Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Boards > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

(85 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

HLA- A, B, C are encoded by MHC Class __. HLA-DR, DP, AD are encoded by MHC Class ___.

A

I, II

remember 1 letter = MHC class I, 2 letters = Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MHC Class I mediates _____ immunity while MHC Class II mediates ______ immunity.

A

MHC Class I = CD8+ = viral immunity
(intracellular pathogens)

MHC Class II = CD4+ = bacterial immunity (extracellular pathogens)

Note: there are a few exceptions. For example when a bacteria is intracellular (e.g. listeria), MHC Class I will be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MHC II only found on ______ cells.

A

Antigen presenting cells

macrophage, dendritic cell, B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the mnemonic for remembering which autoimmune diseases are associated with HLA-B27?

A

“PAIR”

Psoriasis
Ankylosing spondylitis
IBD
Reiter’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HLA-A3 = ________

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HLA-B8 = _______ Disease.

A

Grave’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HLA-DR2 = What 4 diseases?

A

MS, Hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

DM Type I = HLA-_ and HLA- _

A

DR3 and DR4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

RA = HLA-__

A

DR4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What 2 diseases are associated with HLA-DR5?

A

Pernicious anemia

Hashimoto’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HLA-DR7 = _____ syndrome

A

Steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the cytokines which enhance NK cell activity (aka killing of virally-infected and tumor cells)?

A

IL-12
IFN-beta
IFN-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When a dendritic cell picks up a viral pathogen it makes _______ cytokines to stimulate a CD__+ T cell aka _____.

A

Virus -> IFN-alpha, IFN-beta -> CD8+ T cell, aka cytotoxic T lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When a dendritic cell picks up an intracellular bacterial pathogen it makes _______ cytokines to stimulate a CD__+ T cell aka _____.

A

Intracellular bacteria -> IFN-gamma, TNF-alpha, IL-2 -> CD4+ TH1 helper T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When a dendritic cell picks up a parasitic pathogen it makes _______ cytokines to stimulate a CD__+ T cell aka _____.

A

Parasite -> IL-4, IL-5, IL-13 -> CD4+ TH2 cells which go on to activate B cells to kill the worm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When a dendritic cell picks up a extracellular bacteria and fungus pathogen it makes _______ cytokines to stimulate a CD__+ T cell aka _____.

A

Extracellular bacteria or fungus -> IL-6, IL-17 -> CD4+ TH17 cells which go on to activate B cells to make antibodies against and recruit neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does IL-8 do?

A

Neutrophil chemotaxis and phagocytosis upon arrival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The “acute” allergic response is anything that happens within _______.

A

Minutes to hours

Due to pre-formed IgG Abs (Type II hypersensitivity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Chronic Granulomatous Disease? What test is a tip off?

A

X-linked mutation affecting NADPH oxidase which is normally activated within phagocytes to produce ROS AND to activate granule proteases (e.g. elastase, cathepsin G) within phagosomes.

Dysfunction of NADPH oxidase leads to impaired intracellular killing by neutrophils and macrophages leading to recurrent bacterial and fungal infections.

Failure of neutrophils to turn blue upon nitroblue tetrazolium testing indicates CGD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does being catalase positive help bacteria evade neutrophil destruction?

A

Catalase destroys hydrogen peroxide that bacteria generate themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Recurrent viral, fungal, sinopulmonary, and opportunistic infections (e.g. PJP) is indicative of _____.

A

SCID, or some other immunocompromised state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the pathogenesis of sarcoidosis?

A

Sarcoidosis is thought to result from a dysregulated cell-mediated immune response lead by Th1 CD4+ T cells which secrete IL-2 and IFN-gamma. This activates macrophages, promoting non-caseating granuloma formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sarcoidosis is most common in what patient population?

A

African Americans

Especially women 20-39 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 2 most common forms of SCID?

A

Most common = X-linked recessive

Second most = adenosine deaminase deficiency (build up of adenosine is cytotoxic to B and T cells).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How do superantigens (e.g. TSS toxin from s. aureus) work to cause hemodynamic collapse?
Superantigens cause widespread activation of helper T cells and antigen presenting cells (mainly macrophages) causing widespread T cell activation. T cells secrete IL-2 cytokines and macrophages secrete IL-1 and TNF causing capillary leakage, hypotension, vascular collapse, skin findings, shock, and multiorgan failure.
26
What is the most common systemic vasculitis in children? How is it characterized?
Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). Characterized by circulating IgA-antigen immune complexes (Type III hypersensitivity) that deposit in the walls of small vessels and renal mesangium. Presents as palpable purpura, arthralgias, abdominal pain, possible hematuria. Tx is generally supportive as it is self-limited unless an intussusception occurs as a result of the GI problems.
27
Antigens are presented on MHC Class I _____ chains and _____.
Heavy chain | Beta 2 microglobulin
28
How do cytotoxic T cells actually kill?
Perforin and granzymes OR IFN alpha and IFN beta bind to receptors on infected + neighboring cells causing transcription of antiviral enzymes that are capable of halting protein synthesis in the infected cell. Examples = RNase L and protein kinase E. One cool thing is that this process only works in the presence of double-stranded RNA (i.e. cells with viral genome present) so the uninfected neighboring cells are able to continue as usual.
29
Albinism, neurologic defects, nystagmus, immunodeficiency = ?
Chediak-Higashi Autosomal recessive Characterized by a defect in neutrophil phagosome lysosome fusion causing giant lysosomal inclusions visible on LM and peripheral smear.
30
``` Tryptase = _____ cells Myeloperoxidase = _____ ```
``` Tryptase = mast cells Myeloperoxidase = neutrophils ```
31
What is the co-stimulatory signal expressed on Th cells for activation?
CD40L. They bind to CD40 on B cells to activate them.
32
Th1 cells regulate a cell-mediated response via
IL-2 and IFN-gamma
33
Th2 cells regulate a humoral-mediated response via
IL-4, IL-5
34
Th1 and Th2 tend to inhibit each other to make a specific immune response via:
Th1 makes IL-10 Th2 makes IFN gamma
35
The ___ chain has VDJ recombination and the ___ chain has VJ combination
``` heavy = VDJ light = VJ ```
36
The alternative complement pathway is always ___.
on It is mediated by C3 and held in check by "DAF" on host cells
37
Ig_ and Ig_ are the best at activating complement via the classical complement cascade.
IgG and IgM
38
Deficiency of C5-C8 leads to _______ bacteremia.
Neisseria
39
What is a helpful mnemonic for remembering cytokines?
"Hot T-Bone stEAk" ``` IL-1: fever (hot) IL-2: T cells IL-3: Bone marrow IL-4: IgE IL-5: IgA ``` "clean up on aisle 8" -> neutrophils recruited by IL-8 to clear infections
40
Which cytokines are involved in the adaptive immune system?
IL-2 IL-4 IL-5 IL-10 IL-12 2x2=4 5x2=10 12
41
What are the interleukins that induce fever?
IL-1 IL-6 TNF-alpha IL-6 also induces liver production of acute phase reactants
42
Asthma is a Type __ Hypersensitivity
I
43
C__ and C__ act as chemoattractants for neutrophils and phagocytes.
C3a and C5a
44
Serum sickness is a Type ___ hypersensitivity. IgG and IgM complexes deposit and can cause localized ______ consumption, ultimately leading to hypo______.
III Complement Hypocomplementemia (decreased serum C3)
45
In general, Type ___ hypersensitivities tend to be limited to an organ while Type ___ involve vessels and are more systemic. Name examples.
``` II = limited III = systemic ``` ``` Type II: Hemolytic Anemia Pernicious anemia Rheumatic fever Goodpasture's Grave's Bullous pemphigoid Pemphigus vulgaris Myasthenia Gravis ``` ``` Type III: SLE RA PAN PSGN Serum sickness Arthus rxn Hypersensitvity pneumonitis (farmer's lung) ```
46
_____ syndrome aka thymic aplasia
DiGeorge Absence of thymic shadow -> decreased T cells
47
Lymphocytes enter the lymph node via the ___ and the spleen via the _____.
Lymph node = HEV | Spleen = central arteriole
48
In the spleen the PALS around the central arteriole is the ___ cell zone
T cell
49
The marginal zone in the spleen contains _______.
Macrophages (antigen presenting cells)
50
Cyclosporine and tacrolimus are _____ inhibitors which _______.
Calcineurin inhibitors | Block T cell signaling
51
A bronchoalveolar lavage in sarcoidosis will show an elevated CD_:CD_ ratio which sequesters them so they don't actually respond to other T cell mediated antigens.
CD4 > CD8
52
Three distinguishing features of sarcoidosis from other granulomatous diseases is the presence of:
Hypercalcemia (via overactivated 1alpha hydroxylase) Erythema nodosum on the shins Anterior uveitis
53
What are patients working in "nuclear and aircraft/aerospace industries" likely to get?
Berylliosis from inhaling beryllium dust. Causes a sarcoid-like interstitial lung disease.
54
Which interleukin is responsible for initiating isotype switching?
IL-4 Remember TH2 cells activate the humoral immune system via IL-4 and IL-5 secretion
55
Granulomas are formed by what 2 cell types?
CD4+ T cells | ++++macrophages
56
A blood transfusion in an ABO matched donor can still cause an immediate transfusion reaction if the patient has what deficiency:
IgA | and the transfused RBCs will contain IgA
57
Rheumatoid Factor (RF) is an antibody (typically IgM) specific for the ________.
Fc component of IgG RF binds circulating IgG and ACPAs (anti-citrullinated protein antibodies) bind modified self-proteins forming immune complexes that deposit on the synovium and cartilage -> complexes activate complement contributing to chronic inflammation and joint destruction.
58
Positive C-ANCA = ?
``` CREST syndrome (scleroderma) Wegener's Granulomatosis ```
59
Positive Anti-dsDNA = ? | What else would be positive in these patients?
SLE | + antiphospholipid antibody (although this can be a stand alone disease)
60
Reactive arthritis = can't pee, can't see, can't climb a tree. What are the more specific symptoms of above mnemonic?
*Asymmetric* oligoarthritis, can be dactylitis or sacroilitis Conjunctivitis Urethritis Hyperkeratotic vesicles of palms and soles
61
What are common infections preceding reactive arthritis?
GU: Chlamydia trachomatis Enteritis: Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, Campylobacter, C. diff
62
Although T-cell deficiency would lead to superficial candidiasis (and other fungal infections), disseminated aka hematogenous spread of candida is often due to ________penia.
Neutropenia | or otherwise immunocompromised such as receiving chemo
63
What is the cell surface marker for macrophages?
CD14
64
Many tumor cells evade the immune system by expressing ______ which downregulates the immune response by inhibiting cytotoxic T cells.
PD-1 This is why new monoclonal Abs for tumor suppression bind to PD-1 and block its action.
65
B7 + CD28 = T cell _______ | B7 + CTLA4 = T cell ______
Activation | Suppression
66
What histopathology is seen in the acute phase of transplant rejection?
Dense infiltrate of mononuclear cells (mostly T lymphocytes). The rejection occurs due to host T-lymphocyte sensitization against graft (foreign) MHC antigens.
67
What immunodeficiency leads to recurrent neisseria infections?
Failure of Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) to form (i.e. C5b-C9 of complement cascade).
68
What is ABO disease? When can it occur?
Attack of an A or B fetus in an O negative mother. These mothers will have Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies from mimicking antigens in food, bacteria, or other viruses. These are IgGs and can thus cross the placenta and cause hemolysis in the fetus. Note these antibodies are pre-existing and thus can attack the fetus of a *first* pregnancy (unlike Rh disease). When Anti-A and Anti-B are naturally occurring, they are type IgM which cannot cross the placenta.
69
Anti-toposiomerase I (Scl-70) = ?
Scleroderma/CREST
70
Positive C-ANCA = ?
Scleroderma/CREST
71
Anti-U1 RNP = ?
CAN be SLE but most likely mixed connective tissue disorder
72
Anti-Jo-1 = ?
Polymyositis or dermatomyositis
73
Polymyositis = _____misial inflammatory infiltrate while dermatomyositis = ______misial.
``` Poly = endo (within muscle fascicle) Dermato = peri ```
74
C-ANCA aka ______ Located in the _______ + in
C-ANCA = PR3 Located in the cytoplasm (C) + in Wegener's granulomatosis and CREST
75
P-ANCA aka ______ Located in the _______ + in _________
P-ANCA = MPO Located in the perinuclear lysosomes + in everything else except Wegener's
76
What is the triad of presenting symptoms of Wegener's Granulomatosis (aka GPA)?
Nose - sinus and septal problems, saddle nose deformity Lung - Recurrent pneumonitis, interstitial lung disease, alveolar hemorrhage Kidneys - glomerulonephritis
77
Microscopic polyangiitis MOSTLY affects the ______ but can also affect the ______.
Mostly lungs | Some kidney
78
What is the important distinguishing feature of Churg-Strauss?
Eosinophilia | often a history of asthma
79
Cryoglobulinemia is a Type ___ hypersensitivity and is cahracterized by:
Type III Antibody immune complexes. One of the most common is IgM clumps, but it can be any Ig.
80
Cryoglobulinemia is associated with Hepatitis ___ and is most often seen in:
Hep C | Older women
81
Although Goodpasture's disease is primarily characterized by linear staining of the basement membrane by Abs, these Abs also upregulate _______ leading to _______.
Abs induce complement -> complexes form in the kidneys causing crescentic glomerulonephritis
82
CD3 is found on all mature ___ cells.
T
83
X-linked SCID patients are deficient in IL-___ which is needed for preservation of immature B and T cells.
IL-7
84
What is the role of the ATM gene in Ataxia-Telangiectasia?
Surveillance of DNA damage and stalling the cell cycle to give time for repair -> deficiency = deficient B and T cells
85
What lab findings will you see in Ataxia-Telangiectasia?
Especially low serum IgA (why they get so many sinopulmonary infections) Elevated serum alfa-fetoprotein (AFP)

Boards (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions