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MLS Blood Bank > Immunohematology > Flashcards

Immunohematology Flashcards

(72 cards)

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1
Q

Antigens passively attached to red blood cells are bound by antibodies:

A

indirect (passive) hemagglutination

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2
Q

A graft exchanged between a brother and sister who are not identical twins is defined as a:

A

allograft

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3
Q

A graft from one point of a persons body to another:

A

autograft

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4
Q

A graft of tissue between two identical indivduals?

A

isograft

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5
Q

Where are Class I MHC antigens found?

A

on platelets and nucleated cells

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6
Q

Where are Class II MHC antigens found?

A

B cells, macrophages, activated T lymphs and dendridic cells

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7
Q

Which of the following conditions is the thymus congenitally missing or extrememly reduced in size?

A

DiGeorge syndrome

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8
Q

This antibody is associated with PHN (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)

A

Anti-P

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9
Q

This antibody is associated with cold agglutinin disease and mycoplasma pneumoniae infections?

A

Anti-I

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10
Q

This antibody is associated with infectious mononucleosis?

A

Anti-i

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11
Q

Reduces net charge of RBCs, allowing them to come closer together?

A

albumin

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12
Q

Lowers ionic strength of suspending medium, allowing ags and abs to move closer together more rapidly. Reduces incubation time for IAT.

A

LISS

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13
Q

Increases ab uptake?

A

PEG

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14
Q

Reduces RBC surface charge by cleaving sialic acid molecules. MNS Fya antigens destroyed

A

Enzymes (ficin, papain)

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15
Q

Stimulated by 1st exposure to ag
Lag phase days to months
Type of Ab at first IgG may switch to IgG 2-3 wks
Rises slowly, peaks, then declines

A

primary response

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16
Q

Stimulated by subsequent exposure to ag
Lag phase hours
IgM mediated
Rises faster and higher, stays elevated longer

A

Secondary reponse

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17
Q

Anti-A 4+
Anti-B 0
A1 cells 1+
B cells 4+

A

A2 with anti-A1

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18
Q

Anti-A 4+
Anti-B 4+
A1-4+
B cells 4+

A

rouleaux or AB with cold alloantibody

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19
Q

If a patient has hypogammaglobulinemia, cold autoantibodies, and IgM alloantibodies what results could be invaild?

A

ABO serum grouping

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20
Q

A patient has development of bilateral pulmonary edema what is characterized by this?

A

TRALI

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21
Q

Too large a volume or too rapid of rate for transfusion can cause what?

A

TACO (Transfusion-associated circulatory overload)

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22
Q

Le Se H

A

Le(a-b+) Secrets all a, b and H

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23
Q

Le sese

A

Le(a+b-)

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24
Q

lele sese

lele Se

A

Le(a-b-)

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25
What is a clinally significant antibody that binds complement?
Jka
26
M/N ab are well developed at birth and are susceptible to enzymes T/F
T
27
This dissociates RBC-bound IgG allowing the accurate phenotyping of patient cells when the DAT is positive:
Glycine acid EDTA
28
Why are donor platelets gently agitated?
to maintain the pH by promoting gas exchange
29
Which of the following blood groups reacts best with an anit-H or anti-IH?
O
30
Quality control for a unit of RBCs requires a maximum hematocrit level of:
80%
31
A disadvantage for both gel and soild phase technology is:
inability to detect C3d complement-coated cells
32
use of refrigerated, clotted blood sample in which complement components coats RBC's in vitro can cause a false positive what?
DAT
33
How many weeks do you have to wait to donate blood again?
8 weeks
34
ACD/CPD/CPD2 additives have give blood a shelf life of how many days?
21
35
CPDA-1 additives give blood a shelf life of how many days?
35
36
What autoantibody specificity if most likely found in patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?
P
37
How many genes encode for the following Rh antigens: DCEce?
two (RHD, RHCE)
38
Why would IgG be preferred over AHG in an antibody screen?
Interference from non-red cell stimulated cold antibodies in patient sera is reduced because the attachment of complement is not detected.
39
What is the cut off age to donate if you contracted hepatitis as a child?
11
40
What type of sensitivity involves hematuria and a sudden drop in Hgb?
Type II
41
The surface of MHC class II gene products is important in:
antigen recognition by T lypmphocytes (antigen presenting cells)
42
What product must contain >150 mg of fibrinogen and >80 IU/ bag of Factor VIII?
cryoprecipitate
43
What product is used for multiple coagulation deficiencies, Factor XI deficiency, and other congenital deficiencies for which no concentrate is available?
FFP
44
If a unit is found to have a significant antibody which portion of the blood can not be used?
FFP
45
Ulex europaeus tests for what?
H antigen
46
If ulex eruoaues is tested against a patients red blood cells and it is negative what is the patients phenotype?
O h phyenotype
47
Which antibodies bind complement?
I, Kidd (jka, Jkb), Lewis(Lea, Leb)
48
If a patient has hypofibrinogenemia what blood product is best?
cryo
49
These cells contain O positive cells coated with anti-D
Coomb's control cells
50
What antibodies can be neutralized with pooled human plasma?
anit-Cha and anti-Rga | Chido and Rogers
51
Large spike on serum protein electrophoresis in the gamma region, proliferation of B lyphocytes
Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia
52
Lewis antibodies can be absent when a patient is?
pregnant
53
Testing native antigens of the red blood cells are bound by antibodies
direct hemagglutination testing
54
What geneotype would react with anti-f?
rr (c,e)
55
What blood group antigens change during pregnancy?
Lea and Leb decrease on red cells
56
How are Rh antigens inherited?
inherited as codominant alleles
57
this type of transfusion reaction occurs <24 hrs after transfusion of red cells. Fever, chills, pain or oozing, back or flank pain, DIC
Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
58
This type of transfusion reaction occurs >24 hrs after transfusion, usually involves ABO incompatibility, misidentification of patient
Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
59
Biochemical changes occur during the shelf-life of stored blood. What happens during storage?
decrease in 2,3 DPG concentration
60
If a person has a genetic make up Hh, AO, LeLe, sese what substance will be found in the secretions?
Lea
61
What lectin differentiates A1 from A2?
Dilichos biflorus A1 postitive A2 negative A3 negative
62
What blood group systems are destroyed by enzymes?
MNS duffy
63
Which blood donation is done for your self?
Autologous
64
Which blood donation is done for others?
allogeneic
65
What is characteristic of the Xga blood group system?
inherited on X chromosome; frequency varies with sex
66
What is ringers solution used for?
to rapidly transfuse a patient
67
The immunodominant sugar for group A
N-acetylgalactosamine
68
The immunodominant sugar for group B
D-galactose
69
What chromosome is the H antigen located on?
19
70
Which antibody is found in mycoplasma pneumoniae infections and cold hemagglutinin disease?
Anti-I
71
a procedure that removes red cells (know antigens) to remove red cell antibodies from a solution (plasma or antisera): group A red cells can remove anit-A from a solution
adsorption
72
Fy(a- b-) individuals are resistant to what disease?
Plasmodium knowlesi

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