Immunohema AE practice

Question 1

The blood group found in the Band
3.0 of the RBC is:
a. Diego
b. MN
c. Ss
d. Gerbich

Question 2

The blood group that was first
discovered using the AHG
a. Kell
b. Kidd
c. Duffy
d. ABO

Question 3

Reverse typing in Blood Bank is not
required in:
I. For confirmation testing of
labeled previously typed
donor cells
II. In infant less than 4 months
old
III.18-year-old patient who will
undergo transfusion
IV.A first time donor
a. I
b. I, II, III
c. I, II
d. I, II, III, IV

Question 4

Reagent that will differentiate Type
O from Type Oh cells:
a. Dolichos biflorus lectin
b. Ulex europeus lectin
c. Griffonia simplicifolia lectin
d. Acidified anti-B

Question 5

The person who discovered the Rh
Blood Group:
a. Levine and Stetson
b. Landsteiner and Weiner
c. Jules Bordet
d. Karl Landsteiner

Question 6

ISBT 001003 is:
a. A
b. AB
c. B
d. O

Question 7

All of the following antibodies may
be produced by the Rh blood group,
EXCEPT:
a. Anti-C
b. Anti-f
c. Anti-d
d. Anti-CE

Question 8

All the following causes severe
Hemolytic disease of the fetus and
the newborn, EXCEPT:
a. Rh
b. Kell
c. ABO
d. Duffy

Question 9

Rh null cells are associated with
this RBC morphology:
a. Acanthocytosis
b. Stomatocytosis
c. Myelofibrosis
d. Sickle cell

Question 10

Highly specialized prenatal test in
which a sample of the baby’s blood
is removed from the umbilical cord
for testing
a. Cordocentesis
b. Percutaneous umbilical cord
sampling
c. Both cordocentesis and
percutaneous umbilical cord
sampling
d. Amniocentesis

Question 11

The purpose of this blood derivative
is to prevent severe HDFN by
preventing anti-D formation among
Rh-negative individual:
a. RhoGam
b. Washed RBC
c. Immune serum globulin
d. FFP

Question 12

Blood group antigens are present in
the:
I. RBC
II. Platelets
III.WBC
IV.Plasma
a. I
b. I, II, III
c. I, II
d. I, II, III, IV

Question 13

According to the latest ISBT
Census, there are __ blood groups
a. 30
b. 39
c. 36
d. 43

Question 14

All of the following shows a correct
way of writing blood group
terminologies, except:
a. Fy(a+b+)
b. Jk(a+)
c. Anti-D
d. Duffy b-positive

Question 15

Positive reactions in Blood Bank:
I. Agglutination
II. Hemolysis
III.Precipitation
IV.Flocculation
a. I
b. I, II, III
c. I, II
d. I, II, III, IV

Question 16

This Lewis phenotype is seen in
increase renal graft and heart
disease; increased susceptibility to
infections by Candida and
uropathogenic E. coli
a. Le(a-b-)
b. Leb
c. Lea
d. Lex

Question 17

True for ABO antibodies, EXCEPT:
a. Immune antibodies
b. Reacts at room temperature
c. Mostly IgM antibodies
d. Known as Isohemagglutinins

Question 18

Antibody associated with
Paroxysmal Nocturnal
Hemoglobinuria:
a. Anti-A
b. Autoanti-P
c. Cold agglutinins
d. None of the choices

Question 19

A phenotype capable of producing
the anti-D
a. Weak D
b. Partial D
c. Exalted D
d. Rh: 1, -2, -3, -4, -5

Question 20

Considered as the primary
component of choice against
thrombocytopenia due to its cheap
value and availability:
a. Random Donor Platelet
Concentrate (RDP)
b. Single Donor Platelet
Concentrate (SDP)
c. Both RDP and SDP
d. FFP

Question 21

I and i antigens are present in the:
I. Plasma
II. Human milk
III.Serum
IV.Urine
a. I
b. I, II, III
c. I, II
d. I, II, III, IV

Question 22

Identify the procedure: Performed
by accessing the fetal umbilical vein
and injecting donor RBCs directly
into the vein
a. Intrauterine Transfusion
b. Cordocentesis
c. Exchange Transfusion
d. Amniocentesis

Question 23

Antibodies of the following blood
group demonstrates dosage effect,
EXCEPT:
a. Kidd
b. Rh except D
c. Lutheran
d. ABO

Question 24

Many small to medium aggregates
with clear background is graded as:
a. 1+
b. 3+
c. 2+
d. 4+

Question 25

(M-N-) is associated with resistance to infection with: a. Plasmodium falciparum b. Helicobacter pylori c. Plasmodium vivax d. Hydatid worm

Question 26

Causes of false-positive result in Direct AHG: I. Over centrifugation II. Small fibrin clots III.Dirty glassware IV.Rouleaux formation a. I b. I, II, III c. I, II d. I, II, III, IV

Question 27

The maximum allowable blood that can be collected from a Whole Blood allogeneic donor: a. 450 mL b. 525 mL c. 600 mL d. 600 mL

Question 28

A gene that does not produce any detectable traits: I. O gene II. h gene III.A gene IV.B gene a. I b. I, II, III c. I, II d. I, II, III, IV

Question 29

In the FDA label for blood bags, Blood type A color label is: a. Yellow b. Pink c. White d. Blue

Question 30

.All of the following are true for Private antigens, EXCEPT: a. Rare antigens b. Also known as family antigen c. Example: Cellano or k d. Also known as low incidence antigens

Question 31

Blood preservative-anticoagulant that has a storage day of 21 days: I. CPD II. ACD III.CP2D IV.CPDA-1 a. I b. I, II, III c. I, II d. I, II, III, IV

Question 32

Factors affecting immunization and severity of HDFN: I. Antigenic exposure II. Immunoglobulin class III.Host factors IV.Antibody specificity a. I b. I, II, III c. I, II d. I, II, III, IV

Question 33

Reagent composition of rejuvesol: a. PIGPA b. ADSOL c. SOLX d. Nutricel

Question 34

Identify the ABO type: Anti-A + Saliva + A cell = Without agglutination Anti-B + Saliva + B cell = Without agglutination Anti-H + Saliva + O cell = Without agglutination a. A b. AB c. B d. Nonsecretor

Question 35

Component of the anticoagulant preservative of RBC that maintains the pH during storage: a. Citrate b. Dextrose c. Sodium phosphate d. Mannitol

Question 36

Blood group antigens that are easily destroyed by Enzymes: I. MN II. Fya III.D IV.Lea a. I b. I, II, III c. I, II d. I, II, III, IV