Immunology Part I Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

What does TLR3 bind (innate system)?

A

dsRNA of viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the first cell to encounter pathogen/infection/resident in tissue?

A

Resident macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the first cell that responds/migrates to infection/pathogen?

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

“Built-in” immunity that is non inducible, preexisting ability to recognize and destroy pathogens and associated products.

  • Does not require previous exposure to pathogen to work
  • Mediated be phagocytosis
  • Recognizes common molecular pattern of pathogens known as PAMPs
  • CANNOT BE INDUCED TO BE MORE SPECIFIC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In general, myeloid precursors give rise to. . .

A

. . .innate immune cells!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are innate immune receptors called?

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) –> TLRs are a subfamily of this!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Overall goal of complement:

A

Control inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens after TLR3 binds dsRNA?

A
  • NRKB and IRF3 are activated and go the nucleus
  • Causes changes in gene transcription that lead to the release of IFN-beta
  • IFN-beta is a potent ANTI-VIRAL response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the three main functions of complement?

A
  1. Lysis
  2. Chemotaxis
  3. Opsonization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Secreted molecules involved in cell-to-cell signaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are chemokines?

A

A large family of cytokines that can attract cells into inflamed tissue and play a role in leukocyte homing. - “direct traffic of immune cells”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the six major categories of cytokines?

A
  1. Interferons (IFNs)
    - Type I (alpha and beta)
    - Type II (gamma)
  2. Interleukins (ILs)
  3. Colony Stimulating Factors (CSFs)
  4. Chemokine
  5. Tumor Necrosis Factors (TNFs)
  6. Transforming Growth Factors (TGFs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are Interferons?

A

Generally, they are cytokines that are important in limiting the spread of viral infections.
-They induce a state of antiviral resistance in uninfected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are Type I Interferons?

A

IFN alpha & IFN beta - Produced by cells that have become infected with virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are Type II Interferons?

A

IFN gamma - released by activated Th1 cells!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are Interleukins?

A

Large group of cytokines produced mainly by T cells (also macrophages, dendritic cells, and epithelial cells, etc.).
–Variety of functions including causing neighboring cells to divide and differentiate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are Colony Stimulating Factors (CSF)?

A
  • Primarily involved in directing the division and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells and precursors of blood leukocytes.
  • Controls how many and what kind of leukocyte is to be produced
18
Q

What is a chemokine?

A

Chemotactic cytokine used to direct the movement of leukocytes around the body

19
Q

What is Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNFs)?

A

Particularly important in mediating inflammation and cytotoxic reactions

20
Q

What are Transforming Growth Factors (TGFs)?

A

Important in regulating cell division and tissue repair.

21
Q

What are important properties of Adaptive Immunity?

A
  • It has “memory”. The secondary adaptive immune response is faster and stronger than the first.
  • It shows “tolerance”. In ability to make an immune response toward self-antigens.
22
Q

What are Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs)?

A

Bridge cells
-They link the innate and adaptive immune systems by taking up and processing antigens so they can be recognized by T cells.
[Dendritic cells, B cells, Macrophages]

23
Q

What provides the “bridge back” to help phagocytes work better at cleaning infection?

24
Q

What is the difference between active and passive immunity?

A

Active - memory response - outcome of exposure to antigens through infection and usually results in protective immunity conferred by antibodies and T cells.
Passive - Immunoglobulin transfusion or breast milk. No exposure to antigen, response developed immediately but cannot be maintained.

25
What does the Lymphoid progenitor side need to form from a Pluripotent Stem Cell?
IL-3
26
What does the Myeloid progenitor need to form from a Pluripotent Stem Cell?
IL-3 & GM-CSF (Granulocyte-Monocyte Colony Stimulating Factor)
27
What does a Natural Killer Cell do?
Looks to see if MHC is missing on cells, and then kills the cell if MHC is missing
28
What are the characteristics associated with SCID?
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disorder - Low gamma globulin fraction - Combined B and T cell immunodeficiencies (don't make any B or T cells) - Recurrent infection with a wide range of pathogens - ADA deficiency that leads to no Pro-B or Pro-T cells being formed - Immune system protection from mother in womb and until 6 months of age - so usually not discovered until later than 9 months
29
What cell marker do all leukocyte groups have?
CD45+ (on all T cells!!)
30
What are PMNs?
Polymorphonuclear neutrophils - Most numerous of the polymorphonuclear granulocytes - Constitute the majority of leukocytes (white blood cells) int he blood stream (around 60-70% in adults)
31
What are the primary actions of eosinophils and basophils?
Function as phagocytes and involve granule release (exocytosis)
32
What is required for a CFU-GEMM (myeloid lineage) to form CFU-GM?
IL-3 and GM-CSF
33
What is required for CFU-GM to make monocytes?
M-CSF, GM-CSF, IL-3
34
What is required for CFU-GM to make neutrophils?
G-CSF, GM-CSF, IL-3
35
What is required for Monocytes to make macrophages?
GM-CSF, M-CSF
36
What is required for monocytes to make DC?
GM-CSF, IL-4
37
What is required for CFU-Eo to make eosinophils?
IL-5, IL-3, GM-CSF
38
What promotes the growth of megakaryocytic?
Thrombopoietin (TP)
39
What should you know about Monocytes?
- Large relative to lymphocyte - Horseshoe shaped nucleus - Primary azurophilic (blue-staining granules) - Lysosomes contain peroxidase - Actively phagocytose microorganisms - Long-lived (months to years)
40
What should you know about polymorphonuclear granulocytes?
- Short-lived (2-3 days) - Adhesion is mediated by receptors on granulocytes and ligands on endothelial cells and promoted by chemo-attractants like IL-8 - Main role in phagocytosis and destruction of pathogens - 95% of circulating granulocytes are neutrophils
41
What two types of granules do neutrophils have?
1. Primary (azurophilic) granules - lysosomes containing acid hydrolases, myeloperoxidase, and mermaids (lysozyme), antimicrobial proteins: defensins, cathelicidins, bacterial permeability including protein 2. Secondary granules (specific to neutrophils): lactoferrin and lysozyme