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x F2: IPCS > Immunology Exam 2 Review > Flashcards

Immunology Exam 2 Review Flashcards

(92 cards)

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1
Q

_______________ the first phase of Humoral Immunity where Naive B-cells are stimulated by antigen-binding to cell surface proteins and the cross-linking of several B-cell receptors

A

Antigen recognition

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2
Q

What are 2 examples of ig involved in antigen recognition

A

IgM
IgD

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3
Q

In antigen recognition receptor associated proteins will transmit the signal to the:

A

cytoplasm

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4
Q

______________ can also be stimulated by antigens to differentiate and initiate Ig production

A

Memory B cells

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5
Q

What receptors on B-cells can co-stimulate and strengthen responses?

A

complement receptors

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6
Q

multivalent antigens that are NOT dependent on T-cell presence to create a maximal humoral immune response

A

T independent antigens

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7
Q

What is the most common TCI-Ags response produced?

A

IgM response

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8
Q

True/False: TCI-Ags have high affinity maturation or memory response.

A

False

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9
Q

T-Cells can provide assistance in activating _________ by increasing antibody production.

A

B cells

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10
Q

What two things can B cells present

A

antigen and costimulators

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11
Q

T-cells express CD40L and secrete _______

A

cytokines

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12
Q

ONLY ________ (T-cells/B-cells) recognize the same antigenic complex T-cells and B-cells will bind _________ (different/same) epitopes on the
_______ (different/same) antigen.

A

T cells
different
same

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13
Q

a molecule that is recognized by an antibody, but does NOT induce a T-cell response (antibody production) when alone

A

Hapten
( haptens cannot cross-link surface Ig on B-cells; haptens require a carrier protein in order for antibody production to occur)

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14
Q

When haptens are attached to a carrier-protein, a ______ will recognize the“foreign” peptides that are presented to the B-cell to the T-cell

A

T cells

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15
Q

The normal B-cell is isotype is IgM and the principal effector function of IgM is _________________

A

complement activation

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16
Q

True/False: affinity maturation is non-specific and occurs with both B-cells and T-
cells

A

False (B cell only)

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17
Q

The VDJ site is usually ______ (variable/fixed) even though random point mutations can occur in dividing B-cells

A

fixed

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18
Q

describes when B-cells die off because there is less antigen stimulation occurring

A

Humoral response decline

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19
Q

The humoral response decline is regulated by high-levels of which ig

A

IgG

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20
Q

Which immunoglobulin replaces IgM and IgD on the B-cell surface?

A

IgG

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21
Q

bind to free microbes and interfere with host-cell binding to prevent infection

A

Neutralizing

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22
Q

Immunoglobulins will stimulate opsonization and phagocytosis: What are the 5 steps

A

Step1-IgG opsonizes a microbe
Step 2 - Opsonized microbe binds to phagocyte Fc
Step3- Phagocyte is activated by Fc receptors
Step 4 -Microbe is phagocytosed
Step 5- The ingested microbe is killed

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23
Q

Mucosal Immunity–aids in protection; a transport molecule moves ____(IgG/IgA) across the mucosal epithelium to prevent and block microbe colonization entry to the body

A

IgA

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24
Q

The IgA antibody is mainly produced by B-cells in ______ tissues and requires high levels of TGFβ

A

mucosal

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25
the ability for microbes to evade antibody recognition by altering their surface antigens/molecules
antigen variation
26
shift or drift: When a pathogen endures a mutation to a gene-component that causes many changes to Ag-epitopes. Rarely occurs, but when it does it can be very significant/detrimental
antigenic shift
27
shift or drift: When a pathogen endures one or several mutations that resultingly change a few Ag-epitopes. Occurs on an annual basis
antigenic drift
28
_______ – a substance, that is typically added to vaccines, that triggers an innate immune response to enhance adaptive immunity
Adjuvant
29
________________ composed of killed viruses and/or protein fragments of the pathogen that cannot replicate in the host
killed/subunit vaccines
30
True/False: The antibody response is CD8+ cell-mediated in killed/subunit vaccines
False
31
Dead(Non infectious) virus alone → stimulates Class ___ to _____ cells, B-cells, & TLR- ligands
class 2 CD4+
32
Dead(Non-infectious) viral protein alone → stimulates Class II to CD4+ cells, B-cells ■ Will only stimulate TLR-ligands if an _______ is present to stimulate innate cells
adjuvant
33
most effective and provide long-term protection BUT can cause the disease in an immunocompromised host
Live/attenuated vaccines
34
Vaccines produce mucosal immunity, CD8+ cell-mediated protection, and antibody production as the virus/pathogen replicates in the host over a short period of time
Live attenuated vaccine
35
Live (Infectious) virus alone → stimulates Class ___ to ____ cells
Class 1 CD8
36
Live (Infectious) virus PLUS _____________________ → stimulates Class II to CD4+ cells, B-cells, and TLR-ligands
dead virus/infected cells
37
occurs when an immune response is too robust and causes tissue damage
hypersensitivity reaction
38
What is Type 1 hypersensitivity also called
anaphylaxis
39
What is Type 2 hypersensitivity also called
cytotoxic
40
What is Type 3 hypersensitivity also called
immune complex
41
What is Type 4 hypersensitivity also called
delayed-type
42
Type 1: IgE bound to Mast Cells to produce what
an allergic reaction, stimulated by TH2 (eosinophils)
43
Type 2: Damage is done where the antibody binds to the tissue antigen. Antibody binds directly to antigens → antigens activate ____ cells
TH1
44
Type 3: Damage is done where the immune complex is deposited (not necessarily where antigen is expressed). Antigen activate ___ cells
Th1
45
Type 4: T-cell-mediated usually the first contact with T-cells produces memory. Second contact with T-cells causes what
damage
46
IgE Production → dependent on _____ CD4+ stimulating B-cells
TH2
47
TH2 Cell activation is promoted by what 3 things
IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
48
IgE Production Inhibition → dependent on ____ CD4+ cell production
TH1
49
TH1 cell activation is promoted by what
IL-12, IL-2, IFN gamma
50
Tissue Damage occurs in Type II and Type III Hypersensitivity: Injury is caused by anti tissue antibody → ____ Cells produce more complement-fixing isotypes which recruit and activate anti-inflammatory cells
TH1
51
immunologically mediated via IgE; typically anaphylaxis results
Allergic
52
resembles an allergic reaction, but is not immunologically mediated (i.e., histamine is released but there is NO cross-linking of IgE)
pseudoallergic
53
Process of Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction: The antigen will bind to IgE on the surface of mast cells which causes cross-linking of IgE on mast cell. An increased influx of _____ into the mast cell
Ca2+
54
_______ procedure that is used when there is no other treatment option and the patient has a Type I HS reaction to the medication that is needed
Desensitization
55
Immunology of desensitization protocol: Two immunoglobulins dependent on IL-4→
IgE and IgG4
56
True/False: IgG4 only elicits tolerance to the allergen
True
57
_____ is key to the production of IgG4 versus IgE
IL-10
58
_______ tolerance self-reactive B-cells and T-cells are deleted in either the bone marrow or thymus
Central
59
_______ tolerance self-reactive cells that escape are usually controlled by regulatory T cells (tregs)
peripheral
60
Self-antigens without innate danger signals or co-stimulators that are unresponsive
anergic antigens
61
Treg Effector functions
inhibit APCs secrete IL-10 and TGF beta Use IL-2 Adenosine
62
a microbial peptide or protein may be recognized by a self-antigen reactive T-cell or B-cell
molecular mimicry
63
antibodies that arise from defects in clearance of dead/dying cells and Ag-Ab complexes
antinuclear antibodies (ANA)
64
A common condition that is triggered by exposure to cold or stress that leads to vasospasm in the extremities, extremities can blue:
raynauds
65
What are some drugs that can induce or worsen Raynaud’s syndrome?
beta blockers bleomycin cisplatin amphetamine, pseudoephedrine
66
What drug could we use to treat Raynaud’s syndrome?
CCB (nifedipine)
67
31. What is the non-pharmacologic therapy used to treat Psoriasis?
UV light
68
When should we use topical therapy VS system therapy to treat Psoriasis?
>10% of body use systemic therapy topical: tazarotene + halobetasol systemic: apremilast
69
a systemic autoimmune disease that can affect any organ system in the body
SLE
70
Common ss/sx of SLE:
fatigue malar rash depression
71
What the first line medication for SLE that everyone should be on?
hydroxychloroquine
72
What baseline labs that we need to account for in hydroxychloroquine?
vision evaluation
73
What are some side effects of this medication in hydroxychloroquine?
N/V/D rash CNS headaches
74
When to add steroids to therapy in SLE?
flares
75
List drugs that can cause SLE:
hydralazine anti-TNF methyldopa
76
Hydroxychloroquine agent and when to use in lupus
Primary Non-Biologic DMARD maintenance
77
NASIDS when to use in lupus
flares
78
Glucocorticoids when to use in lupus
flares
79
Non-Biologic DMARDs
MXT, MMF
80
Biologic DMARDS
Rituximab, Belimumab
81
List conventical DMARDS for RA treatment, which one is first line?
methotrexate*** sulfasalazine lefluonmide hydroxycholoquine
82
What is the dose typically use for methotrexate
7.5-15 mg weekly (use with folic acid)
83
What ADRs would we monitor in methotrexate
GI, hepatic, liver, Scr, CBC
84
joint inflammation that occurs due to decreased synthesis of chondrocytes associated with cartilage degradation–bone-on-bone; referred to as “wear and tear arthritis”
osteoarthritis
85
Common immunosuppressive drugs and their targets: FκBP Receptor on calcineurin
Tacrolimus
86
Common immunosuppressive drugs and their targets: FκBP Receptor on mTOR
Sirolimus
87
Common immunosuppressive drugs and their targets: 6-MP substrate of purine synthesis
Azathioprine
88
Common immunosuppressive drugs and their targets: IL-2Rɑ
Basiliximab
89
Common immunosuppressive drugs and their targets: IMPDH to inhibit purine synthesis
Mycophenolate
90
Common immunosuppressive drugs and their targets: Calcineurin
Cyclosporine
91
List Induction therapy medications:
basiliximab alemtuzumab high dose steroids
92
List maintenance therapy medications:
tacolimus sirolimus mycophnolate mofetil

x F2: IPCS (10 decks)

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