Immunology Flashcards

(99 cards)

1
Q

Name the three parts of innate immune system

A
  1. Physical/physiological barriers
  2. Antimicrobial molecules
  3. Sentinel/phagocytic cells
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2
Q

In the innate immune system, name the four physical/physiological barriers

A
  • Epithelium
  • Mucus/tears/sebum
  • Flushing/peristalsis
  • Commensal flora
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3
Q

Name the complement protein that is a key opsonin

A

C3b

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4
Q

Name the three sentinel cells

A
  1. Mast cells
  2. Macrophages
  3. Dendritic cells
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5
Q

How are antimicrobial molecules, like defensins, similar to arrows?

A

They create pores

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6
Q

Location of hematopoiesis, and the three main types of cells made

A

Mainly in the bone marrow
-Erythroid
-Myeloid
-Lymphoid

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7
Q

Monocytes differentiate into …

A

Macrophages, Myeloid dendritic cells

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8
Q

Where are B cells developed and where do they mature

A

Develop in : Bone Marrow
Mature in : Bone marrow (mammals), Bursa of Fabricius (birds)

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8
Q

Where are T cells developed and where do they mature

A

Develop in : Bone Marrow
Mature in : Thymus

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9
Q

What does CMP (common myeloid progenitor) differentiate into?

A

Megakaryocyte, erythrocyte, mast cell, myeloblast

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10
Q

What does a myeloblast differentiate into?

A

Basophil, Neutrophil, Eosinophil, Monocyte

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11
Q

What does a monocyte differentiate into and where is it found.

A

Macrophage and myeloid dendritic cell. Monocytes are found in circulation

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12
Q

What does CLP (common lymphoid progenitor) differentiate into?

A

NK cell(large granular lymphocyte), small lymphocyte, lymphoid dendritic cell

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13
Q

Which is the only hematopoietic cell type that can REGENERATE?
a) monocyte
b) Hematopoietic stem cell
c) common myeloid precursor
d) common lymphoid precursor

A

B) Hematopoietic stem cell

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14
Q

Which of the following is NOT mature when it leaves the bone marrow?
a) T cell
b) Mast cell
c) monocyte
d) Neutrophil

A

a) T cell
Matures in Thymus!

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15
Q

Which of the following granulocytes has a multilobulated nucleus and pale-staining granules?
a) basophil
b) mast cell
c) eosinophil
d) Neutrophil

A

d) Neutrophil

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16
Q

Neutrophils are the FIRST RESPONDERS that aren’t in the tissue. What three primary ways do they kill infecting microbes?

A

1) Phagocytosis
2) Degranulation
3) Neutrophil Extracellular traps (NETs)

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17
Q

Why do birds not form liquid-y abscesses?

A

Birds’ heterophils (similar to neutrophil) lack significant myeloperoxidase activity…bacteria not broken down via respiratory burst

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18
Q

NETosis is an (active/passive) process and involves releasing DNA coated with ________ and granule components

A

ACTIVE ; histones

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19
Q

What is the primary function of Eosinophils? What other leukocyte shares this function?

A

To kill multicellular parasites (like helminths) by releasing granules; Basophils also kill these parasites

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20
Q

What three leukocytes are related to allergic reactions?

A

Mast cells, Basophils :(late phase allergic rxns), Eosinophils

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21
Q

Name the three functions of a Macrophage

A

1) Sentinel cells (produce cytokines when activated)
2) Phagocytosis
3) Antigen presentation

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22
Q

Where do mast cells reside and what are their four functions?

A

In connective tissues near blood vessels and nerves.

1) vasodilation
2) vascular permeability
3) recruit other leukocytes
4) allergic responses

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23
Q

What cell is described here :
-lymphoid lineage
-1st line of defense against viruses, some tumors
-secrete cytotoxic granules that drive apoptosis
-check for MHC class 1 receptor

A

Natural Killer cell

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24
Which innate immune cell is the MOST effective at antigen presentation? a) basophil b) mast cell c) macrophage d) dendritic cell
d) dendritic cell
25
T/F : T and B lymphocytes are part of the innate immune system
FALSE part of the adaptive immune system
26
Do the presence of macrophages/lymphocytes/plasma cells indicate an acute or chronic infection?
chronic
27
What potential cause are neutrophils a clue to?
extracellular bacteria
28
Lymphocytes/plasma cells in a sample would indicate what problem?
viral, immune mediated
29
biochemical cascades result in the efficient process of _________
amplification
30
C4b would refer to : a) an inactive complement b) a cleavage product c) a complex of complement components
b) a cleavage product
31
The complement system facilitates phagocytosis, direct killing of pathogen, and the _____________ that helps fight the pathogen.
inflammatory response
32
List the 3 mechanisms (pathways) of complement activation, and the key protein they all result in.
1. Classical 2. Alternative 3. Lectin C3 CONVERTASE
33
The classical pathway is ________ - initiated.
antibody
34
C3 convertase spontaneously breaks down into C3b and C3a. What are the functions of these cleavage products?
C3b can be an opsonin that binds to a pathogen as a marker for phagocytosis and is part of the process for the MAC complex. C3a chemotaxis to recruits leukocytes.
35
Why can C3b not attach to healthy cells?
due to protective H and I factors
36
Lectin binds to ______ and results in the formation of _______
Mannose; C3 convertase
37
Which pathway requires the ADAPTIVE immune system to initiate? a) lectin b) classical c) alternative
b) classical
38
Which pathway uses "Factors" and letters instead of numbers? a) lectin b) classical c) alternative
c) alternative
39
List the three consequences of complement activation
1) recruitment of inflammatory cells (C3a, C5a) 2) opsonization & phagocytosis (C3b) 3) direct killing via MAC (C5-C9)
40
In a consequence of the complement system, recruitment (via Chemotaxis) of leukocytes is performed by ____ and _____. Which is a potent anaphylatoxin?
C3a and C5a ; C3a
41
Describe the formation of the MAC!
C3b attaches to C5, which aggregates with C6, C7, and C8. C5-8 together trigger recruitment of C9, forming the ring of the MAC which creates pores to lyse the membrane of the pathogen.
42
Which complement component is an Anaphylatoxin? a) C2a b) C3a c) C3b d) C5b
b) C3q
43
Which complement component forms the pore of the MAC? a) C2 b) C3 c) C5 d) C9
d) C9
44
Complement system control mechanism that : inhibits activated C1 components in the CLASSICAL pathway
C-1 inactivator
45
Complement system control mechanism that : accelerates degredation of complement factors on red blood cells, leukocytes, platelets, and endothelial cells to protect them from complement attack
CD55 (decay accelerating factor)
46
Complement system control mechanism that : inhibits assembly of the membrane attack complex (MAC)
CD59 (protectin)
47
Complement system control mechanism that : ensure removal of antigen-antibody-complement complexes
Complement receptors (primarily receptors for C3 and its fragments)
48
In Brittany Spaniels with a C3 deficiency, dogs <2 years of age develop serious _________ infections. dogs 4-7 years of age develop renal disease characterized by __________ due to deposition of _______-_______ complexes in the related blood vessels.
Bacterial ; Glomerulonephritis ; antigen-antibody
49
The principal function of Factor __ is to regulate the _______ pathway of the complement system.
H; alternative
50
Factor H deficiency in Yorkshire pigs results in abundant deposits of ____ in the kidney, causing renal failure.
C3
51
PAMPs are characteristics of microbes that are _____ and essential to them, common to many microbes, and absent from _____ tissues. List an example from 1) Gram-positive bacteria 2) Gram-negative bacteria 3) viruses
abundant; host 1) GP - peptidoglycan 2) GN - lipopolysaccharide 3) Virus - dsRNA
51
List the 3 signaling types of pattern-recognition receptors (PRRs)
1) Toll-like receptors (TLRs) 2) NOD-like receptors (NLRs) 3) RIG-1-like receptors (RLRs)
52
PRR signaling type that recognizes cytoplasmic and viral dsRNA PAMPs
RIG-1-like receptors (RLRs)
53
PRR signaling type that recognizes cytoplasmic, peptidoglycan, and muramyl dipeptide PAMPs
NOD-like receptors (NLRs)
54
PRR signaling type that recognizes membranous, and wide variety of ligand PAMPs
Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
55
PRRs binding their PAMPs signal a cascade and activate what key transcription factor (causing the activation of transcription of genes)?
NF-kB
56
NEED TLR QUESTION
57
TLR5 can be found along ________ surfaces of enterocytes and recognizes _______. A related genetic defect in barrier function is _____-______.
basolateral; flagellin; leaky-gut
58
NOD1 and NOD2 are found in the _______ and recognize ______. They can also signal through transcription factor _____.
cytosol ; peptidoglycan; NF-kB
59
RLRs are found in the cytosol, recognize ____ and ____, can also lead to activate NF-kB, and lead to the expression of type 1 ____
dsRNA and ssRNA ; interferons (an antiviral response)
60
Viruses in ENDOSOMES are recognized by a) NLRs b) RLRs c) TLRs
c) TLRs
61
What do the signaling PRRs all have in common? a) location b) cell type c) activation of NF-kB d) What they recognize
c) activation of NF-kB
62
List 3 phagocytic receptors and what they recognize.
1) complement receptor (things like C3b) b) FcyR (Ig antibody) c) Mannose receptor (sugar residues on microbes)
63
What are the four steps of Phagocytosis?
1) Recognition and attachment 2) Engulfment 3) Phagosome-lysosome fusion 4) Destruction
64
As the phagosome matures, the pH goes from neutral to _______, fuses with lysosomes to make a _________, and an _______ burst takes place.
acidic ; phagolysosome ; oxidative
65
Examples of soluble PRRs include ______-binding lectin and ___-reactive protein
mannose ; C
66
Which of the following recognizes IgG bound to microbes? a) FcyR b) Toll-like receptor c) Mannose receptor d) Complement receptor
a) FcyR
67
Which of the following phagosomal enzymes is NOT in macrophages? a) iNOS b) Hydrolase c) NADPH oxidase d) Myeloperoxidase
d) myeloperoxidase
67
Mitochondrial DNA, HMGB-1, Adenosine, ATP, Uric acid, heat-shock proteins are examples of ________ DAMPs
Intracellular
68
List 4 extracellular DAMPs
1) Heparan sulfate 2) Hyaluronic acid 3) Fibronectin 4) Peptides from collagen, elastin
69
The _________ needs 2 hits to activate IL-1B (triggered by ______ and _____)
Inflammasome ; PAMP ; DAMP
70
______ induce production of more leukocytes and start the inflammatory cascade
Cytokines
71
What is the purpose of Chemokines
Leukocyte recruitment (breadcrumbs)
72
_________ molecules allow leukocytes to stop and migrate from blood to tissues
Adhesion
73
All are major functions/results of phagocytic receptor engagement EXCEPT : a) adherence b) engulfment c) NF-kB activation d) Phagosome formation
c) NF-kB the result of signaling receptors
74
PAMPs and DAMPs must work TOGETHER to coordinate which of the following responses? a) engulfment b) inflammasome production c) phagosomal-lysosomal fusion d) IL-1B production and activation
d) IL-1B production and activation (related to inflammasome)
75
_______ cells recognize and respond to PAMPs and DAMPs through engagement of _____s.
Sentinel ; PRRs
76
______s are membranous. ____s and RLRs are in the cytosol.
TLR ; NLR
77
Phagocytic PRRs trigger engulfment of microbes --> Phagolysosomal degradation involving _______, _____ __, and ____ _______
enzymes ; low pH ; free radicals
78
The _______ receptor on NK cells recognize normal MHC class I
inhibitory
79
Lytic granules released by NK cells include ____ into the membrane and ______ into the pore
Perforin ; Granzyme
80
List the 3 effector mechanisms of the innate immune system
1) phagocytosis and degredation 2) extracellular granule release 3) NK cell targeted cytotoxicity
81
Phagosomal maturation is the process of ________ and fusion with _________, as well as _________ burst
acidification ; lysosomes ; respiratory
82
Swelling serves to ______ pathogens/toxins providing wound healing factors factors/mediators
Dilute
83
While initiating inflammation, Macrophages release what 3 thing
1) pro-inflammatory cytokines 2) Chemokines (recruits neutrophils) 3) Eicosanoidss
84
Acute inflammation has 3 major steps 1) _______ --> leading to redness and heat 2) ____________ --> leading to swelling and pain 3) _______ --> leading to pain and loss of function
Dilation Increased vascular permeability Migration
85
Histamine and Nitric oxide contribute to...
Vasodilation
86
Which of the following vasoactive mediators is IMMEDIATELY released? a) IL-1 b) C5a c) Histamine d) leukotriene e) prostaglandin
c) Histamine because it is PREMADE in mast cells
87
Which aspect of inflammation is directly responsible for redness? a) vasodilation b) leukocyte activation c) vascular permeability d) leukocyte extravasation
a) vasodilation
88
List the 4 steps in leukocyte migration
1) margination (triggered by activated mast cell) 2) rolling (+ activation) 3) adhesion 4) extravasation
89
________ lipids (eicosanoids) are derived from the cell membrane and are important drug targets in vet med
Vasoactive
90
INTEGRINS play a major role in which step of leukocyte migration? a) rolling b) adhesion c) margination d) extravasation
b) adhesion
91
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency is caused by lack of functional expression of _________
B2 integrins (Leukocytes can't extravasate)
92
List 2 laboratory findings help us ID systemic inflammation
1) Complete blood count (leukocytosis, neutrophilia, left shift) 2) Acute Phase Proteins (positive : increase during inflammation. an example of a negative APP is Albumin)
93
Serum amyloid A is an important APP that binds a _____-like receptor and carries ________ to the liver
toll ; cholesterol
94
In a Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome, oxidants are released in a _______ ____, and there is an uncontrollable drop in _______ ______.
cytokine storm ; blood pressure
95
Pro-inflammatory cytokines acting on which part of the body results in fever? a) liver b) Cerebrum c) bone marrow d) hypothalamus
d) hypothalamus
96
List the 3 major acute pro-inflammatory cytokines and what 3 organs their release acts on to result in systemic signs of inflammation
1) IL-1 2) IL-6 3) TNF-a hypothalamus, liver, & bone marrow