 1-10yo: 600mg >10yo: 1200mg
35
Chlamydia partner notification
Aymptomatic men/all women: all partners from 6 months back Symptomatic men: all partners from 4 weeks back Treat all contacts
36
Chlamydia treatment? (and if pregnant?)
7 days Doxy OR 1g STAT Azithro If pregnant: azith, erythro, or amox
37
Candidal breast infection presentation + treatment
CONTINUE feeding | Treat mother and baby
38
Who is offered the HPV vaccine and when? | What is the HPV vaccine?
ALL boys AND girls 12-13yo | 2 doses of Gardasil
39
What is treatment for TB
4months RIPE -> 4 months RI
40
Side effects of RIPE
Rifampicin: hepatitis, red urine, liver inducer Isoniazid: peripheral neuropathy Pyrazinamide: hepatitis, gout Ethambutol: visual defects
41
PID Rx
PO Ofloxacin + PO Met OR IM Cef + PO Doxy + PO Met
42
Contraindications to BCG
``` Previous BCG HIV Positive Mantoux/Heaf Previous TB Pregnancy Not recommended in >35yo ```
43
Conjunctivitis ABx (+ if pregnant?)
Chloramphenicol | If pregnant: fusidic acid
44
Pertussis Rx
Oral Azith or Clari (if onset of cough within last 21 days) | If pregnant: Erythro
45
Meningitis Rx in children
<3mo: IV Cefotaxime + Amox >3mo: IV Cefotaxime If suspect Haemophilus and >1mo, add IV Dex
46
Campylobacter Rx
Conservative unless severe | ABx: Clari (alternative Cipro)
47
Erysipelas ABx
Fluclox
48
Human bite ABx
CoAmox
49
Dental abscess ABx
Amox
50
Mastitis during feeding ABx
Fluclox
51
SE of Cipro
tendinopathy eg. Achilles tendon rupture | lowers seizure threshold
52
Genital warts are associated with which HPV? | How to treat?
HPV 6, 11 Multiple, nonkeratinised: TOP podophyllum Solitary, keratinised: cryotherapy
53
HIV PEP regime?
4 weeks of HAART
54
Causes of STI Ulcers
``` o PAINFUL:  Herpes (HSV) • Multiple • ~UTI, oral/face ulcers, painful LNs can be b/l  Chancroid (H. ducreyi) • Multiple • Unilateral, painful LNs  NB. Behcet’s eg. if VTE etc ``` ``` o Painless:  Syphilis • Chancre in stage 1  LGV (Chlamydia) • 1. Small painless pustule -> ulcer • 2. Painful LNs • 3. Proctocolitis ```
55
Which virus causes the common cold?
Rhinovirus
56
Threadworm treatment
Single dose of Mebendazole for patient and rest of household | Hygiene advice
57
Which bacteria tends to affect those with SCD or malaria?
Salmonella typhi
58
When do you offer HF patients the influenza vaccine?
Annually
59
Indications for annual influenza vaccine? | Types of vaccine?
Children = live vaccine, intranasal ``` All >65yo all adults with single organ failure all DM pregnant BMI >40 = inactivated vaccine, IM ```
60
Leptospirosis presentation and Rx
Who: farmer, sewage worker, vets, hepatorenal patients Sx: fever, flu, renal failure, jaundice, subconjunctival haemorrhage, headache Rx: Benpen or doxy high dose
61
Indications to prolong UTI treatment to 5-10 days
Immunosupression Renal failure Abnormal urinary tract
62
EBV associated malignancies
Nasopharyngeal carninoma Burkitts lymphoma Hodgkins lymphoma
63
Lyme disease Rx? First and second line
Doxy Amox if Doxy c/i Ceftriaxone if disseminated
64
Which ABx cause cholestasis as a SE?
Coamox, Fluclox
65
Treatment for ringworm
Antifungals
66
Keratomalacia, what is it + features?
Visual disease secondary to vitamin A deficiency Following progression of xeropthalmia ``` Features: nightblindness tunnel vision dry conjunctiva decreased visual acuity ```
67
Haemorrhagic colitis bacteria
Enterobacteria eg. e coli
68
Tumour marker for breast ca
Ca 15-3 | Ca 27.29

MSRA (18 decks)

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