Immunology, Serology and Blood Banking Flashcards

(300 cards)

1
Q

antibody heterogeneity: variations between light and heavy chains; constant regions of all antibodies and kappa and lambda light chains

A

isotypes

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2
Q

antibody heterogeneity: species-specific variations in the constant domains of heavy or light chains; different alleles of heavy chains

A

allotypes

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3
Q

antibody heterogeneity: variation in the variable region; produced by a single clone of cells

A

idiotypes

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4
Q

links multiple monomers of IgM and IgA

A

joining (J) chain

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5
Q

predominant serum antibody, approximately 75% of immunoglobulins in the blood
only Ig that crosses placenta
produced in secondary (anamnestic) antibody response

A

IgG

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6
Q

IgG subclasses

A

IgG1, IgG2, IgG3, IgG4

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7
Q

IgG subclasses that activate the classical complement pathway

A

IgG1, IgG2, IgG3

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8
Q

five monomers linked together by a J chain and interchain disulfide bonds
10% of total serum Ig
first antibody produced against an immunogen
produced in high levels in the primary response
best activator of the classical pathway of complement only one molecule is required

A

IgM

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9
Q

2 forms of IgA

A

serum IgA
secretory IgA

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10
Q

IgA: single Ig molecule; antigen clearance and immune regulation

A

serum IgA

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11
Q

IgA: dimer held together by a J-chain; block attachment of viruses, bacteria and toxins to host cells

A

secretory IgA

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12
Q

2 subclasses of IgA

A

IgA1 and IgA2

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13
Q

accounts for 15-20% of total serum antibody

A

IgA

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14
Q

primarily a cell membrane surface component of beta-lymphocytes
short half-life (2-3 days)

A

IgD

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15
Q

responsible for allergic (type 1 hypersensitivity) reactions
Fc portion binds to receptors on mast cells and basophils
once attached to mast cells, binding to an allergen triggers degranulation of the cell and release of allergic mediators, such as histamine and leukotrienes
elevated concentrations are often found during parasitic infections

A

IgE

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16
Q

identical antibodies that are produced from a single clone of plasma cells
found in individuals with multiple myeloma
produced in industry by fusing an antigen-sensitized, splenic beta-lymphocyte with non secreting myeloma cell thus creating an immortal cell line that secretes an antibody of a single idiotype

A

monoclonal antibodies

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17
Q

quantitation on antibodies

A

radial immunodiffusion
nephelometry
turbidimetry

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18
Q

immune system: responsible for non specific response
phagocytosis of invaders
present immunogens to T helper cells, the first step in an immune response
release cytokines that affect other cells’ activities

A

myeloid cells

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19
Q

myeloid cells in the peripheral blood

A

monocytes

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20
Q

myeloid cells in the tissue

A

macrophage

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21
Q

macrophages have these on their surface

A

major histocompatibility complex class II
complement receptors
antibody Fc receptors

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22
Q

granulocytes: 60-70% of WBCs in circulation; phagocytosis and contributes to inflammatory response

A

neutrophils

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23
Q

granulocytes: 1-3% of circulating wbcs; mediate IgE allergic response

A

eosinophils

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24
Q

granulocytes: 0-1% of circulating wbcs, has receptors for IgE and granules responsible for allergic reactions

A

basophils

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25
20-40% of circulating wbcs
lymphocytes
26
20% of circulating lymphocytes express surface molecules such as CD19 and CD20 mature in the bone marrow
b cells
27
b cells differentiate into:
plasma cells memory b cells
28
produce antibody
plasma cells
29
80% of circulating lymphocytes express surface molecules such as cd2 and cd3 lyse host cells infected with viruses and tumor cells and also produce lymphokines
t cells
30
slightly larger than t or b cells and have cytoplasmic granules
nk cells
31
present antigens to T cells
dendritic cells
32
dendritic cells in the dermis and squamous epithelia
langerhans cells
33
granulocyte resembling basophil that contains many chemicals that affect the immune response
mast cells
34
soluble protein molecules secreted by one cell type that affect other cells turn on genes in target cells
cytokines
35
antiviral proteins that inhibit viral replication and activate NK cells produced by virally-infected cells
interferon-alpha and -beta
36
antiviral effects, activate macrophages and NK cells, stimulates b cells to produce antibodies produced by TH1 cells
interferon-gamma
37
produced by macrophages, lymphocytes, and NK cells when encountering bacteria, viruses, tumor cells, toxins, and complement protein C5a
tissue necrosis factor-alpha
38
produced by cd4 and cd8 positive cells after exposure to a specific antigen
tnf-beta
39
cytokine cellular source: macrophages, b cells, fibroblasts primary targets: t cells, b cells, macrophages, endothelium
IL-1
40
cytokine cellular source: t cells primary targets: t cells
IL-2
41
cytokine cellular source: t cells primary targets: stem cells
IL-3
42
cytokine cellular source: t cells primary targets: b cells, t cells
IL-4
43
cytokine cellular source: t cells primary targets: b cells
IL-5
44
cytokine cellular source: t cells, b cells, fibroblasts, macrophages primary targets: b cells, hepatocytes
IL-6
45
cytokine cellular source: bone marrow, stromal cells primary targets: pre-b cells, t cells
IL-7
46
cytokine cellular source: monocytes primary targets: fibroblasts
IL-8
47
cytokine cellular source: t cells primary targets: t cells, mast cells
IL-9
48
cytokine cellular source: t cells primary targets: TH1 cells
IL-10
49
cytokine cellular source: macrophages, mast cells, lymphocytes primary targets: macrophages, granulocytes, tissue cells
TNF
50
cytokine cellular source: leukocytes, epithelia, fibroblasts primary targets: tissue cells
INF-alpha
51
cytokine cellular source: fibroblasts, epithelia primary targets: tissue cells, leukocytes
INF-beta
52
cytokine cellular source: T cells, NK cells, epithelia, fibroblasts primary targets: leukocytes, tissue cells, TH2 cells
INF-gamma
53
produced by macrophages, B cells, and other cell types activates T helper cells, increase number of B cells, activates vascular endothelium, causes fever and acute phase protein synthesis and induces T cells to produce lymphokines
IL-1
54
produced by T helper cells causes proliferation of activated t and b cells
IL-2
55
produced by activated T cells causes increases in the number of mast cells in skin, spleen and liver
IL-3
56
produced by activated T cells induces proliferation of T cells and class switching from IgM to IgG1 and IgE
IL-4
57
primary lymph tissues of adults
bone marrow and thymus
58
secondary lymphoid organs: in the lymph nodes, ___ migrate to the cortex and ___ to the paracortex
b cells t cells
59
secondary lymphoid organs: in the lymph nodes: ____ there are many small b cells, and after stimulations becomes ____
primary follicle secondary follicle
60
secondary lymphoid organs: has small and large lymphocytes, blast cells, macrophages and dendritic cells
germinal center
61
secondary lymphoid organs: contains plasma cells and large lymphocytes
medulla
62
secondary lymphoid organs: filters blood, contains both t and b cells
spleen
63
secondary lymphoid organs: found in submucosa in gastrointestinal tract and urogenital tract, these surfaces interact with the environment and can begin the immune response early
mucosal associated lymphoid tissue
64
specialized MALT found in the lower ileum
Peyer's patch
65
cell surface markers that allow immune cells to distinguish self from nonself first described on white blood cells and are coded for by genes in the MHC located on the chromosome six
human leukocyte antigens
66
MHC found on nearly every nucleated cell surface antigen presenting cells with MHC I molecules present antigens to CTLs
class I loci
67
class I loci
HLA-A HLA-B HLA-C HLA-E HLA-F HLA-G HLA-I
68
molecules located on the surface of monocytes, macrophages, b cells, activated t cells, dendritic cells, langerhans cells and some epithelial cells antigen presenting cells with MHC II molecules present antigen to T helper cells HLA-DM, HLA-DO, HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR
class II
69
complement proteins, TNF-alpha and beta, and other proteins not associated with cell membrane surfaces
class III
70
combination of inherited HLA alleles
combination of inherited HLA alleles
71
true or false: transplants last longer if the HLA antigens from the recipient and the donor are closely matched
true
72
true or false: although poor response to platelet transfusion is multifactorial, antibodies to class I HLA antigens are the primary cause of immune-mediated platelet transfusion refractoriness
true
73
true or false: 46 haplotypes are a genotype
false, only 2 (one from each parent)
74
true or false: HLA loci are polymorphic and recombination is rare. HLA inheritance patterns can exclude fathers with approximately 99%
true
75
HLA antigen associated with ankylosing spondylitis
HLA B-27
76
involved in nonspecific response by attachment to damaged epithelium, migration into tissue chemotaxis, phagocytosis, and digestion of target cells, increased metabolism, and degranulation
PMNs
77
defect in oxidative pathway (respiratory pathway) that phagocytes use to create hydrogen peroxide, which is used to kill bacteria
chronic granulomatous disease
78
granules contain acid phosphatase, peroxidase, histamine and several other types of molecules clearing immune complexes, limiting inflammatory reactions, protein in granules toxic to parasites
eosinophils
79
release substances that mediate immune reaction causing increased vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction, chemotaxins for phagocytes, increased inflammatory response
mediator cells
80
mediator cells
mast cells basophils platelets
81
degranulate when membrane-bound IgE binds an allergen or by non immunologic mechanisms such as surgical incisions, heat and skin or mucous membrane infection
mast cells
82
amplify the reactions that start with the mast cells at the site of entry of the antigen play a role in anaphylactic reactions
basophil
83
mononuclear phagocyte system
alveolar macrophages splenic macrophages Kuppfer cells
84
sequenced evens following tissue damage that protect the host from foreign invaders and attempt to minimize tissue damage increased vascular permeability which then causes fluid to move from the circulation to the space around the injury site
inflammation
85
PMNs move between the endothelial cells to the site of tissue damage
diapedesis
86
components on of the complement system are synthesized by the liver, except ___, which is synthesized in the epithelial cells of the intestines
C1
87
complement system: five proteins unique to the classical pathway
C1q C1r C1s C4 C2
88
complement system: three proteins unique to the alternative pathway
factor B factor D properdin
89
complement system: six proteins common to both pathways
C3 C5 C6 C7 C8 C9
90
activation of the complement: classical pathway
immune complexes, require one IgM or two IgG molecules
91
activation of the complement: alternative pathway
antibody-independent, microbial components such as lipopolysaccharide, polysaccharide, teichoic acid, and peptidoglycan
92
activation of the complement: lectin pathway
binding of mannose-binding lectin to mannose residues on glycoproteins or carbohydrates on the surface of microorganisms
93
true or false: C4a, C5a, C6a causes basophils and mast cells to release histamine and also cause smooth muscle contraction and increased vascular permeability
false, C3a, C4a, C5a
94
true or false: C3a adheres to immune complexes and surfaces of substances to facilitate clearing of these molecules
false, C3b
95
true or false: if C3b is attached to a cell, phagocytosis is enhanced
true
96
true or false: C5b is an anaphylatoxin and induces the migration of neutrophils and monocytes to the site
false, C5a
97
true or false: cell lysis through the formation of the membrane attack complex
true
98
components of the membrane attack complex (MAC)
C5 through C9
99
C1 inhibitor combines with C1r and C1s to block ___
C1 activities
100
deficiency in C1INH autosomal dominant disease unregulated classical pathway activation resulting in vascular permeability, and swollen mucous membranes in airways which can become blocked
hereditary angioehema
101
removes a single amino acid from C4a, C3a and C5a, rendering them useless as anaphylatoxin
anaphylatoxin inactivator
102
MAC inhibitors
S protein binds to C5b-C7 complex
103
CRI binds C3b and C4b and inhibits the amplification loop
complement receptor type I
104
acute-phase reactants: activate the classical pathway of complement and can also bind to NK cells and monocytes, stimulating them to target tumor cells may also be increased during acute coronary heart diseases
c-reactive proteins (crp)
105
acute-phase reactants: removes free hemoglobin from circulation
haptoglobin
106
acute-phase reactants: converted to fibrin to heal the injury
fibrinogen
107
acute-phase reactants: family of serine protease inhibitors synthesized in the liver, deficiency causes premature loss of elasticity in the lung and liver damage
alpha-1 antitrypsin
108
acute-phase reactants: principal copper-transport protein, vital in aerobic energy production, collagen formation, and protection against superoxide ions
ceruloplasmin
109
deficiency of ceruloplasmin
wilson disease
110
acute-phase reactants: protease inhibitor, complexes are phagocytized by macrophages and fibroblasts
alpha-2 macroglobulin
111
phagocytic cells that process antigen and express it on the cell surface associated with MHC class I and II molecules
monocyte/macrophages dendritic cells
112
nonphagocytic cells that attach to antigens in their native form, process antigens and express them on their surface associated with MHC II molecules
b cells
113
true or false: b cell antigen receptor is monomeric IgM and IgG
false, IgM or IgD
114
b cell surface receptors have two identical antigen-binding pockets
Fab portion
115
t cell receptor consists of two non identical _____
peptides cd3
116
t helper cells have ____ on their surface that interacts with MHCII on the antigen presenting cell
cd4
117
ctls have ___ on their surface that interacts with ___ on the antigen presenting cell
cd8 mhcI
118
mediated by TH1 cells monocytes and macrophages are stimulated by cytokines from TH1 cells ctls are activated by cytokines from TH1 cells and then destroy targets by cell-to-cell contact, main function is to destroy infected cells nk cells kill target cells without being previously sensitized
cell-mediated immunity
119
subset of T helper cells that secrete cytokines that activate other cells involved in the response
TH1 cells
120
b cell activation begins when antigen binds to antibody on B cell surface and the antigen is internalized and linked to an MHC II molecule on the cell's surface
humoral mediated immunity
121
antibodies can be produced that recognize an unlimited number of antigens but there are a limited number of B cells due to recombination events that occur during b cell maturation
antibody diveristy
122
produce antibodies with the same specificity of antibodies that were on the surface of the b cell
plasma cells
123
produced when host first encounters antigen no antibody is produced for about 5-7 days during this time, the host is producing plasma cells that will secrete antibodies antibody production starts, slowly peaks, levels off then declines
primary antibody response
124
first antibody produced during the primary antibody response
IgM
125
produced after the host has previously been exposed to an antigen short lag phase (3-5 days) higher antibody concentration IgG produced due to class switching, and persists longer in circulation than IgM
secondary antibody response
126
cytolytic effector cells can lyse antibody coated target cells if there is direct contact
antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
127
occurs when an an individual produces antibodies or a t cell response to his/her own antigens there is a loss of self-tolerance antibody-cell surface component interaction > formation of autoantigen-autoantibody complexes > sensitization of t cells
autoimmune disease
128
diseases and conditions associated with hla types: HLA-B8
graves disease type I disease
129
diseases and conditions associated with hla types: HLA-DR2
SLE multiple sclerosis hashimoto disease myasthenia gravis
130
diseases and conditions associated with hla types: HLA-DR3
sjogren syndrome myasthenia gravis SLE graves disease type I disease
131
diseases and conditions associated with hla types: HLA-DR4
rheumatoid arthritis type I diabetes pemphigus vulgaris
132
autoimmune theories: burnet postulated that when an error in self-recognition occurs during the fetal life and lymphocytes against an autoantigen are not destroyed, then autoantibodies are produced
forbidden-clone theory
133
autoimmune theories: clones developed during fetal life are not stimulated by low doses of antigens. the ability to produce antibodies against higher doses of antigens is still preset
clonal energy
134
autoimmune theories: some antigens are hidden from the immune system during fetal development. when the tissue is damaged, the "hidden cells" are exposed to the immune system and antibodies are produced against these cells
sequestered-antigen theory
135
autoimmune theories: suppressor t cells control antibody production by b cells. if suppressor t cell exhibit decreased activity, then antibodies against autoantigens are produced
immunologic deficiency theory
136
autoimmune theories: an individual can make antibodies or reactive t cells to an infectious agent that cross react with self-antigens
molecular mimicry
137
autoimmune theories: a number of bacteria and viruses are known to non specifically stimulate b cells. if these b cells have activity against self antigens, an autoimmune disease
polyclonal b cell activation
138
diagnostic tests for non-organ specific autoimmune diseases: associated with SLE, mixed connective tissue disease and rheumatoid arthritis
anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA)
139
techniques used to detect ANA
agglutination indirect immunofluorescence enzyme immunoassay
140
interpretation of indirect immunofluorescence results: evenly stains the nuclei and is associated with anti-dna antibodies and histones
diffuse or homogenous
141
interpretation of indirect immunofluorescence results: stains the edge of the nuclei and is associated with anti-dna antibody and antibi-lamins (proteins found in the nuclear membrane) antibody
peripheral
142
interpretation of indirect immunofluorescence results: numerous evenly distributed stained speckles within the nuclei associated with antibodies to extractable nuclear antigen-nucleanribonucleoprotein (anti-RNP) and anti-smith
speckled
143
interpretation of indirect immunofluorescence results: stains two or three large areas within the nucleus and is associated with anti-RNP antibody
nucleolar
144
interpretation of indirect immunofluorescence results: stains as a discrete speckled pattern due to anti-centromere antibody
centromere
145
autoantibodies and associated disorders: centromere
CREST (calcinosis cutis, raynaud syndrome, esophageal hypomotility, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia) syndrome
146
autoantibodies and associated disorders: dsDNA
found in SLE and low titers found in rheumatoid arthritis and sjogren syndrome
147
autoantibodies and associated disorders: histone
drug-induced SLE
148
autoantibodies and associated disorders: nuclear RNP
SLE and mixed connective tissue disease
149
autoantibodies and associated disorders: Scl-70
scleroderma (systemic sclerosis)
150
autoantibodies and associated disorders: Sjogren syndrome A (SSA [Ro])
sjogren syndrome and SLE
151
autoantibodies and associated disorders: Sjogren syndrome B (SSA [LA])
sjogren syndrome and SLE
152
autoantibodies and associated disorders: Sm
diagnostic for SLE (high specificity) if present but low sensitivity
153
diagnostic tests for non-organ specific autoimmune diseases: anti-antibody, typically IgM, that binds the Fc portion of IgG; usually detected by latex agglutination, positive for 75% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis and also noted in chronic hepatitis, SLE and syphilis
rheumatoid factor (RF)
154
diagnostic tests for non-organ specific autoimmune diseases: proteins that reversibly precipitates at 4degC, and associated with autoimmune diseases such as vasculitis, glomerulonephritis, SLE, RA and sjogren syndrome
cryoglobulins
155
chronic, non infectious inflammatory disease involving many organs more likely to occur in women than men and in black than whites tissue injury is caused by autoantibodies and immune complexes deposited in the tissues depressed suppressor T cell function allows production of antibodies against self symptoms include fever, weight loss, malaise, weakness, arthritis, skin lesions, photosensitivity, butterfly rash, renal disease, pericarditis, seizures, ocular changes, pancreatitis, and small-vessel vasculitis
SLE
156
chronic, non infectious, systemic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the joints women are affected 2-3 times more often than men due to production of IgM antibodies against IgG in the synovium > immune complexes form > activates complement > inflammatory response proceeds and damages the synovium > attract neutrophil and macrophages to the joint that degranulate and contribute to tissue destruction symptoms: fatigue, weight loss, weakness, mild fever, anorexia, morning stiffness, joint pain, vasculitis, rheumatoid nodules lab: elevated ESR, elevated CRP, positive RF, cryoglobulins and sometimes ANAs, synovial fluid is cloudy with a WBC count between 5000-20,000/microliters, elevated protein, poor mucin clot development, decreased complement and positive RF
rheumatoid arthritis
157
an inflammation of the salivary and lacrimal glands causing dryness of the mouth and eyes lab: polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia, autoantibodies against the salivary glands and positive RF, ANA (speckled or diffuse pattern), anti-SSA and anti-SSB
sjogren syndrome
158
increased rate of RBC destruction results in a normocytic, normochromic anemia autoantibody is directed against RBC antigens lab: positive direct antiglobulin test and sometimes cold agglutinins
autoimmune hemolytic anemia
159
humoral and cellular immunity are activated and destruction of normal thyroid tissue leads to hypothyroidism, loss of thyroid function and low levels of thyroid hormone in the blood antithyroid antibodies detected include antithyroglobulin, antithyroid peroxidase (microsomal antigen), and second colloid antigen (CA-2)
hashimoto disease
160
hyperplasia and diffuse goiter caused by autoantibody reacting with thyroid receptor on cells that overstimulates the thyroid gland autoantibody mimics the activity of thyroid stimulating hormone thyrotoxicosis results from overstimulation; both free and total T3 and T4 are elevated and TSH is decreased symptoms: exophthalmos and infiltrative dermopathy
graves disease
161
neuromuscular disease in which the nerve muscle do not function normally most patients exhibit antibodies to acetylcholine receptors autoantibodies block nerve impulses and can initiate damage to neurons
myasthenia gravis
162
considered a chronic progressive inflammatory disease with demyelinization of the nerves active lesion contains CTLs, helper T cells and macrophages most patients have increased IgG concentrations in the cerebrospinal fluid oligoclonal bands in CSF on high resolution electrophoresis are also indicative
multiple sclerosis
163
islet cell destruction in the pancreas results in insulin-dependent autoantibodies and CTLs reactive against pancreatic beta cells produce marked atrophy and fibrosis of the islet cells > insulin deficiency viruses can trigger autoantibody production by molecular mimicry
type I diabetes
164
overreactive immune responses to innocuous substances on re-exposure that can result in tissue damage involve humoral (types I-III) and cell-mediated (IV) responses
hypersensitivity
165
classified as an immediate hypersensitivity reaction because it occurs within minutes after re-exposure to an allergen after the first exposure, basophils and mast cells are sensitized with IgE, upon second exposure, IgE binds to a specific allergen and chemical mediators are released from those cells (degranulation), which causes allergic symptoms
type I hypersensitivity reaction
166
systemic form of the type I hypersensitivity shock or edema of the upper respiratory tract
anaphylaxis
167
type I hypersensitivity mediators: causes contraction of bronchioles and smooth muscle of blood vessels, increases capillary permeability, increases mucus secretion int he airway
histamine
168
type I hypersensitivity mediators: cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
prostaglandins
169
type I hypersensitivity mediators: erythema and wheal formation, 30-1000 times the ability of histamine to cause bronchospasm and also stimulate mucus secretion in the airways
leukotrienes
170
methods used to measure total serum IgE levels
competitive radioimmunosorbent test (RIST) non competitive RIST double-antibody radioimmunoassay (RIA) sandwich enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
171
due to IgG or IgM antibodies directed against cell surface antigens immediate hypersensitivity reaction antibody-mediated tissue damage: PMNs bind to antibody-sensitized cells and destroy the cells by phagocytosis or antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity reaction complement-mediated cell lysis: antibody-antigen complex on cell surface activates the complement pathway to cause lysis incompatible blood transfusion damage to sensitize tissue cells causes inflammation which, in turn causes damage to normal tissue cells
type II hypersensitivity
172
immune complex reactions, immune complexes are deposited on tissue causing inflammation immediate hypersensitivity reaction circulating immune complexes SLE, RA, serum sickness, arthus reaction
type III hypersensitivity
173
two sites where immune complexes are often deposited in type III hypersensitivity
heart valves renal glomerulus
174
type III hypersensitivity: an allergen injected intradermally
arthus reaction
175
type III hypersensitivity: patients develop antibodies against heterologous serum proteins
immune complex disorders
176
type III hypersensitivity: immune complexes are deposited on renal glomeruli, causing inflammation of the kidney and possibly renal failure
glomerulonephritis
177
type III hypersensitivity: inflammation of the blood vessel wall
vasculitis
178
caused by soluble factors or lymphokines released by T cells > antibody and complement are not involved in this reaction lymphokines are produced by T cells these chemicals attract macrophages that become activated, causing them to degranulate as more macrophages arrive at the site, ulceration and necrosis occur
type IV hypersensitivity
179
subcutaneous injection of tuberculosis antigen is sued as a diagnostic skin test swelling occurring at the site within 24-72 hours indicates previous infection
tuberculin-type hypersensitivty
180
allergens from poison ivy and poison oak cause sensitization resulting in edema in the skin with the formation of microvesicles and itching on subsequent exposure
contact sensitivity (dermatitis)
181
marked deficiency of all classes of Ig is detected after about 6 months of age recurrent, life-threatening infections occur with encapsulated influenzae, manifested as pneumonia, sinusitis, bronchitis, otitis, furunculosis, meningitis, and septicemia b cells are markedly decreased or absent
bruton x-linked agammaglobulinemia
182
x-linked genetic disease serum IgM is increased; IgG and IgA are markedly decreased or absent defect in CD40 ligand on T helper cells prevents class switching from IgM to IgG, IgA or IgE affected individuals are prone to respiratory tract infections, often have autoantibodies to platelets, red blood cells and neutrophils
hyper IgM syndrome
183
patients present with small amounts or absence of serum and secretory IgA usually caused by a genetic defect or by drugs (phenytoin and penicillin) anaphylaxis may result if IgA is administered to someone with this deficiency
selective IgA deficiency
184
autosomal recessive disorder that presents with ataxia, telangiectasia, recurrent sinopulmonary infections, a high incidence of malignancy, and variable immune defects typically present with an IgA and sometimes IgE deficiency defect in a kinase gene that regulates the cell cycle b and t helper cells are affected
ataxia-telangiectasia
185
because T cells are involved in both humoral and cell mediated responses, individuals with ____ can have a severe combined immunodeficiency
T helper deficiencies
186
hypocalcemic tetany, due to underdevelopment of the thymus and heart disease immune defect is variable, from slight decrease in T cells to no T cells in the bloodstream very susceptible to opportunities infections and have a poor prognosis
congenital thymic hypoplasia digeorge syndrome
187
group of diseases with different causes, that affect T and B cell function, resulting in a suppression of humoral and cell mediated immune responses
severe combined immune deficiency
188
absence of these enzymes causes an accumulation of nucleotide metabolites in all cells which is particularly toxic to T and B cells very low number of T cells is present, and children often have an underdeveloped thymus-lack of tonsil or lymph nodes, hypogammaglobulinemia, and lymphopenia
adenosine deaminase or purine nucleotide phosphorylase
189
with an mhc class II deficiency, t helper cells fail to develop patients present with hypogammaglobulinemia and no cell-mediated immune response mhc class I deficiency is less severe loss of ctls and response to intracellular pathogens
bare lymphocyte syndrome
190
defect prevents t helper cells from delivering lymphokines to b cells, macrophages and other target cells patients demonstrate eczema, thrombocytopnenic purpura, and increased risk of infection platelets are small and defective
wiskott-aldrich syndrome
191
protein involved with cytoskeletal reorganization necessary for delivering cytokines
wiskott aldrich syndrome protein
192
complement deficiencies: patients with defects in early ______ such as factor D and properdin, are susceptible to infections by Neisseria meningitidis
alternative complement proteins
193
complement deficiencies: patients with a ______ have the most severe clinical manifestations
c3 defects
194
decline in serum immunoglobulins during the first few months of life individuals eventually produce normal amounts of immunoglobulins
transient hypogammaglobulinemia
195
certain viruses impair the function of the immune systems
human immunodeficiency virus epstein barr virus cytomegalovirus
196
tremendous amounts of several classes of immunoglobulins to several specific antigens are produced, resulting in a broad spike in the gamma region on serum protein electrophoresis
polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia
197
causes of polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia
infectious diseases inflammatory responses liver disease
198
malignant transformation of a clone of b cells that produce identical antibodies narrow peak on serum protein electrophoresis
monoclonal hypergammaglobulinemia
199
lymphoproliferative disease in which plasma cells produce a high concentration of immunoglobulin approximately 50% of patients have Bence Jones proteins weakness, anorexia, weight loss, skeletal destruction, plasma cell infiltrate in bone marrow
multiple myeloma
200
light chain fragments
bence jones proteins
201
diagnostic of multiple myeloma, waldenstrom macroglobulinemia, chronic lymphocytic leukemia or lymphoma immunoglobulin type determination is necessary for diagnosis and prognosis
monoclonal immunoglobulins (m protein)
202
uncontrolled proliferation of a clone of b cells that synthesize a homogenous IgM cause unknown hyperviscosity of plasma causes heart failure, headache dizziness, partial or total loss of vision, bleeding and anemia weakness, fatigue, headache and weight loss lab: a spike in the beta or gamma region on serum protein electrophoresis, increased plasma viscosity, and abnormal accumulation of lymphoid cells in the bone marrow and tissues
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
203
non structural protein that becomes insoluble after an alteration in its secondary structure
amyloid protein
204
monoclonal plasma cell disorder in which abnormal immunoglobulin or bence jones protein or less commonly heavy chain fragment is produced insoluble proteins are deposited in some of the tissues: skin, liver, nerves, heart, kidney results in progressive loss of organ function lab: frequent abnormalities of serum Ig and presence of bence jones proteins
primary amyloidosis
205
transfer of tissue from one site to another within an individual
autograft
206
transfer of tissue between genetically identical individuals
isograft (syngraft)
207
transfer of tissue between two genetically non identical individuals of the same species
allograft
208
transfer of tissue between two individuals of different species
xenograft
209
revascularization and healing lead to a repaired site in about 2 weeks
graft acceptance
210
first time a graft is encountered, the immune system attacks and ultimately destroys (rejects) the nonself tissue occurs 10-14 days after transplantation
first set rejection
211
the second time non self tissue with the same or similar antigens is encountered rejected within 6 days
second set rejection
212
clinical indications of graft rejection: occurs within 24 hours of transplantation rejection is caused by a pre-existing antibody to antigens on the grafted tissue tissue never becomes vascularized caused by ABO blood group antibodies and MHC class I antibodies
hyperacute rejection
213
clinical indications of graft rejection: occurs within weeks of transplantation due to cell-mediated response histopathology reveals massive infiltration of lymphocytes and macrophages
acute rejection
214
clinical indications of graft rejection: occurs months to years after transplantation mechanisms of rejection include both humoral-mediated and cell-mediated immunity
chronic rejection
215
abnormal mass of tissue that results from the uncontrolled growth of normal cells even after the growth stimulus is removed
neoplasm
216
typically a mild and non progressive tumor that pushes aside normal tissue, but does not invade it, as the tumor expands
benign tumor
217
generally consisting of poorly differentiated cells that grow rapidly and invade surrounding tissue, robbing the normal tissue of nutrients
malignant tumor
218
secondary tumor derived from a malignant primary tumor
metastatic tumor
219
intracellular proteins expressed on the surface of a tumor due to interaction with MHC class I and II moleculues
tumor-specific peptides
220
occurs when macrophages come in close contact with tumor cells
macrophage-mediated cytotoxicity
221
kills those cells with mutations leading to decreased MHC class I products expressed on their surfaces
NK cells
222
antibodies can be produced to antigens found on the surface of tumor cells, which then can be lysed by complement activation or antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity reactions involving NK cells, PMNs and macrophages
humoral-mediated immunity
223
activates t cells, b cells and nk cells and induces a fever
IL-1
224
destroys tumor cells
TNF alpha
225
produced by activated t cells and nk cells
INF-gamma
226
glycoproteins found in small amounts in normal serum but elevated in certain types of cancers used to screen for cancer but more commonly are used to monitored therapeutic response or to determine tumor burden
tumor markers
227
used in management of gastrointestinal tumors (colon cancers) and adenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, liver and lungs can also be found in inflammatory bowel disease, ulcerative colitis, crohn disease, polyps tumors of the GI tract, and cigarette smokers
carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
228
produced during embryonic and fetal development high in patients with hepatocellular carcinoma, hepatoblastoma, testicular and ovarian cancer can also be elevated in viral hepatitis, cirrhosis and ulcerative chelitis temporary marker for monitoring cancer therapy
alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
229
composed of two subunits: alpha and beta found in serum and urine during pregnancy may be produced by neoplastic cells of testicular cancer and various other tumors levels are useful in evaluating patients with gestational trophoblastic disease, testicular tumors and ovarian germ cell tumors
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
230
glycoprotein that dissolves seminal gel formed after ejaculation normal prostate tissue contains this but it is present in extremely low amounts in blood increased in prostrate cancer, benign prostatic hypertrophy, and acute or chronic prostatitis levels correlate with prostrate size, stage of prostate cancer and response to treatment used to screen for prostate cancer in conjunction with a digital rectal examination
prostate specific antigen (PSA)
231
antigen-antibody interactions: positively charged portions of one molecule are attracted to negatively charged portions of another molecule affected by the pH and ionic strength of the environment increases as the two molecules get closer together
electrostatic force or ionic bonding
232
antigen-antibody interactions: binds to an electronegative atom such as oxygen or nitrogen weak bond, but it contributes greatly to the antigen-antibody interaction maximum binding strength occurs below 37degC
hydrogen bonding
233
antigen-antibody interactions: attraction between non polar groups non polar groups tend to aggregate to reduce surface area, and this increased the strength of the bond
hydrophobic bonding
234
antigen-antibody interactions: a weak, attractive force between an electron orbital of one atom and the nucleus of another atom
van der waals force
235
antigen-antibody interactions: strength of interaction between an antibody binding site and a single epitope
affinity
236
antigen-antibody interactions: describes whether the antigen-antibody complex is highly complementary, and therefore would not bind readily
affinity constant
237
antigen-antibody interactions: affinity for multivalent antigens and multiple antibodies to combine; the extent of bindings capacity greater than the cumulative affinity constants for all antigen-antibody pairs
avidity
238
antigen-antibody interactions: antibody's greatest affinity for a particular antigen
specificity
239
antigen-antibody interactions: occurs when the antibody combines with an antigen that is structurally similar to the immunogen that stimulated the antibody production or the antigen that the antibody has the greatest affinity
cross reactivity
240
assays involving antibody-antigen reactions
immunoassays
241
soluble antigen and soluble antibody reacts to form an insoluble product, such as gel diffusion, radial immunodiffusion, immunoelectrophoresis, immunofixation, nephelometry and turbidity
precipitation reaction
242
soluble antibody reacts with insoluble antigen or soluble antigen reacts with insoluble antibody; reactants are made insoluble by combining with latex particles, rbcs, dyes, liposomes
agglutination
243
antigen-antibody interactions: a label producing a measurable end product is attached to an antibody or antigen; labels include fluorochromes, enzymes, chemiluminescent molecules, and radionuclides
labeled reaction
244
precipitation reactions: maximum precipitation occurs when the concentration of the antigen and antibody are about equal
zone of equivalence
245
precipitation reactions: occurs when excess amount of antibody is present, and the antigen and antibody do not combine to form precipitates - the complexes remain soluble; results in a false negative result
prozone
246
precipitation reactions: occurs when excess amount of antigen is present, and the antigen and antibody do not combine to form precipitates - the complexes remain soluble; results in a false negative result
postzone
247
types of precipitation reactions: passive diffusion of soluble antigen and antibody
fluid-phase precipitation
248
measurement of light transmitted through a suspension of particles; formation of immune complexes decreases the amount of light passing through a suspension the more immune complexes are formed, and the larger they are, the greater the decrease in light able to pass through
turbidimetry
249
direct measure of light scattered by particles suspended in solution scattering of light is proportional to the size and the amount of immune complexes formed
nephelometry
250
types of precipitation reactions: antigen and antibody diffuse through the agar gel and precipitate when they reach the zone of equivalence; molecular size determines the speed of travel through the gel
precipitation reactions in agar gel
251
types of precipitation reactions: antigen and antibody are placed in wells in the gel and diffuse towards each other, when optimum concentrations are met, a precipitate line forms can be used to determine if a specific antibody is present in serum
double immunodiffusion (oachterlon) technique
252
types of precipitation reactions: on an agar gel plate or slide, antigen is added to one well, and antibody is added to another well an electric current accelerates the movement of the antigen and antibody toward each other, resulting in precipitation sooner than if an electric current is not applied can be used to detect antibody to infectious agents and microbrial antigens
contercurrent immunoelectrophoresis
253
serum urine, or CSF, is electrophoresed antisera contained in a cellulose acetate strip are then placed on top of the electrophoresis gel the antibodies diffuse into the electrophoresis detects the presence of an immunoglobulin in serum or urine
immunofixation electrophoresis
254
used to quantify antigens antigens are electrophoresed in agar-containing antibody a pH is selected so that the antibodies are immobile antibody and antigen combine to form precipitates in the shape of a rocket height is proportional to the concentration of antigen in the specimen
rocket immunoelectrophoresis
255
occurs when particles in suspension clump together due to antibody-antigen interaction uses an antigen or antibody attached to a particle (insoluble)
agglutination
256
antibodies that participate in agglutination reaction
IgM IgG
257
this method uses antigens naturally occurring on a particle to demonstrate agglutination
direct agglutination
258
naturally occurring process in which in virus will agglutinate RBCs by binding to surface receptors
viral agglutination
259
technique in which soluble antigen is attached to a particle, producing agglutination with specific soluble antibody
passive agglutination
260
a technique in which an antibody is attached to a particle, producing agglutination with a specific soluble (antigen)
reverse passive agglutination
261
sometimes used to detect antibody in patient sera serum is mixed with a specific known antigen if antibody to the antigen is present, immune complexes forms complement is added, and if an immune complex is present, it will bind the complement detect antibodies to viruses, rickettsia, and fungi
complement fixation assays
262
antibodies labeled with fluorescent dye are used to detect an antibody or antigen
immunofluorescence
263
conjugated reagent antibody reacts with an antigen in a clinical sample to form an antigen-antibody complex
direct immunofluorescence
264
antigen reacts with unlabeled antibody forming an antigen-antibody complex that is then complexed with a labeled antihuman antibody, creating an antibody, antigen, antibody sandwich
indirect immunofluorescent assay
265
this is an indirect assay in which the detection system is modified by using biotin-labeled antibody followed by avidin-labeled fluorochrome
biotin-avidin-immunofluorescence
266
antibodies to nuclear antigens are present in many systemic autoimmune diseases, such as SLE, mixed connective tissue disease, rheumatoid arthritis
antinuclear antibodies
267
enzyme-labeled reagents are used to detect antigens or antibodies colorless substrate is metabolized by the enzyme into a colored compound the intensity of the color is directly proportional to the amount of enzyme present
enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA)
268
cellular assays: enumeration of t cells is important in assessing immune response monoclonal antibodies are used in conjunction with flow cytometry to identify cell markers such as CD1, CD2, CD3, CD4
T cell subsets
269
cellular assays: classical test for labeled antibody to surface membrane immunoglobulin; monoclonal antibodies are now used in conjunction with flow cytometry to identify CD19, CD20
b cell subsets
270
cellular assays: NK cells, macrophages, neutrophils
CD16
271
cellular assays: immature cells
CD34
272
cellular assays: B cells, monocytes, myeloid cells, and erythroid precursors
HLA-DR
273
cellular assays: erythroid cells
glycophorin A
274
cellular assays: myelomonocytic cells
CD14
275
cellular assays: platelet and megalokaryocytes
CD41
276
causes pharyngitis, pyoderma, puerperal sepsis, and necrotizing fasciitis, scarlet fever
streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci)
277
post-streptococcal sequelae
rheumatic fever glomerulonephritis
278
sx: carditis, chorea, erythema marginatum, polyarthritis, and/or subcutaneous nodules occurs 3-4 weeks after infection m protein of S. pyogenes shares antigen epitopes with proteins found in synovium, heart muscle, and heart valve, suggesting that the damage is from an AI due to molecular mimicry
rheumatic fever
279
sx: proteinuria, hematuria, hypertension, impaired renal function and edema occurs about 10 days after pharyngitis or 15-21 days after a skin infection circulating Ag-Ab complexes are deposited on the GBM, where complement is activated and damage to the membrane results platelet aggregation and fibrin and fibrinogen build up, causing capillary obstruction and impaired renal function
glomerulonephritis
280
hemolysin produced by most beta-hemolytic group A streptococci
streptolysin O
281
a ___ increase in titer between acute and convalescent samples indicates a recent group A infection
fourfold
282
neutralization assay antibodies to streptolysin O prevent hemolysis serial dilutions of patient serum are prepared, the titer is the last tube with no hemolysis
ASO neutralization test
283
latex particles coated with streptolysin O agglutinate when mixed with patient's serum containing ASO antibody
ASO rapid latex agglutination test
284
reference range for ASO rapid latex agglutination test: titers considered indicative of a group A streptococcus for preschool children
> 85
285
reference range for ASO rapid latex agglutination test: titers considered indicative of a group A streptococcus for school-age children
> 170
286
reference range for ASO rapid latex agglutination test: titers considered indicative of a group A streptococcus for adults
> 85
287
screening test produced by wampole laboratories that detects antibodies to five s. pyogenes proteins: DNAse, b hyaluronidase, NADase, streptokinase, and streptolysin O four-fold rise in titer between acute and convalescent sera is indicative of an infection passive hemagglutination assay
streptozyme
288
antibody peaks at 4-6 weeks after group A streptococcal infection and lasts for moths latex agglutination or immunonephelometry
anti-DNAse B test
289
causative agent of syphilis
treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum
290
MOT of syphilis
direct contact across the placenta
291
painless, non-bleeding ulcer of syphilis
chancre
292
initial lesion is chancre, 1 week later, lymph nodes enlarge antibodies are produced 1-4 weeks after darkfield analysis of lesion demonstrates spirochetes
primary syphilis
293
symptoms include skin rash, low-grade fever, malaise, pharyngitis, weight loss, arthralgia, and lymphadenopathy, and las 4-6 weeks spirochetes are present throughout the body ulcers develop on mucous membranes serologic tests are positive
secondary syphilis
294
stage of syphilis with no signs or symptoms non treponemal and treponemal serologic tests are positive
latency
295
one in four individuals relapses into secondary syphilis
early latency
296
patient is resistant to reinfection and to relapses
late latency
297
symptoms occur 2-40 years after initial infection gummas found throughout the body syphilitic aortitis, aortic valve insufficiency and thoracic aneurysm are possible neurosyphilis can cause blindness and senility
tertiary syphilis
298
syphilis lesions due to hypersensitivity reaction to treponemal antigens
gummas
299
infection of the fetus causes late abortion, still birth, neonatal death, neonatal disease or latent infection presents in the neonates as diffuse maculopapular desquamatous rash (perioral, palmar or sole area), hemolytic anemia, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, abnormal cartilage, and bone involvement and mental retardation
congenital syphilis
300