Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Sam Clin Path > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Factors influencing autoimmune disease?

A

Genes, environment and immune regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which cells have HLA/MHC class 1?

A

All

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A failure of central tolerance involves what?

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Peripheral tolerance involves what?

A

CD4, CD25 etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Women or men affected more in autoimmune?

A

Women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What age is autoimmune more common?

A

Elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Environmental triggers of autoimmune disease?

A

Trauma, Infection, Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T cells produce what to cause inflammation?

A

Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do autoreactive B cells do to the immune system?

A

Direct cytotoxicity, activation of complement system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Organ specific autoimmune disease basis?

A

Recognises autoantigens of one organ, overlap is common, thyroid disease is typical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which disease are typical of systemic autoimmunity?

A

Connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is hashimotos thyroiditis?

A

Destruction of thyroid follicles by autoantibodies = hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Inappropriate stimulation of thyroid gland by anti TSH antibody causes …

A

Grave’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Antibodies acetylcholine cause what?

A

Myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Extremely large thymus could be causing what?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Features of SLE?

A

Butterfly rash, mouth ulcers, arthralgia, alopecia, pleaural effusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do antinuclear antibodies get to the nuclei?

A

Bind to sun damaged cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which antibodies produced to cause vasculitis?

A

ANCA- anti neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3 types of anca vasculitis?

A

microscopic polyangitis
Granulomatosis polyangitis
or eosiniphilic granulamotosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

Chronic mass of inflamed tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What could raynauds and positive ANA possibly indicate?

A

Scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define sensisitivity?

A

How good is a test at identifying people with the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define specificity?

A

How good is a test at identifying people who do not have the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In acute inflammation what happens to Albumin?

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ferritin and fibrinogen change how in acute inflammation?

A

Increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What test is more specific for Ra then rheumatoid factor?

A

ACPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

(C) ANCA is binding to what in the cells?

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

(P) ANCA is binding to what?

A

Nuclei sparing the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is antimitochondiral antibody specific to?

A

Primary biliary sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What can a PRR do?

A

Recognise type of pathogen, gram type, virus etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is IRAK 4 deficiency?

A

Stops a pathway that causes an acute inflammatory response everything else normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Defective phagocyte NADPH oxidase causes what disorder?

A

CGD (chronic granulamatous disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Test for terminal complement pathway?

A

Sheep red cells with serum = lysis in normal people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

X-Linked agammaglobulinaemia cause a deficiency in what?

A

Antibodies and immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

X linked AGamma often presents with ?

A

sinopulmonary symptoms

36
Q

Patient presents with normal IgG no IGA or IGM and reduced T Killer and NK cells - likely diagnosis?

A

Severe combined immunodefficiency syndromes

37
Q

What is a type II sensitivity reaction?

A

Cytotoxic, IgG and IgM ab response

38
Q

Common allergen to cause a type 2 hypersensitive reaction?

A

Penicillin

39
Q

Cell lysis and necrosis is common in what hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type 2 cytotoxic

40
Q

Antibody(s) associated with type I reactions?

A

IgE

41
Q

Histological basis of type I reactions?

A

Baso and eisonophil

42
Q

type I reaction =?

A

Anaphylactic

43
Q

Type III reaction =?

A

Immune complex

44
Q

Type IV reaction = ?

A

Delayed type

45
Q

Type III reaction pathology?

A

IgG/IgM against soluble Antigen immune complex

46
Q

Type III sensitivity disease examples?

A

Vaculitis, nephritis, farmers lung

47
Q

Type IV reactions are mediated by what? How delayed?

A

T-cells (2-3 days)

48
Q

Contact dermatitis can be classed was what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Type IV

49
Q

Immune response to parasites involves which IG?

A

IgE

50
Q

Three causes of atopy?

A

Asthma, Dermatitis(eczema) and Hayfever

51
Q

Primary B-cell deficiency?

A

X linked a gammaglobulin

52
Q

Primary T-cell deficiency?

A

Wiskott-aldrich, adenosine deaminse defficient, SCID, Class II mhc deficient.

53
Q

Passive immunisation pro and con?

A

Immediate protection, but transient and risk of infection

54
Q

B interferon used in what for therapy?

A

MS

55
Q

g-csf/ gm-csf increases what?

A

Neutrophils

56
Q

alpha interferon treatment?

A

Hep C

57
Q

Gamma interferon use?

A

intracellular infection and chronic granulamatous

58
Q

Steroid actions?

A

Neutrophils in circulation are prevented from marginating

Onhibits phospholipase A and reduce inflammation

59
Q

Effect of steroid on immuniglobulin and T-cells

A

Decrease proliferation

60
Q

Steroid side effects?

A

Diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, poor wound healing, osteoporosis, glaucoma, and psychiatric problems.

61
Q

Use of steroids?

A

Quick response for connective tissue diseases, RA and vasculitis

62
Q

Inflammatory diseases treatment?

A

Steroid treatment!

63
Q

Which malignancy responds to steroids?

A

Lymphoma- suppressed T-cells

64
Q

Azathioprine and mycophenolate are what type of a drug?

A

Antimetabolite affect T and B cells

65
Q

Ciclosporin A and Tacrolimus are what drug type/

A

Calcineurin inhibitor

66
Q

M-TOR inhibitor?

A

Sirolimus (rapamycin)

67
Q

IL-2 receptor monoclonals?

A

Basilix and daclizi (umab)

68
Q

Cyclophosphamide used in what?

A

Vasulitis and SLE

69
Q

Anti TNF use in what types of disease?

A

Successful in RA treatment and other inflammatory diseases

70
Q

Anti -tnf side effcts?

A

TB :O

71
Q

Rituximab against what?

A

CD20 on B cell surface

72
Q

omalizumab is active against what?

A

IgE

73
Q

Normally occuring isoaggluttins?

A

A or B

74
Q

Class II MHC/HLA antigens expressed on what cells?

A

B-cells mostly

75
Q

Which chromosome is MHC on?

A

6

76
Q

CD4 associated with ?

A

MHC II

77
Q

CD8 associated with ?

A

MHC I

78
Q

Worry level of neutropenia?

A
79
Q

Neutropenic patients often get infected with?

A

Gram neg, gram pos and pseudomonas

80
Q

Ideal abx for neutropenic pts?

A

Tazocin

81
Q

Bacteria found in cheese giving opportunistic infection?

A

Listeria

82
Q

HIV patients presenting with meningitis like symptoms? Organism?

A

Cryptococcus

83
Q

Cryptosporidium parvum?

A

Water companies say boil water!!

84
Q

Example of worm infection in T cell deficient person?

A

Strongyloides stercoralis

85
Q

What type of bacteria tend to infect people who are hypogammaglobulinaemic?

A

encapsulated! Meningitidis, haemophilus B and strep pneumoniae

86
Q

problems with C5-C8 make you susceptible to what?

A

Meningitidis

87
Q

Who should not get live vaccines?

A

T-cell deficient

Sam Clin Path (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions