Immunology Flashcards

(56 cards)

1
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is Goodpasture’s syndrome?

A

Type 2 - anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies direct against alpha3 chain of collagen IV

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2
Q

What immunoglobulins are involved in type 2 hypersenstivity reactions?

A

either IgM (natural antibodies) or IgG (preformed antibodies)

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3
Q

What type of hypersensitvity reaction is serum sickness and SLE?

A

type 3 hypersensitvity - antibody antigen complex mediated. Immune complexes are then deposited

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4
Q

What autoantibodies are seen in most cases of SLE?

A

ANA Autoantibodies

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5
Q

Mechanism of action of rituximab?

A

a monoclonal antibody targeted against CD20 on B cells

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6
Q

MOA of belimumab?

A

Binds to B-cell activating factor (BAFF)/ B-lymphocyte stimulator (BLys) leading to B cell apoptosis so can no longer contribute to autoimmune damage in Lupus

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7
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is type 4?

A

T cell mediated (delayed), eg contact dermatitis, chronic graft rejection, granuloma

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8
Q

What is type V hypersensitivity?

A

stimulatory autoantivodies, ie antibodies bind to receptors on non-immune cells like Grave’s autoantibody results in overproduction of thyroid hormones

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9
Q

Omalizumab MOA?

A

IgG1 monoclonal antibody which binds to free IgE for chronic urticaria

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10
Q

What is the most common cell type in circulation and first to move into tissue in an infection?

A

neutrophil

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11
Q

What cell circulates in blood surveying for missing self and becomes activated if cell is non-self?

A

natural killer cells

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12
Q

What do Th1 cells do?

A

lead to an increased cell-mediated response typically against intracellular bacteria (triggered by IL-12). Th1 overactivation against autoantigens will cause type IV hypersensivity reactions.

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13
Q

What do Th2 cells do?

A

Lead to a humoral immune response against extracellular parasites like helminths. (Th2 overactivation will cause type 1 hypersensitvity)

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14
Q

What do Th17 cells do?

A

They produce the cytokine IL-17 which helps to recruit neutrophils to site of infection (useful against bacteria and fungi)

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15
Q

What T cells have immunosuppressive effects?

A

TReg cells

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16
Q

What isn’t generated in chronic granulomatous disease?

A

mutation in part of NADPH oxidase means no reactive oxygen species are generated

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17
Q

Inheritance of chronic granulotomous disease?

A

mostly X-linked ( can be autosomal recessive too)

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18
Q

What type of immunodeficiencies are leukocyte adhesion deficiency and chronic granulomatous disease?

A

primary immunodeficiecies of innate immune system

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19
Q

What is mutated in leukocyte adhesion deficiency?

A

Beta2 integrin which means leukocytes can’t move into tissue

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20
Q

What is X-linked agammaglobulinemia?

A

a primary immunodeficiency - mutation in Bruton’s tyrosine kinase stops B cell maturation

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21
Q

What is hyper IgM syndrome?

A

primary IDEF where CD40 mutations means no class switching, so you have lots of IgM but low or absent IgA, IgE and IgG

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21
Q

What is the most common primary IDEF but which most individuals are asymptomatic?

A

selective IgA deficiency

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22
Q

What mutation causes Hyper IgE syndrome and what does it present as?

A

STAT3 mutation, will have facical, dental and skeletal abnormalities and eczema related problems

22
Q

Most severe IDEF?

A

SCID - both T cell and B cell arms are missing, medical emergency straight after birth

23
What syndrome do you have an absence of thymus hence some immunodeficiency alongside developmental disability, abnormal factial featurs and congenital heart problems?
DiGeorge syndrome
24
What characterises reticular dysgenesis?
SCID, agranulocytosis and sensorineural deafness
25
What are examples of secondary immunodeficiency causes?
malnutrition, truama, infections ie AIDS, metabolic disease, autoimmune disease
26
What is an isograft?
Transplanted tissues or organs derived from an identical twin
27
What is a xenograft?
transplanted organ dreived from unrelated species eg pig
28
What major histocmpatibility complex is found on all nucleated cells?
MHC I (MHCII is found on antigen presenting cells only)
29
What HLAs are MHCII?
HLA-DR, HLA-DP and HLA-DQ
30
What HLAs are MHCI?
HLA-A, HLA-B and HLA-C
31
What CD4 T cell count represents the change from HIV to AIDs?
When cell count is less than 200/mmcubed
32
What HLA's are often found in long term non progressors of AIDS?
HLA-B27*05 and HLA-B57*01
33
HLA associated with ankylosing spondylitis?
HLA-B27
34
HLA associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
HLA-DRB1
35
What does indirect alloantigen presentation in transplantation refer to?
recipient APCs present donor MHC to recipient T cells (whereas in direct the donor APCs present themselves)
36
How quickly does hyperacute graft rejection take place?
within hours from pre-existng antibodies that recognise antigens in donor organ
37
What is the route of acute graft rejection? (occuring in 2-3 weeks)
Direct pathway, alloreactive T cells then infiltrate graft
38
What is the route of chronic graft rejection? (occuring in months-years)
driven by indirect pathway - alloreactive T cells infiltrate graft
39
Who are most at risk from intra-cellular bacteria?
People with adaptive (T cell deficiency) and innate deficiency (examples being mycobacteiram listeria, salmonella)
40
Treatment for PCP?
high dose co-trimoxacole for antimicrobial and steroids if there's signif hypoxia
41
prophylactic antibiotics for people with asplenia?
penicillin V should be given in higher risk groups eg old and young and those with previous severe infections
42
If someone has neutropenic/ sepsis what antibiotics will they often be started on?
broad spectrum - eg piperacillin-tazobactam plus amikacine
43
What should be screened for prior to starting anti-TNF?
active and latent TB
44
Treatment for cryptococcal meningitis?
amphotericin B + flucytosine, then fluconazole and repeated lumbar puncture
45
What does the autoimmune regulator (AIRE) do?
part of mechanism which eliminates self-reactive T cells that would cause autoimmune disease, mutation results in autoimmune polyglandular disease
46
What are the antibodies in myasthenia gravis?
acetylcholine receptor antibodies
47
What is the alternative pathway in the complement system?
It is when C3b binds directly to the pathogen
48
What autoantibodies in type 1 diabetes?
main = glutamic acid decarboxylase, also insulin (IAA), insulinoma-associated protein antibodies (IA2). Islet cell autoantibodies can be a marker but theyre not pathogenic
49
What is teplizumab?
a humanised anti-CD3 monoclonal antibody that delays onset of T1D in those at risk of the disease
50
treatment for common variable immunodeficiency?
immunoglobulin replacement therapy, treatment of infections regular bloods and imaging
51
What serum level can be useful in diagnosing anaphylaxis after the event?
serum tryptase
52
How often do you repeat adrenaline administration in anaphylactic shock?
every 5 minutes (6months-6 years 150micrograms, 6-12 300micrograms, 12+ 500 micrograms)
53
What is the definition of refractory anaphylaxis?
resp and or/cadriovascular problems persisting despite two doses of IM adrenaline
54
gold standard for diagnosing contact dermatitis?
skin patch test