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Immunology Flashcards

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1
Q

inhalation of dried
powder of smallpox lesions.

a. vaccination
b. Insuffation
c. Variolation
d. inoculation

A

Insuffation

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2
Q
  • Father of Immunology
  • Was also involved in
    microbiology.
  • Created the first live attenuated
    vaccine for chicken cholera
    and anthrax vaccine.
  • Involved in the development of
    the rabies vaccine.

a. Edward Jenner
b.Lady Mary Wortley Montagu
c.Hacckel
d.Louis Pasteur

A

Louis Pasteur

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3
Q

Variolation is the immunization
against smallpox done through
insuffation. Lady Mary Wortley Montagu contributed the variolation.

a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. only 2nd statement is true
d. only 1st statement is true

A

only 2nd statement is true

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4
Q

First person who observed the
process of phagocytosis (cell
eating)

a. Hacckel
b. Edelman and Porter
c. Gallo and Montagier
d. Ellie Metchnikoff

A

Hacckel

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5
Q

Worked on Delayed Type
Hypersensitivity. (Type IV
Hypersensitivity)

a. Portier and Richet
b. Koch
c. Marrack
d. Edelman and Porter

A

Koch

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6
Q

choose the correct pair

a. Hybridoma Technology: Jerne and Burnet
b. Th1 and Th2 Model: Ramsdell
c. Toll Like Receptors: Hoffman and Beutler
d. HPV Vaccine: Allison

A

Toll Like Receptors: Hoffman and Beutler

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7
Q

choose correct pair

a. Portier and Richet; (Type IV
Hypersensitivity)
b. Tonegawa;Antibody Molecule
c. Gallo and Montagier;study of syphilis
d.Marrack;Lattice Theory of Ag-Ab
Binding

A

Marrack;Lattice Theory of Ag-Ab
Binding

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8
Q

choose incorrect pair

a. Variolation;Lady Mary Wortley Montagu
b. TCR;Allison
c. Ramsdell;HPV Vaccine
d.Mossman;Th1 and Th2 Model

A

Ramsdell;HPV Vaccine

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9
Q

True about innate immunity

  1. No immunologic memory
  2. Response is rapid and specific
  3. PAMPs and DAMPs are recognized
  4. does not need prior exposure to activate

a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,2,3
c. 1,3,4
d. 1,3

A

1,3,4

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10
Q

true about adaptive immune

  1. has immunologic memory
  2. slow but specific response
  3. Anamnestic
  4. No prior exposure is needed to activate

a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,2,3
c. 1,2
d. 1,2,4

A

1,2,3

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11
Q

prevent the growth of pathogens

a. Lysozymes
b. stomach acidity
c.Normal flora
d. Ciliated cells

A

stomach acidity

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12
Q

true or false
If the innate immunity recognizes an antigen again, the second response would be faster.

A

false; should be acquired immunity

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13
Q

Cellular Component that is called sustained phagocytosis

a. Monocytes
b. Macrophages
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils

A

Monocytes

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14
Q

They are able to produce cytokines which are chemical signals involved
in the transmission or signaling of other cells

a. Monocytes
b. Macrophages
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils

A

Macrophages

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15
Q

→ 1
st immune cells that go to the site of injury
→ Coming from the blood vessels, they would go to the tissues then
become phagocytic
→ Short lifespan

a. Monocytes
b. Macrophages
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils

A

Neutrophils

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16
Q

Receptors needed for NK cells

a. CD16 and CD56
b. CD26 and CD50
c. CD5 and CD 16
d. CD6 and CD5

A

CD16 and CD5

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17
Q

→ They are capable of antigen presentation
→ Professional antigen presenting cells (APC)
→ They are also involved in the adaptive immune response
→ Have a large amount of MHC Class II molecules

a. Mast cells
b. T cells
c. NK cells
d. Dendritic cells

A

Dendritic cells

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18
Q

Humoral Components

  1. Complement
  2. Interferon
  3. Phagosome
  4. Lysozyme

a. 1,2,3,4
b. 2,3,4
c. 1,3,4
d. 1,2,4

A

1,2,4

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19
Q

true or false
Macrophages and Dendritic cells are involved in innate and adaptive immune
response

A

true

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20
Q

TLR2 for

a. gram neg bacteria
b. gram pos bacteria
c. dsRNA
d. ssRNA

A

gram pos bacteria

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21
Q

TLR3

a. gram neg bacteria
b. gram pos bacteria
c. dsRNA
d. ssRNA

A

dsRNA

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22
Q

TLR7
a. gram neg bacteria
b. gram pos bacteria
c. dsRNA
d. ssRNA

A

ssRNA

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23
Q

LPS (endotoxin)
a.TLR1
b. TLR4
c. TLR2
d. TLR3

A

TLR4

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24
Q

lipopeptides of Mycobacteria

a.TLR1
b. TLR4
c. TLR2
d. TLR3

A

TLR1

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25
dsDNA a. TLR3 b. TLR7 c. TLR8 d. TLR9
TLR9
26
Phagocytosis step wherein Microorganism is completely surrounded by a part of the cell membrane a. granule contact b. adherence c. engulfment d. formation of phagosome
formation of phagosome
27
Outflowing of cytoplasm to surround the microorganism a. granule contact b. adherence c. engulfment d. formation of phagosome
engulfment
28
Physical contact between the phagocytic cell and the microorganism occurs, aided by opsonins a. granule contact b. adherence c. engulfment d. formation of phagosome
adherence
29
Chemotaxins: a. C3b, C4b, C5b b. C2b, C3b, C4b c. C5a, C5b, C6, C7 d. C5a, C3b, C6, C5b
C5a, C5b, C6, C7
30
Opsonins: a. C3b, C4b, C5b b. C2b, C3b, C4b c. C5a, C5b, C6, C7 d. C5a, C3b, C6, C5b
C3b, C4b, C5b
31
Buckley Syndrome has presence of stomatitis. Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome is seen in patients with atopic dermatitis a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. only 2nd statement is true d. only 1st statement is true
both statements are false
32
true about Job’s Syndrome 1. also known as Buckley Syndrome 2. Hyper IgE syndrome 3. increased production of IFN-gamma by T cells 4.seen in patients with recurrent infections (stomatitis) a. 1,3 b. 2,3 c. 1,2 d. 3, 4
1,2
33
Plasma proteins that are increased rapidly in response to innate inflammation a. IFN b. APR c. TLR d. DAMPs
APR
34
B lymphocytes is part of the cell mediated immunity. Cell Mediated Immunity is involved in cell lysis and apoptosis a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. only 2nd statement is true d. only 1st statement is true
only 2nd statement is true
35
Humoral Immunity 1. B lymphocytes 2. Extracellular pathogens 3. Antibodies 4. MOA: Opsonization, Neutralization, phagocytose pathogen a. 1,2,3 b. 1,2,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 1,2,3,4
1,2,3,4
36
Immune cells involved in Humoral Immunity a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
37
Percentage of T lymphocytes in the blood a. 10-15% b. 75-85% c. 85-95% d. 20-55%
75-85%
38
Percentage of B lymphocytes in the blood a. 10-15% b. 75-85% c. 85-95% d. 20-55%
10-15%
39
Surface markers present in T lymphocytes a. CD5,CD3,CD4,CD6 b.CD1,CD3,CD6,CD8 c. CD2,CD3,CD4,CD8 d. CD3,CD2,CD4,CD8
CD2,CD3,CD4,CD8
40
B lymphocytes is identified by a. Rosette formation b. Antibodies c. Extracellular microbes d. Surface IgM and IgD
Surface IgM and IgD
41
Found on all T cells; associated with T-cell antigen receptor. Has 20-28KD a. CD4 b. CD5 c. CD3 d. CD8
CD3
42
Identifies T helper cells; also found on most T regulatory cells. Has 55KD a. CD4 b. CD5 c. CD3 d. CD8
CD4
43
Low affinity Fc receptor for antibody; mediates phagocytosis CD16 CD6 CD8 CD18
CD16
44
Part of B-cell coreceptor; regulates B-cell development and activation CD21 CD19 CD16 CD56
CD19
45
Receptor for complement component C3d; part of B-cell coreceptor with CD19 CD15 CD19 CD16 CD56
CD21
46
crucial for differentiation and growth of T cell a.Pro-T/Double Negative Thymocytes b. Pre-T/ Double Positive Thymocytes c. Pre-T/ Double Positive Thymocytes
Pro-T/Double Negative Thymocytes
47
Able to recognize Peptides complexed with MHC-1 molecules Capable of direct killing a. T regulatory b. T helper c. T cytotoxic
T cytotoxic
48
Suppressor/Regulatory, maintains tolerance to self-antigens. Inhibits Th and Tc activation a. T regulatory b. T helper c. T cytotoxic
a. T regulatory
49
Enhance functions of other cells by secretion cytokines a. T regulatory b. T helper c. T cytotoxic
T helper
50
Pro-B cells a. CD19, CD45R b. CD25 c. CD19+ , CD45R d. CD27, CD138, CD38
CD19+ , CD45R
51
Plasma cells a. CD19, CD45R b. CD25 c. CD19+ , CD45R d. CD27, CD138, CD38
d. CD27, CD138, CD38
52
Activated B cells a. CD19, CD45R b. CD25 c. CD19+ , CD45R d. CD27, CD138, CD38
CD25
53
Pre- B cells a. CD19, CD45R b. CD25 c. CD19+ , CD45R d. CD27, CD138, CD38
CD19, CD45R
54
true or false Phytohaemagglutinin and Concanavalin A both acts upon T cells only
true
55
true or false Lipopolyssacharide acts upon T cells only
false
56
true or false Pokeweed mitigen acts upon T and B cells
true
57
Forward LS assess the cells size Side LS assess the cells granularity a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. only 2nd statement is true d. only 1st statement is true
both statements are true
58
Sheep RBC would surround the T- cells forming rosette shape. T-cell has the CD4 marker that would bind to the receptor of the sheep RBC a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. only 2nd statement is true d. only 1st statement is true
only 1st statement is true
59
Used for washing, suspending, and diluting the fluid for the procedure a. Nylon Wool b. RPMI- 1640 c. Ficoll Hypaque d. Hanks PBS
Hanks PBS
60
Culture medium a. Nylon Wool b. RPMI- 1640 c. Ficoll Hypaque d. Hanks PBS
RPMI- 1640
61
Filters blood Places where contact between T cells, antigens, and B cells occur a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary
secondary
62
Produces hematopoietic stem cells; maturation of B and NK cells a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary
a. primary
63
Histologic marker for thymus a. Hassall's corpuscles b. Wagon wheel appearance c. Alexin d. Germinal Center of Fleming
Hassall's corpuscles
64
→ PALS (Periarteriolar Lymphoid Sheath)-contains T cells. → Primary follicle → Marginal Zone a. medulla b. cortex c. red pulp d. white pulp
white pulp
65
Inflammatory, can induce fever, pyrogenic. a. TNF-a b. TGF-B c. IL-6: d. IL-1B
IL-1B
66
Involved in Inflammation, initiation of acute-phase response, and death of the tumor cells. a. TNF-a b. TGF-B c. IL-6: d. IL-1B
TNF-a
67
involved in the activation of T CELLS AND B CELLS. Involved in the CRP. a. TNF-a b. TGF-B c. IL-6 d. IL-1B
IL-6
68
Anti-inflammatory. This inhibits T cells and B cells proliferation. It would also inhibit macrophages a. TNF-a b. TGF-B c. IL-6 d. IL-1B
TGF-B
69
Promotes the proliferation of your T and B Cells a. IL-1 b. IL-2 c. IL-4 d. IL-10
IL-2
70
Anti-inflammatory since it can inhibit interferon-gamma a. IL-1 b. IL-2 c. IL-4 d. IL-10
IL-10
71
Involves the promotion of TH2 response and class switching to IgE. a. IL-1 b. IL-2 c. IL-4 d. IL-10
IL-4
72
Promotes Recruitment of Immune cells such as neutrophils towards the injured area. a. Opsonization b. Chemotaxins c. Phagocytosis d. Lysis
Chemotaxins
73
Complement For Immune adherence a. C2b and C3b b. C3b only c. C2b only
C3b only
74
Complement For Kinin activator a. C2b and C3b b. C3b only c. C2b only
C2b only
75
Complement For Anaphylatoxins a. C3b, C4b, C5b b. C4b, C1 c. C5b-C9 d. C3a, C4a, C5a
C3a, C4a, C5a
76
Opsonins a. C3b, C4b, C5b b. C4b, C1 c. C5b-C9 d. C3a, C4a, C5a
C3b, C4b, C5b
77
virus neutralization a. C3b, C4b, C5b b. C4b, C1 c. C5b-C9 d. C3a, C4a, C5a
C4b, C1
78
cell lysis a. C3b, C4b, C5b b. C4b, C1 c. C5b-C9 d. C3a, C4a, C5a
C5b-C9
79
RECOGNITION UNITS for Classical complement pathway a.C3, Factor B, Factor D b. C1q, C1r, C1s c. MBP, MASP-1, MASP-2
C1q, C1r, C1s
80
TRUE OR FALSE Presence of mannose groups present on the microbial cell activate lectin pathway
TRUE
81
C5 CONVERTASE FOR CLASSICAL PATHWAY a. C4B2a3b b. C4b2a3b c. C4A2Bb3a d. C4b2B3a
C4b2a3b
82
C5 CONVERTASE alternative p pathway a. C3bBb3b b. C4b2a3b
C3bBb3b
83
MOLECULAR WEIGHT - 84 CONCENTRATION (mg/mL) - 500 Prevents attachment of C5b67 complex to cell membranes a. C4BP b. Factor H c. C1-inhibitor d. S protein
S protein
84
Cofactor with I to inactivate C3b; prevents binding of B to C3b a. C4BP b. Factor H c. C1-inhibitor d. S protein
Factor H
85
Cleaves C3b and C4b a. C4BP b. Factor H c. Factor I d. S protein
Factor I
86
Graves’ disease and DM type 1 a. HLA- DR4 b. HLA- DR3 c. HLA- B8 d. HLA- B27
HLA- B8
87
Rheumatoid Arthritis, DM type 1, pemphigus vulgaris a. HLA- DR4 b. HLA- DR3 c. HLA- B8 d. HLA- B27
HLA- DR4
88
Ankylosing Spondylitis; Reiter’ syndrome a. HLA- DR4 b. HLA- DR3 c. HLA- B8 d. HLA- B27
HLA- B27
89
SLE, Multiple Sclerosis, Myasthenia Gravis, Sjorgen syndrome, DM type 1 a. HLA- DR4 b. HLA- DR3 c. HLA- B8 d. HLA- B27
HLA- DR3
90
Chronic Lymphatic Leukemia; Kaposi’s sarcoma a. HLA- DR5 b. HLA- DR3 c. HLA- B8 d. HLA- B27
HLA- DR5
91
SLE, Multiple Sclerosis, Hashimoto Disease, Myasthenia Gravis a. HLA- DR1 b. HLA- DR3 c. HLA- DR2 d. HLA- DR4
HLA- DR2
92
Domains on the constant regions FOR attachment to phagocyte a. CH3 b. CH2 c. CH1 d. Fab
CH3
93
Domains on the constant regions for the binding site of C1q a. CH3 b. CH2 c. CH1 d. Fab
CH2
94
true about Pepsin 1. cut Ig into 3 fragments 2. Cuts above the hinge region 3. 2 Fab and 1 Fc a. All of the above b. 1,2 c. 2,3 d. None of the above
None of the above
95
Molecular weight IgM a. 160,000 b. 900,000 c. 180,000 d.150,000
900,000
96
Molecular weight IgA a. 160,000 b. 900,000 c. 180,000 d.150,000
160,000
97
Molecular weight IgE a. 160,000 b. 900,000 c. 190,000 d.150,000
190,000
98
Molecular weight IgG a. 160,000 b. 900,000 c. 190,000 d.150,000
150,000
99
Molecular weight IgD a. 180,000 b. 900,000 c. 190,000 d.150,000
180,000
100
Sedimentation coefficient for IgG, IgA, IgD a. 6S b. 7S c. 8S d. 9S
7S
101
has longest half life a. IgA b. IgM c. IgG d. IgE
IgG
102
Number of constant domains (H chain) for IgG, IgA, IgD a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
3
103
can cross placenta a. IgA b. IgM c. IgG d. IgE
IgG
104
can complement fixation a. IgA and IgG b. IgM and IgE c. IgG and IgM d. IgE and IgD
IgG and IgM
105
least Percent of total immunoglobulin a. IgA b. IgD c. IgG d. IgE
IgD
106
The most abundant antibody in the serum a. IgA b. IgD c. IgG d. IgE
IgG
107
IgG subclass that cannot cross placenta a. IgG1 b. IgG2 c. IgG3 d. IgG4
IgG2
108
IgG subclass that cannot fix complement a. IgG1 b. IgG2 c. IgG3 d. IgG4
IgG4
109
Immunoregulator Membrane Ig a. IgA b. IgD c. IgG d. IgE
IgD
110
Heat-labile ; involved in atopic/allergic reactions a. IgA b. IgD c. IgG d. IgE
IgE
111
Provides immunity to newborn. Opsonization of toxins and viruses a. IgA b. IgD c. IgG d. IgE
IgG
112
Most primitive Monomer – surface Ig Pentamer Agglutination Opsonization and Neutralization a. IgM b. IgD c. IgG d. IgE
IgM
113
Immuno-competent cells have surface receptors that are capable of reacting with antigens, which have complementary side chains to which the specific antigen fit complementarily. A. Side chain theory B. Clonal Selection Theory
Side chain theory
114
Lymphocytes are preprogrammed to produce one type of Ig, and that a particular cell capable of responding to it, causing them to proliferate. A. Side chain theory B. Clonal Selection Theory
Clonal Selection Theory
115
TRUE OR FALSE There is no class switching in T-cell receptor.
TRUE
116
true or false T-cell receptor has a ligand called Native epitope
false
117
Signaling peptide for T-cell receptor. a. CD3 b. CD4 c. CD5 d. CD8
CD3
118
T-cell receptor is monovalent. B-cell receptor is bivalent a. both statements are true b. both statements are false c. only 2nd statement is true d. only 1st statement is true
both statements are true
119
IgG subclass Most effective C’ activation

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