Immunopathology IV + CPC Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

Name the X linked immunodeficiency syndromes

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Hyper-IgM syndrome
Severe combined immunodeficiency
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

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2
Q

Name the autosomal dominant primary immunodeficiency syndromes

A

C1 inhibitor deficiency

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3
Q

Name the recessive immunodeficiency syndromes

A

DiGeorge syndrome

SCIDS

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4
Q

Describe the pathology of X-linked agammaglobulinemia

A

Failure of B cell precursors to develop into mature B cells

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5
Q

What is mutated in X-linked agammaglobulinemia?

A

Mutations in bruton tyrosine kinase gene which is required for signal transduction for Ig light chain rearrangement

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6
Q

What kinds of infections will you see with X-linked agammaglobulinemia?

A

Recurrent bacterial infections
Enteroviral encephalitis
Giardia

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7
Q

What are the symptoms of x linked agammaglobulinemia?

A

Absent B Cells
Decreased serum immunoglobulin
Normal marrow B cell precursors
Normal T-cell mediated reactions

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8
Q

What is common variable immunodeficiency?

A

Characterized by hypogammaglobulinemia

Normal B cell count, but unable to differentiate into plasma cells

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9
Q

What is isolated IgA deficiency

A

Low levels of serum and secretory IgA

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10
Q

What are the complications arising form isolated IgA deficiency?

A

causing increased risk of respiratory and gastrointestinal disorders
anaphylactic transfusion reaction

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11
Q

What is the cause of hyper IgM syndrome?

A

Defect in ability of helper T cells to deliver activating signals to B cells

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12
Q

What would you observe in a hyper IgM syndrome?

A

Lots of IgM antibodies but deficiency of IgG, IgA, and IgE. etc.

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13
Q

Is Hyper IgM linked?

A

The majority of hyper IgM cases are X linked

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14
Q

How do you treat humor immunodeficiency syndromes?

A

With IvIg

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15
Q

What is DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Failure of development of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches during embryogenesis which causes thymic hypoplasia and loss of T cell immunity

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16
Q

Where is the deletion for DiGeorge Syndrome?

A

22q11 deletion

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17
Q

What infections are associated with T cell defects?

A

Bacterial sepsis
CMV, epstein barr, severe chicken pox
chronic respiratory/intestinal infection
Candida

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18
Q

What do you observe in severe combined immunodeficiency?

A

Low T cells and also low B cells with hypogammaglobulinemia. Prevents differentiation of stem cells into lymphocytes

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19
Q

What causes SCID?

A

cytokine receptor deficiency (impacts T cell development and is X-linked)
OR
ADA deficiency impacts immature lymphocytes (autosomal recessive)

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20
Q

How do you test for the presence of autoimmune disorders?

A

Isohemmagglutinin testing. These isohemagglutinins cross react with A or B

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21
Q

What is Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

A

X linked recessive disorder causing low IgM, normal IgG, elevated IgA and IgE
Causes thrombocytopenia, eczema and immune deficiency

22
Q

What is the most common type of complement deficiency?

A

C2 deficiency

23
Q

What are the symptoms of C2 deficiency?

A

No increased risk of infection, but there is an increased risk of SLE like autoimmune disease

24
Q

What are the symptoms of a C3 deficiency?

A

Increased risk of bacterial infection

25
What are the symptoms of a C5-9 deficiency?
Increased susceptibility to neisseria
26
What does C1 inhibitor deficiency look like?
Episodic edema of skin and mucosal surfaces due to stressor trauma. Caused by unregulated C1
27
What are secondary causes of immunodeficiency?
``` Chemotherapy Cancer AIDS (infections) Renal disease Diabetes ```
28
What is used to diagnose HIV?
p24 capsid antibodies
29
What are the products yielded by HIV viral protease?
gag and pol
30
When can you detect HIV viremia?
Less than 1 week after primary infection
31
Describe how cells are infected by HIV
gp120 binds CD4 receptor and chemokine co-receptors (CCR5 or CXCR4) on T cells, monocytes, macrophages, or dendritic cells This induces a conformational change in gp41 causing fusion
32
When can seroconversion be detected for HIV?
3-7 weeks after initial infection
33
What feature of HIV prevents antibody binding?
glycan shield
34
Why does a high mutation rate aid in the evasion of host cell defenses?
Small changes to sugars and positions prevent detection
35
Describe the clinical course of HIV
1. Initial infection+virema+CTLs rise 2. Antibody to envelope develops 3. Antibody to p24 develops 4. Cd4 cells decline steadily
36
What are category B HIV infections?
Yeast PID Hairy cell leukemia Shingles
37
What are category C AIDs conditions?
cytomegalovirus toxoplasma pneumocystis kaposi sarcoma
38
What are the highest risk groups for HIV?
male to male sexual contact heterosexual female contact heterosexual male contact IV drug use
39
What does gag part of the HIV chromosome do?
Formation of the capsid protein
40
What does the pol part of the HIV chromosome do?
Reverse transcriptase
41
How would you confirm the presence of amyloid?
Through applying congo red dye stains, which turn green under polarized light
42
The fibrils in primary amyloidosis are composed of:
kappa or gamma light chains
43
The fibers in secondary amyloiosis are composed of:
protein A
44
How does amyloid cause disease?
By crowding out normal tissue elements preventing normal function
45
Where would you find an AB amyloid?
CNS only
46
What is the structure of amyloid?
beta pleated sheets conformation
47
Describe the three main types of amyloid:
AL (light chain): Derived from Ig light chains AA (amyloid-associated): "acute phase" amyloid. Associated with chronic inflammation. AB: Produced from beta amyloid intermediate found in alzheimer's disease.
48
What are other amyloid proteins?
1. Mutant transthyretin. Binds and transports thyroxine and retinol 2. Beta-2 microglobulin in hemodialysis patients
49
What causes deposition of AL type amyloids?
Immunocyte dyscrasias
50
Reactive systemic amyloidosis--what kind of fibrils?
AA protein deposition. associated with chronic inflammation like RA, inflammatory bowel disease, etc.
51
Hemodialysis associated amyloiosis:
Beta-2 microglobulin deposition