Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Foundations > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

(88 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Basophils

A 
Granulocyte
Least common
Mature in bone marrow
Circulate in blood stream
Release histamine and heparin (allergic and helminth response)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Eosinophils

A 
Derived from bone marrow, 1-6% of WBCs
Bloodstream and organs (GI &respiratory)
Release H2O2 and oxygen radicals to kill viruses/parasites
Release leukotrienes
Active in allergic reactions, asthma
Stimulate T-lymphocytes
Antigen presenting Cell
weakly phagocytic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Leukotriene

A

lipid signaling molecule that causes airway muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Neutrophils

A 
Most abundant granulocyte
Circulates bloodstream
"first responder" (bacteria and fungi)
Releases cytokines
Strongly phagocytic
Neutrophil extracellular traps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cytokines

A

Cell to cell communication proteins that control development, differentiation and movement to specific part of body
Interleukins, TNF, Chemokines, Interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Interleukin

A

13 cytokines that are regulators of immune response, inflammatory response and hematopoiesis
ILs 1&6-fever
IL 6-“acute phase” response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF)

A

activates neutrophils, mediates septic shock, causes tumor necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chemokines

A

cytokine released by infected/injured cells-imitate immune response (signal neutrophils and macrophages) and warn neighboring cells of threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Interferons

A

Block virus replication
Alpha, beta, gamma
Gamma is strongest-produced by Tcells, activates macro/NK/neutro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mast Cells

A

Release histamine and heparin
Naive in bone marrow, mature in tissues
Degranulate (burst) if injured, encounter antigen/allergen, exposed to complement protein
Causes anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Monocyte

A

“Agranular”
Give rise to dendritic and macrophages
Develop in bone marrow>spleen and tissues
Differentiate in tissues
3 functions: phagocytosis, APC, cytokine production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dendritic cell

A 
Strongest of APCs
Activate T-helper cells
Capture antigen
migrate to lymph node and present to T and B cells
Langerhans cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Macrophage

A 
Large phagocyte
release TNF and ILs
Act as APCs to helper T cells
Under skin, lungs, GI, respiratory
3 stages: resting-cleaners, Primed-active engulfing/APC, Hyperactivated-rapidly destroying pathogens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Kupffer Cell

A

Specialized macrophage within liver
destroy bacteria and old RBC
Chronic activation leads to overproduction of inflammatory cytokines
Causes liver damage/cancer
May become host for TB, Leishmania, Cikinguya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Natural Killer Cells

A

Cytotoxic lymphocytes against viruses and cancer cells
granules of destructive enzymes
Mature in bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils and thymus
enhanced by cytokines
Release performs and protease that lyse cell or trigger apoptosis
Can trigger apoptosis by surface contact
in bloodstream, liver and spleen
“kill or don’t kill”
Can kill during resting phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) Proteins

A

AKA Human leukocyte antigen (HLA)
surface molecules that help determine if protein is “self” or “not self”
Bind antigen to cell surface and display for T-cell recognition
3 subgroups (I, II, III)
Determines organ donation compatibility
malfunction causes autoimmune diseases
T and B cell activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acute Phase Proteins

A

Produced by liver in response to release of IL-1, IL-6 and TNF
C-reactive protein, Mannose-binding lectin, lipopolysaccharide-binding protein
Mark pathogens/injured cells for destruction-activates complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Complement system

A

Enhances ability of phagocytic cells to destroy pathogens
3 possible activation pathways: Classical (requires trigger), Alternative (continuously activated at low level), &Lectin pathway (requires very specific type of trigger)
ACTIVATED BY ANTIGENS
proteins made by liver
C3 most abundant in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Opsonization

A

enhancing phagocytosis of antigens by “marking” them for destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chemotaxis

A

Attracting and activating macrophages and neutrophils; inducing mast cells and basophils to degranulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lysis

A

Rupturing pathogen cell-membranes by forming the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Complement Fixation

A

Antigen combines with an antibody and it’s complement, causing the complement factor to become inactive or “fixed”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Membrane Attack Complex

A

C5b forms complex with C6, C7, C8 and C9 to form MAC

causes lysis of cell by disrupting osmotic balance (bringing water into cell), which causes the cell to swell and burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Innate Immunity

A

Immediate response
Non-specific response (always the same)
Response doesn’t increase with repeat exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Adaptive Immunity
Antibodies recognize only ONE antigen, binds to specific site on invader Directly block binding of invader cells, Inactivate viruses/neutralize toxins, Mark pathogen for destruction by phagocytes Requires days to develop Responce enhanced by repeated exposure (develops memory for quicker/more intense response)
26
Antibody
2 light chains, 2 heavy chains, antigen binding sites, FAB region, Fc region IgM, IgG, IgE
27
IgM
Primary immune response Half life of ~10 days usually in intravascular space increased levels=RECENT exposure to antigen
28
IgG
4 subclasses Found in Blood, lymph, CSF, peritoneal fluid Evenly distributed in intra/extravascular space Only class that crosses placenta-Rh antigen, but gives baby moms immunity Helps NK find their target (opsonization), immobilize bacteria by binding to cilia/flagella, activates complement, neutralizes toxins and some viruses by binding Late in primary response
29
IgA
Primarily in external secretions (including breast milk) | Protects infant, prevents viruses from entering cell, prevent pathogens from attaching to/penetratin epithelial surfaces
30
IgE
Low amounts in serum 2 day half life Binds to mast cells and basophils Triggers degranulation, releasing histamin/leukotrienes/heparin from granulocytes Increased in atopic people & in presence of parasites
31
IgD
Present on surface of naive B cells low amounts in serum unknown function
32
Primary Lymphoid organs
Thymus and Bone Marrow | where immature lymphocytes go to mature/proliferate
33
Secondary Lymphoid Organs
Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils/adenoids, appendix | Where antigens presented to mature B & T lymphocytes to imitate adaptive immune response
34
B-Cell
Elliminates extracellular pathogens Antigen-presenting cell w/ MHC Produces antibodies (immunoglobulins, Ig) to neutralize pathogen Has membrane-bound antibodies, recognizes antigen by B-cell receptor coupled with T-helper, prompts B-cell to divide into effector cells which produce antibodies Produce memory B cells
35
T-Cell
Destroy intracellular pathogens (viruses/intracellular bacteria) Directly kill infected cells
36
CD8 cells
Killer t-cells/cytotoxic | specialize in identifying and killing cells infected with virus
37
CD4
Helper t-cells doesn't directly kill pathogen, sounds alarm with cytokines Assists in activation of CD8 Signal B cells to start secreting antibodies Activated cell differentiates into effector and memory cells
38
Hypersensitivity Reactions
exaggerated, inappropriate immunologic reaction thats harmful to host
39
What are the 4 types of Hypersensitive reactions?
Type I: allergy/anaphylaxis Type II: Cytotoxic, antibody dependent Type III: Immune complex Type VI: Delayed, cell mediated
40
Type I
Anaphylactic First exposure: IgE binds to mast cells Repeated: antigen binds to IgE bound mast cell, degranulates releasing histamine/heparin 5-30 minutes Antigens-food, pollen, drugs Vasodilation, broncho-constriction, edema, itching
41
Type II
``` Cytotoxic Antigens on cells or in extracellular matrix leads to complement-mediated lysis IgG hours-days hemolytic anemia ```
42
Type III
Immune complex IgG antigen-antibody complex forms and deposits in tissue inducing inflammatory response complement activated, lysosomes released, tissue damage 2-3 weeks lupus, rheumatoid arthritis
43
Type VI
Delayed cell-mediated T-lymphocytes, lymphokines 2-3days macrophage ingests antigen, process and presents with MHC, helper T cell activated and produces gamma interferon activating macrophages contact dermatitis, poison oak/ivy, TB test reaction, erythema multiforme (target lesions)
44
Hereditory Angioedema
deficiency of C1 protease inhibitor (leads to excess C3a, C4a, C5a) autosomal dominant larygeal edema, capillary permeability
45
Epitope
area on an antigen that triggers a response
46
Autoimmune Disease
A trigger interferes with normal mechanisms protecting auto-antigens against an immunologic response causing tissue injury Criteria: autoantibodies, self-reactive T-lymphocytes, imbalance between T and B cell factors Types of triggers: exogenous, endogenous, molecular mimicry
47
Graves' Disease
Environmental and genetic factors: stress, smoking, postpartum, increased iodine intake Autoantibodies: thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI)
48
Rheumatic Fever
``` Molecular mimicry (reaction to infection with Streppyogenes) Rheumatic heart disease (valve damage) ```
49
Myasthenia Gravis
Autoantibody blocking/inactivation of alpha chain of Ash receipts Thymus abnormalities in 70% Anti-AChR antibodies (damage post synaptic membrane, blocks AChR active binding site, increase receptor turnover)
50
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Type III Genetic susceptibility and environmental factors immune complex formation targets double-stranded DNA Antibodies: Anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith
51
Type I Diabetes
Genetic susceptibility (MHC class II) Insulin and Islet cell Autoantibodies t-cell cytokine production and cellular toxicity
52
Rheumatoid Arthrititis
Type III Genetic & environmental factors (tobacco smoke) Autoantibodies: Rheumatoid factor, anti-CCP
53
Multiple Sclerosis
Genetic pro-inflammatory autoimmune respinse causes myelin destruction Both T and B cells
54
Active Immunity
Artificial antigens administered to elicit controlled immune response Mediators: antibody and T cells long duration, slow onset *most typical vaccines
55
Passive Immunity
Antibody transferred from immune individual to non immune individual (immunoglobulins or transferred through placenta) Immediate, but short duration
56
Live Attenuated Vaccines
``` Active Immunity Weakened form of virus Antigen stimulates immune response Must be refrigerated Not for immunocompromised/pregnant MMR, Varicalla, Flu ```
57
Inactivated Vaccine
``` Active Immunity Pathogens killed to inactivate so we can isolate antigenic material freeze-dried weaker immune response, multiple doses Polio, Hep A, Japanese encephalitis ```
58
Subunit
Active Immunity | Use component of pathogen as vaccine to mimic exposure
59
Toxoid
inactivated/killed toxins used to elicit immune response resulting in antibodies that can neutralize toxins (diphtheria)
60
Surface protein Subunit
uses purified protein from pathogen
61
Polysaccharide Subunit Vaccine
uses polysaccharide antigens (meningococcal, pneumococcal)
62
Recombinant Subunit Vaccine
antigens made w/ recombinant DNA tech
63
Conjugate Subunit Vaccine
Polysaccharide from bacterial capsule bound to carrier protein induces long-term protection Hib, pneumococcal, meningococcal
64
Types of Leukocytes
Lymphocytes, granulocytes, monocytes and macrophages
65
Antigen
anything that causes an immune response
66
Hematopoiesis
Formation and development of cells that make up blood Fetus: liver/spleen/thymus Birth^: bone marrow and lymph tissue
67
Primary Immune Response
IgM formed early, first exposure to antigen, typically acute infection IgG formed late
68
Secondary Immune Response
IgG high, old infection
69
Adhesion Molecules
Membrane proteins that connect cells to other cells or extracellular matrix Major role in recruitment of neutrophils to inflammation Chronic inflammation>chronic cytokines release and leukocyte infiltration>release of lysozyme/free radicals>tissue damage
70
Function of Plasma Cells
AKA effector cells | produce antibodies
71
Most abundant isotope of antibody in serum?
IgD
72
Monoclonal Antibodies
Antibodies produced the lab, bind to only one site on antigen
73
Polyclonal Antibodies
Prepared from immunized animals, can bind to multiple sites on an antigen
74
T-Cell and B-Cell Location
Immature: Thymus (T only) and bone marrow Mature: Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils/adenoids, appendix
75
Granulocytes
Basophils, Eosinophils, Neutrophils, Mast cells
76
Type I interferons
Includes alpha and beta, function is to induce viral resistance in cells; can be produced by any cell in body
77
Type II Interferons
Secreted only by natural killer cells and t lymphocytes; signals immune system to respond to infectious agents or cancerous growth
78
What does blood type testing look for?
agglutination (antibody binding to antigen causing clumping)
79
Type A Blood
A antigens, anti-B antibodies
80
Type B Blood
B antigens, anti-A antibodies
81
Type AB Blood
A and B antigens, no antibodies AB+ is universal recipient AB- least common (1%)
82
Type O blood
no antigens, Anti-A and anti-B antibodies O- is universal donor O+ most common (38%)
83
RH Blood
if present blood is + if absent blood is - | Rh- antibodies are not always present button develop upon exposure (Rh- mom and Rh+ fetus-hemolytic disease in newborn)
84
Indirect Coombs Test
Mom's blood drawn mixed with Rh+ RBCs, combo's serum added-causes agglutination if antibodies present (Rh-) Test initially and at 28-30 weeks and 36 weeks mother given RhoGAM immediately after delivery
85
Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
blood test to detect specific IgE antibody to allergen in serum
86
Positive Antigen test
pathogen is currently in body | detectable before antibodies on first infection
87
Positive antibody test
patient has been exposed to pathogen, may or may not be currently infected
88
Titer
measures the concentration of an antibody, determined by finding highest dilution at which it still causes agglutination-higher titer=more antibody present RPR most commonly used

Foundations (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions