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Generals G.O.A.T > Immunology + Haematology > Flashcards

Immunology + Haematology Flashcards

(119 cards)

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1
Q

TLR that recognise viruses

A

TLR 3,7,8,9

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2
Q

TLR that recognise bacterial flagellin

A

TLR 5

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3
Q

TLR that recognise LPS

A

TLR 4

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4
Q

TLR that recognise lipoproteins

A

TLR 1, 2, 6

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5
Q

NLR detect what type of PAMP

A

intracellular

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6
Q

Apoptosis involves which caspase

A

Caspase 9

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7
Q

What are the pro-inflammatory cytokines

A

IL1, IL 2, IL6, TNFa

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8
Q

What are some pro-inflammatory enzymes

A

NOS, COX-2

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9
Q

IL-1 is produced in response to activation of what on sentinel cells

A

CD14 and TLR4

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10
Q

IL-6 promotes what

A

pyrexia and hepcidin

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11
Q

what vasoactive molecules cause vasodilation

A

kinins, prostaglandins

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12
Q

What vasoactive molecules cause increased vascular permeability

A

Serotonin, histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, platelet activating factor, FDPs

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13
Q

What vasoactive molecules cause mast cell degranulation, neutrophil chemotaxis and smooth muscle contraction

A

C3a and C5a

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14
Q

Thromboxanes cause what effect

A

Increased platelet aggregation

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15
Q

What are the three ways antibodies can participate in host defence

A
  • Neutralisation (IgA)
  • Opsonisation (IgG, IgE C3b and C5b)
  • complement activation
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16
Q

What are the main functions of the complement system

A
  • Altered membranes (bacterial lysis, opsonisation)
  • Inflammation (MCT degranulation and neutriphil chemotaxis)
  • Other (immune regulation, angiogenesis, coagulation, removal of apoptotic cells)
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17
Q

What are the three pathways to complement activation

A
  • classical
  • lectin
  • Alternative
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18
Q

What is the classical complement pathway

A

Antigen-antibody reaction

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19
Q

What is the lectin complement pathway

A

mannose binding lectin profuced by liver

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20
Q

What is the alternative complement pathway

A

Bacterial endotoxin

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21
Q

Where do the classical and lectin complement pathways converge

A

C4 (then goes to C2 and C3)

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22
Q

Where do all the pathways in the complemnet activation converge

A

C3

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23
Q

What happens after C3 activation in the complement pathway

A

C5 production and formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC) (C5,6,7,8,9)

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24
Q

In the complement pathway the ‘b’ components are involved in what

A

Formation of the MAC

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25
In the complement pathway the 'a' components are involved in what
other actions in promoting inflammation
26
Which complement products cause opsonisation and activate neutropils and macrophages
C3b
27
What does C3a do
Chemotaxis of eosinophils
28
What does C5a do
chemostaxis of neutrophils and macrophages
29
Which complement products activate mast cells
C3a, C4a, C5a
30
Which complement products cause neutrophil and macrophage chemostaxis
C5a and C5,6,7
31
Which complement product causes cell lysis
membrane attack complex
32
Which breed are predisposed to a genetic C3 deficiency
Brittany spaniels
33
What is the neutrophil life span - in blood - in tissue
- 7-10hrs - 4-5d
34
Which complement product activates neutrophils to allow phagocystosis
C5a
35
Adhesion of neutrophils is mediated by what cell surface molecules
* Endothelin expresses P-selectin * Interacts with neutrophil L -selectin * ICAM-1
36
What are the two types of phagocytosis
Type 1 - lamellipod engulfs particle Type 2 - complement mediated
37
What are the two types of destruction mediated by neutrophils
Respiratory burst Phagolysosome
38
macrophages are activated by which cytokines
- IFN gamma, TNF alpha, IL"
39
what chemokine do macrophages produce that causes neutrophil attraction
IL-8
40
Hepcidin is produced by which cytokines and what is the function
IL-1 and IL-6 bind to ferrorportin and prevent its function
41
What acts in the hypothalamys to result in PGE2 production and alter the hypothalamic temperature set point
COX2
42
What are the functions of pyrexia
- promote neutrophil release from BM - Enhabce respiratory burst - Enhance NK cell function - Enhance adaptive immunity
43
How are B cells activated
- via antigen presentation to the T cell (via MHCII) which co-activates the B cell
44
Which IL promote lecocyte growth and maturation
IL3,5 (eosinophils),11
45
Which IL are anti-inflammatory
IL4 and IL10, TNF beta
46
What is the purpose of MHCII presentation
T helper cell activation - exogenous antigen
47
What is the purpose of MHCI presentation
Cytotoxic T cell mediated apoptosis endogenous antigen (viral)
48
What are the three types of antigen presenting cells
Dendritic cells Macrophages B cells
49
What is the overall function of a TH1 cell
T cell responses Defence against intracellular bacterial + viruses recruit macrophages
50
What is the overall function of a TH2 cell
B cell responses Defence against helminths, allergic responses, mucosal surfaces recruit mast cells, eosinophils and IgE production
51
What is the overall function of a TH17 cell
Increase inflammation defence against extracellular bacteria and fungi recruit neutrophils
52
What is the overall function of a Treg cell
Decrease inflammation and supress T cell responses Use IL10 and TGF beta
53
Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
- IgE dependent - Soluble antigen - Mast cell activation - e.g. allergic diseases, anaphylaxis
54
Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
- cytotoxic - IgG/M mediated - cell surface receptor - Myasthenia, IMHA, ITP
55
Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
- immune complex - IgG - Soluble antigen - Leishmania, IMGN, Lupus
56
Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
- delayed - TH1 - macropahge - TB - TH2 - IgE and eosinophils - asthma + chronic allergy - CTL - cell antigen - cytotoxicity - Graft rejection
57
CD34
stem cell
58
CD45
all cells of haematopoetic origin except RBC
59
CD19
B lymphocytes
60
CD3
T lymphocytes
61
CD4
T helper cells
62
CD8
Cytotoxic T cells
63
CD21
B cell when bound to C3d
64
TH2 - stimulate B cell pathway to do what
- stimulate via IL4,5,6 - Plasma cell production of IgE - Eosinophil mediated pathogen killing
65
TH1 - stimulate cell pathways to do what
- by IFN gamma, TNF and IL2 - Stimulate macrophages to express MHC and phagocytose - Stimualte B cell IgG production - NK and cytotoxic T cell killing
66
IgG
- Monomer - activate complement - Neutralisation - precipitation - passive immunity transfer - Type II and III hypersensitivity
67
IgA
- fluids and membrane surfaces - passive immunity transfer - Dimer - MAC, opsonisation, neutralisation
68
IgM
- Pentamer - Primary immune response - Type II hypersensitivity
69
IgE
- mucosa, respiratory tract, GI - Monomer - Mast cells - parasitic destruction - Type I hypersensitivity
70
IgD
- B cell surface receptor - Monomer
71
What is somatic hypermutation
- change from IgM response to IgG
72
Fc region
- determined AB type - binding site for immune cells and complement
73
Fab region
- variable region - vary from antibody to antibody - antigen binding area on light chains
74
How long do monocytes circulate beofre entering tissues
10-20hrs
75
What is the lymphocyte life span
weeks-months
76
what is the platelet life span
5-10d
77
Which breed can have a macrocytic normochromic anaemia
Mini + toy Poodles
78
Which breed can have a microcytic hypo/normochromic anaemia
Shar-pei, Husky
79
What does major crossmatch test
Recipient antibody to donor blood
80
what does minor crossmatch test
Donor antibody to recipient blood
81
Canine universal donors should have what characetistics
negative for DEA 1, 3, 5, and 7 but positive for DEA 4
82
Which clotting factors does frozen plasma not contain
V or VIII
83
what clotting factors does cryoprecipitate contain
VWF and factor VIII and XIII
84
what clotting factors does cryosupernatant contain
II, VII, IX and X (good for VitK)
85
what does a prolonged PT with normal APTT indicate
factor VII deficiency
86
Which test becomes prolonged in vitamin K deficieny first and why
PT - factor VII has a short half life
87
Elevation in hepcidin causes what?
non regenerative anaemia due to iron sequestration
88
Inherited selective intestinal B12 malabsorption (Imerslund-Gräsbeck syndrome) in which breeds
Giant schnauzer, border collie, beagle, australian shepherd
89
Pyruvate kinase (PK) deficiency in which breeds
- abyssinian and somali cats - basenji, beagle and WHWT
90
phosphofructokinase (PFK) deficiency in which breeds
English springer, cockers spaniels
91
In primary ITP autoantibodies are directed against which epitope
Antibodies are directed against epitopes on platelet GPIIb/IIIa
92
What are the three types of vWD
Type 1 - low plasma vWF concentration (quantitiative) - low bleed risk (many breeds inc. doberman) Type 2 - variable reduction in plasma vWF (qualitative) - moderate/severe bleeding - GSHP and GWHP Type 3 - complete absence of vWF (quantitative) - Scottish terrier, Kooiker, Shetland sheepdog
93
What are suitable blood products for vWF
- fresh whole blood, - fresh frozen plasma - cryoprecipitate - treatment of choice
94
cyclical haematopoesis has been identified in which breed
Gray collie
95
Chediak higashi syndrome has been identified in which breed
- leucocyte abnormalities and platelet storage pool disorder - blue smoke persians
96
Bernard-soulier syndrome is what and in which breed
- macrothrombocytopenia with impaired platelet adhesion - cocker spaniels
97
Which breeds are predisposed to erosive IMPA
greyhounds, border collie
98
Which breeds are predisposed to non erosive IMPA
shar-pei/akita
99
What are the major clinical findings in SLE
- non-erosive IMPA - Pyrexia - Renal disease - Dermatogloical lesions
100
What test can be used to diagnose SLE
ANA titre
101
What characterises Pelger Huet anomaly
hyposegmented neutrophils - australian shepherds
102
What is the most common immune deficiency in dogs
IgA deficiency - mucosal surface disease - Shar pei, beagle, GSD
103
What is common variable immunodeficiency and what breed is it seen in and reported with which disease
Impaired T cell function and decreased immunoglobulins - seen with Pneumocystis - CKCS and mini dachshunds
104
What breeds are affected by Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)
recessive form in Jack russel terrieres X linked form in Basset hounds and corgi
105
Azathioprine - mechanism - adverse effects
- Thiopurine (purine analogue = adenine, guanine), S phase arrest - Hepatotoxicity - care with allopurinol
106
Ciclosporine - mechanism - Adverse effect
- Calcineurin inhibitor - Gingival hyperplasia, papillomatosis, lymphoma - care with ketoconazole
107
mycofenolate - mechanism - adverse effects
- purine analogue - inhibits (IMPDH) which is required for de novo purine synthesis - papilloma - care with azathioprine, amoniglycosides and Aluminum
108
Leflunomide - mechanism - adverse effects
- Pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor - hepatotoxicity, spontaneous bleeding - anticoagulants
109
Chloramucil - mechanism - adverse effect
- alkylating agent - alopecia, fanconi, myelosuppression
110
IVIG - mechanism - adverse effects
- binds to FC receptors on macropahges, prevents them taking up opsonised components - anaphylaxis, hypercoagulability
111
Vincristine
- blocks microtubule formation - peripheral neurotoxicity, vesicant
112
Intrinsic coagulation cascade Coagulation test
- XII, XI, IX, VII - PTT
113
Extrinsic coagulation cascade coagulation test
- III (tissue factor), VII - PT
114
Common coagulation cascade
X, V, II (Thrombin), I (fibrinogen) - PT and PTT
115
Which clotting factors are vitamin K dependent
II, VII, IX, X
116
Haemophila A
VIII
117
Haemophila B
IX
118
Haemophilia C
XI
119
Hageman deficiency
XII

Generals G.O.A.T (13 decks)

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