Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2023 ECC Board Exam > Immunology/Hematology > Flashcards

Immunology/Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the normal platelet number per HPF in dogs?

A

8-15 platelets/HPF (120 - 225K/uL)

*Each platelet = 15,000/ platelets/uL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is methemoglobin?

A

A type of hemoglobin that the iron on the heme has been oxidized from ferrous (Fe2+) to ferric (Fe3+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When there are >30% methemoglobins in the circulation, what does the pulse oximeter usually show? Why?

A

85% (even if PaO2 is high)
Methemoglobins absorb both wavelengths of light very well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two type of reticulocytes in cats? Which one can be seen up to 10% in healthy cats?

A

Aggregate reticulocytes & Punctate reticulocytes

Punctate reticulocytes can be seen in healthy cats
* Aggregate forms are released from the marrow and, after approximately 12 hours, develop into punctate forms that persist in the circulation for 9–20 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where does ferritin exist and what is its function?

A

Ferritin exists in all cells
It stores iron and acts as a reservoir to prevent excessive intracellular ion causing cell damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the function of Hepcidin?

A

It is secreted by hepatocytes and inhibits iron export from enterocytes, macrophages, and hepatocytes.

↑ production during iron overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of transferrin?

A

Transport iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

For Transferrin and Ferritin, which one is positive acute phase protein and which one is negative acute phase protein?

A

Transferrin: negative acute phase protein
Ferritin: positive acute phase protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the lifespan for canine and feline RBCs?

A

Dog: 120 days
Cat: 80 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the lifespan of platelets?

A

5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the lifespan of neutrophils?

A

< 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of haptoglobin?

A

It binds to free hemoglobin in the circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or False: Hemoglobin has 2 𝜶 globins and 2 𝜷 globins, all of which contains heme molecules.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which iron can bind to oxygen, ferric or ferrous?

A

Ferrous (Fe2+) can bind to oxygen
Ferric (Fe3+) cannot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does 2,3-DPG do?

A

It decreases hemoglobin affinity to oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Heinz bodies?

A

Damaged hemoglobins (usually from oxidative damage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is phosphofructokinase (PFK) deficiency and what is the treatment?

A

Periodic intravascular hemolysis and hemoglobinuria associated with strenuous exercise or stress-induced hyperventilation causing respiratory alkalosis

Treatment: exercise restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is pyruvate kinase (PK) deficiency?

A

Decreased ATP availability due to lacking of PK → hemolysis
Moderate to severe macrocytic hypochromic anemia with marked reticulocytosis → myelofibrosis → non- regenerative anemia

  • Worse prognosis compared to PFK deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

List 10 causes of hemolysis.

A

1) Primary IMHA
2) Mycoplasma haemofelis infection
3) DIC
4) Splenic neoplasia
5) Hypophosphatemia
6) IV hypotonic fluid bolus
7) Phosphofructokinase deficiency
8) Pyruvate kinase deficiency
9) Uremic-hemolytic syndrome
10) Onion ingestion
11) Zinc, copper toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is associated with IMHA?

A

Type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe neonatal isoerythrolysis.

A

It happens in kittens - when type B queen mated to a type A male and the kitten is type AB or A.

When kitten is nursed with the queen’s colostrum, the can absorb the antibodies against type A epitope. About 12-24 hours after colostrum ingestion, the antibodies against type A epitope will be in the circulation and attack kitten’s RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the equation for corrected reticulocytes?

A

Corrected reticulocytes = Measured reticulocytes x (PCV/N)

*In dogs, N = 45; in cats, N = 37)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

After a BM insult, which cell line decrease will be observed first?

A

Granulocytes → Neutropenia (5-6 days later)
Thrombocytopenia (8-10 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the function of hepcidin?

A

It regulates the iron metabolism and availability.
Increased hepcidin → decreased iron availability
Positive acute phase protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the definitive of RBC regeneration in dogs?

A

Reticulocytes > 60K/uL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the common sequela of Pyruvate kinase (PK) deficiency?

A

Myelofibrosis
Osteosclerosis
Hemosiderosis-induced hepatic failure or bone marrow failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Does canine and feline RBC contain mitochondria?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is normal RBC:WBC ratio?

A

500:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How to calculate HCT?

A

HCT = MCV x RBC/10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name 3 oxidizing agents in the neutrophils

A

Superoxide (O2−)
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
Hydroxyl ion (OH )

  • one of the lysosomal enzymes, myeloperoxidase, catalyzes the reaction between H2O2 and Cl- to form hypochlorite, which is exceedingly bactericidal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

During inflammation, what is the first line to four line defense mechanism of the body.

A

1) Tissue macrophage
2) Neutrophil Invasion of the Inflamed Area
3) Second Macrophage Invasion Into the Inflamed Tissue
4) Increased Production of Granulocytes and Monocytes by Bone Marrow

32
Q

How many days does it take for the newly formed granulocytes and monocytes reach the stage of leaving the bone marrow?

A

3-4 days

33
Q

What are the 5 factors that are mainly responsible in control of macrophage response (to stimulate BM)?

A

1) TNF-𝜶
2) IL-1
3) GM-CSF
4) G-CSF
5) M-CSF

34
Q

Name two cells that can release eosinophil chemotactic factors.

A

Mast cells
Basophils

35
Q

Name 4 substances mast cells (and basophils) release during inflammation.

A

Heparin
Histamine
Bradykinin
Serotonin

36
Q

Name 4 aspects of innate immunity.

A

1) Phagocytosis of bacteria by neutrophils & lymphocytes
2) Stomach acid and digestive enzymes destroy the swallow organisms
3) Skin as a barrier to invaded organisms
4) Certain chemicals in the blood that attach to foreign organisms or toxins and destroy them (e.g. complement complex, lysosome, basic polypeptides, natural killer lymphocytes)

37
Q

What are the two main types of acquired/adaptive immunity?

A

Humoral immunity (B cell immunity)
Cell-mediated immunity (T cell immunity)

38
Q

Fill out the blank.

A
39
Q

In normal body, how many percentages of immunoglobulins are IgG?

A

75%

40
Q

Name four ways of antibodies destroy antigens directly.

A

1) Agglutination
2) Precipitation
3) Neutralization
4) Lysis

41
Q

Write down the classic pathway of complement.

A
42
Q

Which complement protein cause opsonization of bacteria?

A

C3b

43
Q

What is the complement protein compose the membrane attack complex (MAC)?

A

C5b6789

  • MAC inserts itself into lipid bilayers and makes holes on the cell → cell lysis
44
Q

Which complement protein initiate chemotaxis of neutrophils and macrophages?

A

C5a

45
Q

Name three complement protein fragments that can activate mast cells and basophils.

A

C3a
C4a
C5a

46
Q

What are the three major antigen presenting cells in the body and what is the site where the antigen bind to?

A

Macrophage, B lymphocyte, dendritic cell (accessory cell)

MHC protein (Major histocompatibility complex)

47
Q

What are the two types of MHC protein and what is the main difference?

A

MHC 1 protein - present to cytotoxic T cells

MHC 2 protein - present to T helper cells

48
Q

Which type of T cells is the most abundant in the body?

A

T helper cells

49
Q

Which interleukin has strong positive effect for the proliferation of cytotoxic T cells and regulatory T cells?

A

IL-2

50
Q

Which three interleukins are called B-cell stimulating factors or B-cell growth factors?

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-6

51
Q

True or False: CD4 T cells are mainly cytokine-secreting helper cells, whereas CD8 T cells are mainly cytotoxic killer cells.

A

True

52
Q

True or False: CD4 T cells can be divided into two major types. Type 1 (Th1) helper T cells secrete interleukin-2 and interferon-𝛄 but not interleukin-4, 5, or 6. Type 2 (Th2) helper T cells secrete interleukin-4, 5, 6, and 10 but not interleukin-2 or interferon-𝛄.

A

True

53
Q

What are the three complement pathways? What is the activator for each pathway?

A

1) Classic pathway - pathogen, antibody-antigen complex to C1
2) Mannan-binding lectin pathway - PAMP recognized by lectin (e.g. mannose-containing carbohydrates on bacteria or viruses)
3) Alternative pathway - spontaneously activated complement component (e.g. pathogens)

54
Q

How many spherocytes/x100 oil immersion field support immune-mediated destruction of RBC?

A

> 5 spherocytes/x100 oil immersion field
(Sen: 63%; Spe 95%)

55
Q

In the ACVIM Consensus Statement of IMHA, what are the 4 evidences of hemolysis?

A

Hyperbilirubinemia
Ghost cells
Hemoglobinemia
Hemoglobinuria

56
Q

True or False: Saline agglutination testing performed by mixing 4 drops of saline with 1 drop of blood has a reported specificity of 100% for IMHA in dogs.

A

True

57
Q

True or False: There is a high level of evidence that immune-mediated destruction of erythrocytes contributes to anemia in dogs infected with B. canis

A

False

B. gibsoni (from fighting)

58
Q

In the ACVIM Consensus Statement of IMHA, it states that the evidence of M. haemofelis causing IMHA in cats is high.

A

True

59
Q

What is the non-associative cause of IMHA? What about associative?

A

Non-associative: primary, cryptogenic
Associative: secondary

60
Q

True or False: According to the ACVIM Consensus Statement of the treatment of IMHA, fresh RBC or at least no older than 7-10 days is recommended for use in dogs with IMHA.

A

True

61
Q

According to the ACVIM Consensus Statement of the treatment of IMHA, what is the recommended dose for prednisone? If the dog is responding to the tx and is on > 2 mg/kg/d, when should you taper it?

A

2-3 mg/kg/d or 50-60 mg/m^/d (for dogs > 25 kg)
* Dex SP 0.2-0.4 mg/kg/d if cannot tolerate oral med

After 1-2 week

62
Q

According to the ACVIM Consensus Statement of the treatment of IMHA, what are the 4 conditions when second immunosuppressant is recommended?

A

1) Severe, life-threatening IMHA
2) First 7 days the HCT decreases ≥ 5% in 24 hours (on pred)
3) Dependent on blood transfusion after 7 days (on pred)
4) Severe side effects from prednisone

63
Q

List 4 drugs as second immunosuppressant for canine IMHA and their dose.

A

Azathioprine - 2 mg/kg or 50 mg/m2 PO q24h
Mycophenolate - 8-12 mg/kg PO q12h
Cyclosporine - 5 mg/kg PO q12h
Leflunomide - 2 mg/kg PO q24h

  • They recommend cyclophosphamide not be administered to dogs with IMHA.
64
Q

According to the ACVIM Consensus Statement of the treatment of IMHA, what is the recommended intervention if the dog does not respond to second immunosuppressant after 7 days?

A

IVIG 0.5-1g/kg single dose

65
Q

According to the ACVIM Consensus Statement of the treatment of IMHA, if dog’s PCV/Hct has remained stable and >30% for 2 weeks after commencing treatment, what is the recommended tapering plan?

A

Taper prednisone by 25%, and by 25% every 3 weeks thereafter

  • If there is a second immunosuppressant → don’t change the dose of that drug
66
Q

According to the ACVIM Consensus Statement of the treatment of IMHA, what is the recommended management for asymptomatic neutropenic patients?

A

If the neutrophil count is between 1000 and 3000 cells/μL → no antibiotics unless other independent risk factors for infection are present

If the neutrophil count is <1000 cells/μL → prophylactic antibiotics

67
Q

What is the relapse rate for IMHA?

A

11-15%

68
Q

List 5 complications of IVIG administration.

A

1) Anaphylaxis
2) Acute kidney injury
3) Hypotension
4) Fluid overload
5) Thromboembolism

69
Q

What is the recommended dose for IVIG?

A

0.5 - 1.5 g/kg IV over 4-8 hours

70
Q

How does hepcidin affect iron?

A

Decreased iron availability
- Decrease GI absorption
- Prevent iron release from hepatocytes and macrophages
- Increase cellular internalization and degradation of ferroportin

71
Q

Is ferritin a positive or negative acute phase protein? What does it do? What about transferrin?

A

Ferritin
- positive acute phase protein
- blood protein that contains iron

Transferrin
- negative acute phase protein
- main protein in blood that binds and transports iron

72
Q

Name 2 poor prognostic indicators for IMHA and ITP.

A

IMHA
HighBUN level
Hyperbilirubinemia

ITP
High BUN level
Melena

73
Q

What is a triad of symptoms for hemolytic-uremic syndrome? What is the cause?

A

Thrombocytopenia
Acute renal impairment (e.g. glomerular necrosis)
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

It is caused by Shiga-like toxin produced by E. coli (typical from), other bacteria, medication, immune processes

74
Q

What metal on the pennies minted after 1982 can lead to hemolysis?

A

Copper

75
Q

In cats, nonregenerative anemias with macrocytic normochromic red blood cells may be suggestive of what type of infection?

A

FeLV

76
Q

In patients with IMHA, there are extravascular hemolysis and intravascular hemolysis. What immunoglobulin is associated with each and how does the hemolysis occur?

A

Extravascular hemolysis
- IgG
- IgG-RBC complex is cleared through the reticuloendothelial system

Intravascular hemolysis
- IgM
- IgM-RBC complex activates C3 and membrane attack complexes, induces the classical complement pathway, and results in intravascular hemolysis.

2023 ECC Board Exam (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions