Import from Quizlet 872 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the Maricopa County Employee Compensation Plan?

A

Ensure that County employees are paid consistently, equitably, and in a manner that is competitive with the marketplace, so they are motivated to provide excellent service to the residents of Maricopa County.

Compensation Plan B7000

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2
Q

Coaching shall be documented in Blue Team and shall be considered for ____ years prior to the current offense.

A

3 years

GC-17 Attachment A

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3
Q

In reference to employee discipline, how many disciplinary offense categories are there?

A

7

GC-17 Attachment B

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4
Q

Coaching:

A

A non-disciplinary interaction between a supervisor and an employee that supports an individual in achieving specific personal or professional goals by providing training, advice, and guidance in response to a specific situation.

GC-17 Attachment A

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5
Q

Based on the disciplinary matrix, after review and determination by the PSB Commander the use of a non-disciplinary Coaching by a supervisor may be acceptable only for what kind of offense?

A
  1. Category 1, 1st or 2nd offense

2. Category 2, 1st offense

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6
Q

True or False?

A non-exempt, regular status employee shall not be suspended for more than 40 working hours per pay period.

A

True.

GC-17 Attachment A

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7
Q

Demotions may be considered for personnel whose conduct falls in a discipline level which is equivalent to what?

A

80 hours or more suspension

GC-17 Attachment A

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8
Q

When conduct of personnel falls in a discipline range from a suspension to dismissal, _____ hours will be the maximum number of hours an employee shall be suspended during each disciplinary procedure.

A

120 hours

GC-17 Attachment A

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9
Q

Who are the Appointed Employees of Maricopa County (8)?

A
The statutory chief deputies of:
1. Assessor
2. Clerk of Superior Court
3. County Attorney
4. Recorder
5. Sheriff
6. Superintendent of Schools
7. Treasurer
 and or 
(8) any other employee so designated by the Board.

Compensation Plan B7000

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10
Q

Appointing Authority:

A

An elected official, the single administrative or executive head of a department, or the designated representative authorized to act in this capacity.

Compensation Plan B7000
Employee Merit System Rules 1.04

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11
Q

Who are the 4 Maricopa County Boards?

A
  1. Maricopa County Board of Supervisors
  2. Maricopa County Flood Control District Board of Directors
  3. Maricopa County Library District Board of Directors
  4. Maricopa County Stadium District Board of Directors

Compensation Plan B7000
Employee Merit System Rules 1.07

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12
Q

Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA):

A

A federal act that establishes minimum requirements for tracking of employees’ hours worked for purposes of calculating overtime and other pay for full and part-time workers.

Compensation Plan B7000

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13
Q

Hourly Rate:

A

Determined by dividing the employee’s annual salary by 2080 (40 hours x 52 weeks).

Compensation Plan B7000

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14
Q

A specified period of time following the employment of an employee into a budgeted position in the classified service, during which the work performance of the employee is evaluated.

A

Initial Probation Employee

Compensation Plan B7000
Employee Merit System Rules 1.19

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15
Q

What is: The established sets of rules that provide a uniform and equitable system of personnel administration.

A

Merit System Rules

Compensation Plan B7000

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16
Q

The 3 merit systems are…?

A
  1. Maricopa County Employee Merit System Rules
  2. Maricopa County Law Enforcement Officers Merit System Rules
  3. Judicial Merit System Rules

Compensation Plan B7000

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17
Q

Severance Pay:

A

A discretionary payment to a classified or unclassified employee in exchange for a release of all claims which this employee may have against the County.

Compensation Plan B7000

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18
Q

A Temporary Employee must meet one of the following according to Compensation Plan B7000:

A
  1. Work 20 or more hrs/week for up to 19 weeks and less than 20 hrs/week for the remainder of the fiscal year
  2. Work 20 or more hrs/week for less than 20 weeks in a fiscal year
  3. Work less than 20 hrs/week for the entire fiscal year
  4. Is not subject to Social Security coverage

Compensation Plan B7000

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19
Q

In reference to Compensation Plan B7000, who is not covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)? (6)

A
  1. Elected officials and their personal staff
  2. Policy making appointees
  3. Legal advisors
  4. Volunteers
  5. Independent contractors
  6. Prisoners

Compensation Plan B7000

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20
Q

According to Compensation Plan B7000, what 2 entities establish minimum wage?

A
  1. The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA), and
  2. Arizona’s Minimum Wage Act (ARS 23-364a).

Compensation Plan B7000

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21
Q

Who must approve all salaries above the minimum of the range before job offers can be extended ?

A

Employee Compensation

Compensation Plan B7000

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22
Q

What factors are considered when determining the new base pay rate of a demoted employee? (6)

A
  1. Employee’s experience
  2. Base pay rate prior to promotion
  3. Internal equity
  4. Responsibilities of demoted job in relation to current job
  5. Budgeted rate of pay for new position
  6. Other criteria identified as appropriate to the specific situation

Compensation Plan B7000

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23
Q

What is: The Maricopa County Employee Merit System Commission as created by the Resolution.

A

Commission

Employee Merit System Rules 1.09

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24
Q

Director:

A

The Maricopa County Human Resources Director or designee.

Employee Merit System Rules 1.14

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25
Q

Eligible:

A

A person who has met standards based upon the established assessment process for a specific type of job.

Employee Merit System Rules 1.16

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26
Q

Eligible List:

A

An official list of eligibles for a particular job used by the appointing authority for selection for employment in the classified service.

Employee Merit System Rules 1.17

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27
Q

Furlough:

A

Mandatory unpaid leave imposed on classified employees as the result of a budget deficit or shortfall. (May be imposed as an alternative to, or in conjunction with, a Reduction in Force)

Employee Merit System Rules 1.17

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28
Q

Reduction In Force (RIF):

A

The separation of a regular employee from County employment for lack of funds, lack of work, or abolishment of position.

Employee Merit System Rules 1.27

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29
Q

Referral List:

A

List of names and associated employment applications of qualified eligibles referred by the Director to and appointing authority for selection for employment in the classified service.

Employee Merit System Rules 1.28

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30
Q

Resolution:

A

The Maricopa County Resolution of December 22, 1969 that established the Maricopa County Employee Merit System effective January 1, 1970 and all subsequent amendments.

Employee Merit System Rules 1.30

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31
Q

What is the purpose of the Employee Merit System Rules?

A

To implement the requirements of the Resolution which establishes a system of personnel administration based on merit principles.

Employee Merit System Rules 2.01

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32
Q

Service of Notice:

A

According to the Merit System, how should any paper or document notice be served to the addressee?

  1. In person
  2. By certified mail to the last known residence or business address

Employee Merit System Rules 2.03

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33
Q

The Commission shall hold meetings in accordance with what?

A
  1. Arizona Open Meeting Act (ARS38-431)
  2. The Resolution

Employee Merit System Rules 3.01

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34
Q

The announcement of recruitments shall specify what information:

A
  1. Title of the position
  2. Pay information
  3. Essential job tasks (or where this info may be obtained)
  4. Position qualifications
  5. Final date for receipt of applications (or statement of continuous recruitment)
  6. Selection procedures
  7. How and where to apply

Employee Merit System Rules 4.01

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35
Q

The duration of job announcements shall be established by who?

A

The appointing authority, in consultation with the Director.

Employee Merit System Rules 4.01

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36
Q

List reasons for disqualifying applicants.

A
  1. Do not meet minimum qualifications
  2. Are addicted to narcotics/intoxicants
  3. Made a false statement of material fact in application process
  4. Used, or attempted to use, political pressure/bribery to secure an advantage
  5. Directly/indirectly obtained info regarding confidential assessment materials to which they were not entitled
  6. Failed to submit completed application correctly/within the prescribed time
  7. Took part in the compilation, administration, or any part of the selection process
  8. Previously dismissed from County for disciplinary reasons
  9. Convicted of a felony
  10. Convicted of crime involving narcotic or drugs
  11. Charged/under indictment for any crime which upon conviction would cause denial of eligibility under this rule
  12. Expiration of eligible list
  13. Failed to respond to correspondence, appear for scheduled assessment/interview, failed any phase of the selection process
  14. Indicated that they are no longer interested in the position/no longer available for selection
  15. Refused/rejected a job offer for specific position
  16. Abolishment of the eligible list
  17. Otherwise violated the provisions of the Resolution or these Rules

Employee Merit System Rules 4.03

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37
Q

All applicants will be assessed for a job position using one or any combination of the following (5):

A
  1. Written examination
  2. Oral board
  3. Demonstration/performance assessment
  4. Evaluation of experience, training, education, and/or skills
  5. Other objective and job-related methods of assessment

Employee Merit System Rules 4.04

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38
Q

When an oral board is used, the process shall be conducted, and applicants evaluated by whom?

A

A panel of two or more qualified, impartial individuals, as determined by the Director.

Employee Merit System Rules 4.04

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39
Q

True or False?
At the discretion of the Director, assessments; which include but are not limited to: multiple choice examinations, typing test or other scored performance assessments, may be retaken or repeated within reasonable limits of scheduling.

A

True

Employee Merit System Rules 4.07

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40
Q

True or False?
Candidates for a job position may compare their answer sheet for any multiple choice examination with the scoring key for the purpose of determining whether their answers have been accurately scored.

A

True

Employee Merit System Rules 4.08

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41
Q

In order to inspect a multiple choice answer sheet examination, a candidate must request the inspection in writing to the Director within _____ calendar days of the notification of results.

A

7 calendar days

Employee Merit System Rules 4.08

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42
Q

In the event of an evaluation error during a job examination, the error will be corrected if brought to the attention of the ___________ within 7 calendar days of notification of an evaluation rating to an applicant.

A

Director

Employee Merit System Rules 4.10

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43
Q

Who can receive preference points?

A

A candidate who is not a current employee and attains a passing score on a numerically scored assessment process.

Employee Merit System Rules 4.13

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44
Q

Who shall be responsible for the establishment and maintenance of eligible lists?

A

The Director

Employee Merit System Rules 5.01

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45
Q

At the conclusion of an assessment process, the Director shall do what with the names of the candidates? (3)

A
  1. Prepare a list of eligible candidates, or
  2. Merge the names of new eligibles with those on an existing list
  3. Determine the order in which candidates are placed on an eligible list

Employee Merit System Rules 5.02

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46
Q

With the approval of the Director, an appointing authority may abolish an eligible list at any time in the event of what (5)?

A
  1. Elimination of the position
  2. New assessment process
  3. Changes to position duties or requirements
  4. Cancellation of a recruitment process
  5. Whenever an existing eligible list has ceased to meet the needs of the appointing authority

Employee Merit System Rules 5.04

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47
Q

Only eligibles that have been placed on a referral list by __________ are authorized to participate in the selection process for a position.

A

the Director

Employee Merit System Rules 6.01

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48
Q

The life of a referral list should not exceed ______ calendar days from the date of issue, unless extended by the Director.

A

90 calendar days

Employee Merit System Rules 6.03

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49
Q

The initial probation period shall be a minimum of _____ months.

A

12 months

Employee Merit System Rules 7.01

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50
Q

The initial probation period may be extended for up to ______ additional months.

A

6 additional months

Employee Merit System Rules 7.01

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51
Q

An initial probationary employee has appeal rights under Employee Merit System Rules.

A

False.
An initial probationary employee does NOT have appeal rights under these Employee Merit System Rules.

Employee Merit System Rules 7.01

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52
Q

In reference to separations and disciplinary actions, the appointing authority may do what to an employee?

A
  1. Suspend
  2. Involuntarily demote
  3. Dismiss

Employee Merit System Rules 9.03

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53
Q

Before the appointing authority may suspend, involuntarily demote, or dismiss a regular employee, they must provide the employee with a written statement indicating what?

A
  1. The action proposed to be taken,
  2. The policies/procedures, or rules violated,
  3. The specific reasons for the action
    (in sufficient detail to apprise the employee of the factual circumstances which justify the proposed action.)

Employee Merit System Rules 9.03

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54
Q

True or False?
In reference to separations and disciplinary actions, the appointing authority shall include in the statement to the employee a notice of the employee’s right to present reasons why the action should not be taken at a meeting with the appointing authority.

A

True

Employee Merit System Rules 9.03

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55
Q

Unless formal discipline is abandoned, the written notice of the final decision shall state that the employee has a right to appeal in writing to the Commission with in _____ calendar days from the date of personal delivery or certified mailing of the final decision.

A

10 calendar days

Employee Merit System Rules 9.03

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56
Q

True or False?
An initial probationary employee may be suspended, demoted or dismissed at any time with or without cause with the right of appeal.
False.

A

False.
An initial probationary employee does NOT have the right of appeal.

Employee Merit System Rules 9.04

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57
Q

A regular employee who desires to resign or retire from county service is expected to submit a written notice at least _____ calendar days prior to the effective date of the resignation or retirement.

A

14 calendar days

Employee Merit System Rules 9.05

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58
Q

What may a regular employee appeal to the Commission?

A
  1. Suspension
  2. Involuntary demotion
  3. Dismissal

Employee Merit System Rules 10.01

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59
Q

An employee appeal shall be in writing and include what information?

A
  1. Facts about the Appeal
  2. The Requested Action
  3. The Identities of all Persons/Departments Involved

Employee Merit System Rules 10.02

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60
Q

An employee appeal may be assigned by the Commission or its chairperson to whom?

A

A hearing officer

Employee Merit System Rules 10.04

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61
Q

The Commission shall set a date for an employee appeal hearing when?

A

Within 20 calendar days from the filing of the appeal.

Employee Merit System Rules 10.05

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62
Q

In reference to an employee appeal, written notice of the time, date, place of the initial hearing and the name of the hearing officer; if any, shall be served by the Director on the appellant when?

A

At least 7 days before the date of the hearing.

Employee Merit System Rules 10.06

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63
Q

A copy of the proposed findings and conclusions of the employee appeal shall be filed by the hearing Officer within _____ calendar days of the case being submitted for decision.

A

35 calendar days.

Employee Merit System Rules 10.12

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64
Q

What standards of character are essential? (HIIC)

A
  1. Honesty
  2. Integrity
  3. Impartiality
  4. Conduct

Employee Merit System Rules 11.01

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65
Q

According to the Employee Merit System Resolution, there shall be a Commission of _____ members appointed by the Board with the powers and duties listed in the Resolution.

A

5 members

Employee Merit System Resolution Section 8.B

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66
Q

A member of the Commission may be removed for what reasons?

A
  1. Absence from 3 consecutive regular meetings without being excused
  2. Becoming a candidate for any elective public office
  3. Accepting any appointive office or employment in the service of the state, county, city, or town

Employee Merit System Resolution Section 9.C

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67
Q

According to the Employee Merit System Resolution, how many meetings will the Commission hold each year?

A

At least 4

Employee Merit System Resolution Section 9.D

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68
Q

According to the Employee Merit System Resolution, what are the duties of the Director? (7)

A
  1. Attend meetings, act as secretary, and keep minutes
  2. Establish/maintain a roster of all employees
  3. Appoint employees to carry out the provisions of the Resolution
  4. Develop programs for the improvement of employee effectiveness
  5. Review the operation/effect of the Resolution and Rules and report findings
  6. Perform other lawful acts considered necessary
  7. Make annual reports to the Board and Commission

Employee Merit System Resolution Section 11.B

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69
Q

According to the Employee Merit System Resolution, what are the reasons that the appointing authority can discipline, suspend, demote, or dismiss a regular employee?

A
  1. Fraud in securing/maintaining employment
  2. Incompetency
  3. Inefficiency
  4. Abuse of leave
  5. Neglect of duty
  6. Insubordination
  7. Dishonesty
  8. Possessing, dispensing, or being under the influence of alcohol/drugs
  9. Violation of authorized policy
  10. Absence without authorized leave
  11. Charged with a criminal act
  12. Conviction of a criminal act
  13. Discourteous treatment of the public or fellow employees
  14. Improper political activity
  15. Unlawful discrimination
  16. Misuse of government property
  17. Violation of policies/procedures
  18. Violation of the Code of Ethics

Employee Merit System Resolution Section 15.A

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70
Q

What is CP-1?

A

Use of Force Critical Policy

CP-1

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71
Q

What is the purpose of CP-1 Use of Force?

A

To provide employees with guidelines on the authorized use of force or control that objectively reasonable employees would apply in the performance of their lawful duties.

CP-1

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72
Q

Blue Team:

A

The Early Identification System (EIS) application that allows employees and supervisors to record information in a database regarding incidents, performance, and conduct.

CP-1, GH-5

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73
Q

Detention Planned Use of Force:

A

An incident involving an inmate who is not posing an immediate threat to officers, staff, or other inmates, where force must be used to protect the inmate involved or allow Correctional Health Services (CHS) staff to administer involuntary psychotropic medications.

CP-1

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74
Q

Early Identification System (EIS):

A

A system of electronic databases that capture and store threshold events to help support and improve employee performance through early intervention and/or to identify Office operating procedures that need evaluation. (EX: Blue Team)

CP-1

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75
Q

What factors should detention staff take into consideration when deciding to use force (4)?

A
  1. The threat as reasonably perceived by the employee
  2. The extent of the threat to safety of staff and inmates
  3. The relationship between the need and the amount of force used
  4. The amount of injury that the use of force may cause the inmate and other involved parties

CP-1 Section 2.B

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76
Q

Who shall Detention staff consult with before executing a planned use of force?

A

Correctional Health Services (CHS) mental health staff

CP-1 Section 2.C

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77
Q

May mental health or CHS staff speak to the inmate prior to a planned use of force?

A

to a planned use of force?
Yes, if it is safe to do so.

CP-1 Section 2.C

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78
Q

What are the elements of force?

A
  1. Ability
  2. Opportunity
  3. Jeopardy
  4. Preclusion

CP-1 Section 3.A

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79
Q

In reference to the elements of force, what does ‘ablility’ mean?

A

The subject’s physical or mental power to carry out an act.

CP-1 Section 3.A1

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80
Q

In reference to the elements of force, what does ‘opportunity’ mean?

A

The subject’s chance to carry out an act.

CP-1 Section 3.A2

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81
Q

In reference to the elements of force, what does ‘jeopardy’ mean?

A

The danger to the employee, others, or property, if the subject acts.

CP-1 Section 3.A3

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82
Q

In reference to the elements of force, what does ‘preclusion’ mean?

A

The consideration of reasonable means of force or tactical redeployment.

  • The type of resistance used by the subject
  • The response options reasonably and readily available to the employee

CP-1 Section 3.A4

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83
Q

What are the 6 types of resistance?

A
  1. Psychological intimidation
  2. Verbal non-compliance
  3. Passive resistance
  4. Active resistance
  5. Active aggression
  6. Aggravated active aggression

CP-1 Section 4

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84
Q

What is psychological intimidation?

A

Non-verbal cues indicating a subject’s attitude, appearance, and physical readiness.

CP-1 Section 4.A

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85
Q

What is passive resistance?

A

Physical actions that do not prevent an employee’s attempt of control.
EX: a protester going limp and having to be carried away

CP-1 Section 4.C

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86
Q

What is active resistance?

A

Physical actions which attempt to prevent an employee’s control, but never attempt to harm the employee.
EX: a subject tightening up or attempting to pull away

CP-1 Section 4.D

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87
Q

What is active aggression?

A

Physical actions of assault.
EX: a subject displaying threatening behavior

CP-1 Section 4.E

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88
Q

What is aggravated active aggression?

A

Physical actions which result in a deadly-force encounter.

CP-1 Section 4.F

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89
Q

What are 5 Response and Control Options an employee

may use in an attempt to control a subject?

A
  1. Employee’s presence
  2. Verbal direction
  3. Empty-hand control and restraint devices
  4. Intermediate weapons and control
  5. Deadly force

CP-1 Section 5

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90
Q

Define Soft, Empty-Hand Control:

A

Techniques that have minimal chance of causing injury.

CP-1 Section 5.C1

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91
Q

Define Hard, Empty-Hand Control:

A

Techniques that have a probability of causing injury.

CP-1 Section 5.C2

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92
Q

When may an employee use deadly force?

A
  1. To protect him/herself or others from immediate threat of death/serious bodily harm
  2. To prevent the escape of a subject, who may be likely to endanger human life or cause serious injury (probable cause required)

CP-1 Section 5.E

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93
Q

List 9 authorized weapons, equipment, and techniques used within the Sheriff’s Office:

A
  1. Baton
  2. Canine
  3. Carotid Control Technique
  4. Conducted Electrical Weapon (CEW)
  5. Firearms
  6. Oleoresin Capsicum (OC)
  7. PepperBall Launcher
  8. Restraints
  9. Vehicle

CP-1 Section 6

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94
Q

Who is allowed to use batons?

A
  1. Sworn personnel
  2. Qualified Armed Posse (QAP)
  3. Firearms qualified detention personnel

CP-1 Section 6.A

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95
Q

Who is allowed to use the Carotid Control Technique?

A

Sworn officers trained in its use.

CP-1 Section 6.C

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96
Q

True or False?
In regards to use of force, employees should determine whether an individual has sustained any injury and appropriate medical treatment should be obtained when necessary.

A

True.

CP-1 Section 8

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97
Q

When a Use of Force Report is filled out, what else needs to be completed with it?

A

Incident Report

CP-1 Section 9.B

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98
Q

Which Use of Force incidents need to be documented?

A

All incidents above and beyond Soft, Empty-Hand Control.

CP-1 Section 9.A

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99
Q

Where does the Use of Force Report need to be completed?

A

EIS Blue Team application

CP-1 Section 9.D2

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100
Q

What will the Use of Force Report include?

A
  1. IR
  2. Taser download
  3. Evidence impound forms
  4. Pictures
  5. Video of the incident

CP-1 Section 9.D2

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101
Q

What does CISM stand for?

A

Critical Incident Stress Management

CP-1 Section 10

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102
Q

The ________ __________ will be responsible for developing, implementing, and monitoring programs designed to provide training in the use of force and control, defensive tactics, and weapons.

A

Training Division

CP-1 Section 12

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103
Q

What is CP-2?

A

Code of Conduct Critical Policy

CP-2

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104
Q

What is the purpose of CP-2 Code of Conduct?

A

To establish guidelines by which all employees of the Office shall conduct themselves, both on and off duty.

CP-2

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105
Q

Family Member:

A

An employee’s spouse/domestic partner; mother, father, sister, brother, son or daughter, sons and daughters-in-law, parents-in-law, grandparents-in-law, sisters and brothers-in-law, aunts an uncles, grandparents, grandchildren, custodial persons, half-siblings, nieces and nephews, first cousins, and the full spectrum of step relation.

CP-2

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106
Q

Misconduct:

A

Any violation of Office Policy, Procedure, federal, state, or local criminal or civil law, constitutional violations, or administrative rules.

CP-2

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107
Q

Criminal Misconduct:

A

Conduct by an employee that a reasonable and trained supervisor or internal affairs investigator would conclude could result in criminal charges due to the apparent circumstances of the misconduct.

CP-2

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108
Q

Minor Misconduct:

A

Conduct that; if sustained, would result in discipline or corrective action less severe than a suspension.

CP-2

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109
Q

Serious Misconduct:

A

Conduct that; if sustained, would result in discipline of a suspension, demotion, or dismissal.

CP-2

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110
Q

Negligence:

A

Failure to exercise the care a reasonable or prudent person would exercise in similar circumstances.

CP-2

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111
Q

Undue Familiarity:

A

Conduct that includes any act of a sexual nature with an offender who is in the custody of the state department of corrections, the department of juvenile corrections, a private prison facility, a juvenile detention facility, a city/county jail, or with an offender who is under the supervision of either department, a city or county.

CP-2

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112
Q

The Office requires absolute __________ from every applicant in securing employment and from every employee.

A

Truthfulness

CP-2 Section 1; CP-5 Truthfulness

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113
Q

Any employee who observes or becomes aware of any act of misconduct by another employee shall do what?

A

Report the incident to a supervisor, PSB, or any outside entity authorized to take corrective action.

CP-2 Section 7.A

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114
Q

True or False?

Failure to report an act of misconduct shall not be considered misconduct and will not result in disciplinary action.

A

False.
Failure to report an act of misconduct shall be considered misconduct and may result in disciplinary action, up to and including dismissal.

CP-2 Section 7.A

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115
Q

Employees shall not demean persons or act disparagingly against any individual regardless of what? (11)

A
  1. Age
  2. Nationality
  3. Religious beliefs
  4. Race
  5. Gender
  6. Culture
  7. Sexual orientation
  8. Gender identity
  9. Veteran status
  10. Ancestry
  11. Disability

CP-2 Section 9.D

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116
Q

Employees shall not operate any Maricopa County vehicle within _____ hours after consuming any alcoholic beverages.

A

8 hours

CP-2 Section 11.E

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117
Q

On and off-duty employees shall not display or wear any recognizable item of Office apparel where?

A

A public place/establishment where the primary purpose is to sell or serve alcoholic beverages.

CP-2 Section 11.F

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118
Q

Employees are prohibited from using their official position, identification cards, or badges for any of the following (4):

A
  1. Personal/financial gain directly related to Office duties
  2. Obtaining privileges not otherwise available to them or others
  3. Avoiding consequences of illegal acts, or helping family member avoid the consequences of illegal acts
  4. Misrepresenting their position or authority in the Office

CP-2 Section 15.A

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119
Q

True or False?

Employees may convey written or oral messages between inmates.

A

False.
Employees shall NOT convey written or oral messages between inmates, except those which are necessary in the operation of the facility.

CP-2 Section 25.C

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120
Q

Employees who feel they are unable to stay awake on duty have the responsibility to notify who?

A

Their immediate supervisor

CP-2 Section 32.B

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121
Q

What is CP-3?

A

Workplace Professionalism: Discrimination and Harassment Critical Policy

CP-3

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122
Q

What is the purpose of CP-3 Workplace Professionalism?

A

To establish procedures for preventing, reporting, investigating, and resolving allegations of unlawful discrimination, harassment, and retaliation.

CP-3

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123
Q

Allegation:

A

A claim that an employee has been subjected to unlawful or wrongful conduct.

CP-3

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124
Q

Discrimination:

A

Different Treatment in the terms, conditions, and privileges of employment because of an individual’s protected characteristic.

CP-3

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125
Q

What is: Unwelcome sexual advances, request for sexual favors, and other conduct of a sexual nature, or treatment of an individual based on a protected characteristic that is not welcome, that is offensive, that interferes with work effectiveness or that creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment.

A

Harassment

CP-3

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126
Q

Notice of Investigation (NOI):

A

A written notice given to an employee during an administrative investigation which identifies the employee’s status in the investigation.

CP-3

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127
Q

What is included in a Notice of Investigation (NOI)? (4)

A
  1. Employee’s status in the investigation
  2. Employee’s responsibility not to discuss the investigation
  3. The name and rank of the assigned investigators
  4. Notice of the employee’s right to have an observer present at the interview

CP-3

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128
Q

Protected Activity:

A

An employee’s good faith expressed opposition to an employer’s practice that he reasonably believes to be discrimination.

CP-3

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129
Q

Protected Characteristic (10-RGRCNADPVG):

A

All characteristics covered by applicable federal or state laws including, but not limited to:

  • Race
  • Gender
  • Religion
  • Color
  • National Origin
  • Age
  • Disability
  • Pregnancy
  • Veteran Status
  • Genetic Information

CP-3

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130
Q

Any employee who requires an accommodation in order to perform the essential functions of the job shall request the accommodation from who?

A

Leave Management Section (LMS)

CP-3 Section 2.A

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131
Q

Entering into a romantic relationship, or having any form of sexual interaction is expressly prohibited between an employee and who?

A

Their supervisor.

CP-3 Section 3.A

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132
Q

True or False?
An employee is required to directly confront the offender who is alleged to have engaged in unlawful or wrongful conduct.

A

False.
An employee is NOT required to directly confront the offender who is alleged to have engaged in unlawful or wrongful conduct.

CP-3 Section 5.C

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133
Q

In reference to unlawful or wrongful conduct; if the alleged offender is the supervisor, the employee shall report the matter to whom?

A
  1. The next higher level of the chain of command
  2. Support Services Bureau Chief, or
  3. PSB

CP-3 Section 5.C2

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134
Q

In reference to an allegation of unlawful or wrongful conduct, once PSB has been notified of the allegation what do they do? (4)

A
  1. Issue and log an IA case number
  2. Enter the complaint information into IA Pro
  3. Notify the respective bureau chief
  4. Prepare Attachment B, if not already prepared

CP-3 Section 5.C2

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135
Q

In reference to an allegation of unlawful or wrongful conduct, employees are encouraged to use Attachment A. What should Attachment A include? (6)

A
  1. Description of the incident
  2. Details of the incident-dates and times
  3. Names of individuals involved
  4. Names of any witnesses
  5. Direct quotes when relevant
  6. Documentary evidence
    - EX: notes, e-mails, text messages, photos, voice mail recordings

CP-3 Section 5.C3

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136
Q

Who decides if an investigation into the complaint of unlawful or wrongful conduct of an employee should be initiated?

A

The PSB Commander

CP-3 Section 5.D

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137
Q

Who determines if an employee; who is alleged to have engaged in unlawful or wrongful conduct, should be placed on administrative leave with pay?

A

The PSB Commander or his designee.

CP-3 Section 5.D

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138
Q

What is CP-4?

A

Emergency and Pursuit Driving Critical Policy

CP-4

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139
Q

What is: Part of the Bureau of Internal Oversight; responsible for the implementation, maintenance, and operation of the Early Identification System (EIS) and for providing training and assistance to the EIS users.

A

Early Intervention Unit (EIU)

CP-4

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140
Q

What is CP-5?

A

Truthfulness Critical Policy

CP-5

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141
Q

What is the purpose of CP-5 Truthfulness?

A

To establish the mandatory regulations to which all Maricopa County Sheriff’s Office employees must strictly adhere with regard to truthfulness and personal integrity.

CP-5

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142
Q

True or False?

The requirement for absolute truthfulness is limited to on-duty conduct and communications.

A

False.
The requirement for absolute truthfulness is NOT LIMITED TO ON-DUTY conduct and communications.

CP-5

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143
Q

Exculpatory:

A

That which is likely to prove the innocence of a person.

CP-5

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144
Q

Impeach:

A

To call into question a person’s good character.

CP-5

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145
Q

Integrity:

A

Uncompromising adherence to moral and ethical principles; honesty.

CP-5

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146
Q

Who are the exceptions when it comes to CP-5 Truthfulness?

A
  1. An internal affairs investigator
  2. A criminal investigator
  3. A polygraph examiner
    While gathering information or evidence during an ongoing investigation

CP-5 Section 2

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147
Q

In cases where the alleged misconduct involves a violation of the Truthfulness Policy, who may initiate an administrative investigation?

A
  1. PSB Deputy Chief or his designee
  2. Chief Deputy

CP-5 Section 3

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148
Q

What is CP-6?

A

Bloodborne Pathogens Critical Policy

CP-6

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149
Q

What is the purpose of CP-6 Bloodborne Pathogens?

A

To establish guidelines and procedures that conform to applicable Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines and Arizona Division of Occupational Safety and Health (ADOSH) regulations.

CP-6

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150
Q

What are Bloodborne Pathogens:

A

Microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans.

CP-6

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151
Q

Engineering Controls:

A

Apparatuses that isolate, limit, or remove bloodborne pathogens from the workplace.

CP-6

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152
Q

Exposure Incident:

A

A specific skin, eye, other mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employee’s duties.

CP-6

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153
Q

Gross Contamination:

A

Items that would release blood or other potentially infectious materials in a liquid or semi-liquid state if compressed or items that are caked with dried blood or other potentially infectious materials that are capable of releasing these materials during handling.

CP-6

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154
Q

Non-Intact Skin:

A

Any broken skin such as cuts and abrasions.

CP-6

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155
Q

Occupational Exposure:

A

Reasonably anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials, which may result from the performance of an employee’s duties.

CP-6

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156
Q

List other potentially infectious materials:

A
  1. Saliva in dental procedures or anything that is visibly contaminated with blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or other bodily fluids
  2. Any physically unattached tissue/organ from a living or dead human being
  3. Materials or equipment contaminated with any of the above

CP-6

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157
Q

Parenteral:

A

Piercing of mucous membranes or the skin barrier through such events as needle sticks, human bites, cuts, and abrasions.

CP-6

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158
Q

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE):

A

Specialized clothing or equipment used by an employee to protect himself from exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials.

CP-6

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159
Q

Source Individual:

A

Any person, living or dead, whose blood or other potentially infectious materials may be the origin of occupational exposure to an employee.

CP-6

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160
Q

Universal Precautions:

A

Methods of infection control in which all human blood and certain human bodily fluids are treated as if they are infected with HBV, HCV, HIV, or other bloodborne pathogens.

CP-6

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161
Q

Work Practice Controls:

A

Procedures which reduce the likelihood of exposure by altering the manner in which a task is performed.

CP-6

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162
Q

Transmission of bloodborne pathogens includes, but is not limited to, what?

A
  1. Blood to blood
  2. Blood or other potentially infectious materials to eyes or mucous membranes
  3. Contact with a person’s non-intact skin with the blood or other potentially infectious materials from another person
  4. Piercing the skin with contaminated sharps

CP-6 Section 1

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163
Q

Maricopa County shall provide vaccinations for ______ to all employees identified as working in an area where there is a potential risk for an occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials.

A

HBV

CP-6 Section 2

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164
Q

PPE may include, but is not limited to, what?

A
  1. Disposable gloves
  2. Masks and eye protection
  3. Gowns, aprons, or other protective clothing
  4. Liquid-resistant clothing
  5. Disposable, liquid-proof shoe covers
  6. One-way airway PPE

CP-6 Section 6.B

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165
Q

Only authorized disinfectants supplied by the Office shall be used. A ten percent bleach solution is an authorized surface disinfectant and shall be replaced when?

A

Every 7 to 10 days.

CP-6 Section 8

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166
Q

Contaminated inmate personal property and clothing shall be placed in what?

A

A liquid-proof, red biohazard plastic bag.

CP-6 Section 8.C

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167
Q

An employee who has experienced an exposure incident should obtain medical treatment through whom?

A

A contracted occupational health clinic.

CP-6 Section 14

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168
Q

True or False?
Chlorine bleach or other surface disinfectants should be used to disinfect or decontaminate the skin or other parts of the body.

A

False.
Chlorine bleach or other surface disinfectants should NEVER be used on the skin or other parts of the body.

CP-6 Section 14.A

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169
Q

In reference to an exposure incident, the eyes should be flushed with a large volume of water for at least how long?

A

15 minutes

CP-6 Section 14.A

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170
Q

After an exposure incident, when shall the employee complete a memorandum documenting the incident?

A

Prior to the end of shift.

CP-6 Section 14.B

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171
Q

In the event of an exposure incident, the immediate supervisor shall forward the employee’s memorandum to who?

A
  1. The respective division commander
  2. The Occupational Health Nurse

CP-6 Section 14.B

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172
Q

What needs to be included in the memorandum of an exposure incident?

A
  1. Date, time, and location of the incident
  2. Type of incident/crime under investigation
  3. Specific nature of the exposure incident
  4. Name and serial number of the exposed employee
  5. Name, date of birth, and address/location of the source individual
  6. Names, serial numbers, and assignments of Office employees present during the incident
  7. Other relevant details

CP-6 Section 14.B

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173
Q

What other form does an employee need to complete in the event of an exposure incident?

A

Report of Significant Exposure to Bodily Fluids form

CP-6 Section 14.B2

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174
Q

How long after an exposure incident does the supervisor have to forward a memorandum to the OSD?

A

Within 24 hours of the incident

CP-6

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175
Q

The supervisor’s memorandum detailing the exposure incident shall include what information?

A
  1. Circumstances surrounding the incident
    - names, serial numbers, and assignments of employees present
  2. PPE the employee was wearing or the reason PPE was not worn
  3. Engineering controls in place at the time of incident
  4. Work practices in place at the time of incident
  5. Whether or not the incident could have been avoided
  6. Recommended changes to avoid similar incidents

CP-6 Section 14.B4

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176
Q

Source testing can only be performed with what?

A
  1. Consent of the person to be tested
  2. Issuance of a court order

CP-6 Section 15

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177
Q

Who can make a request for source testing in the event of an exposure incident?

A

Only the employee

CP-6 Section 15

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178
Q

Who may authorize the use of safe bed intervention?

A
  1. Detention commander
  2. CHS staff

DS-2 Section 3

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179
Q

The OSD has what responsibilities? (4)

A
  1. Tracking all verified exposures incidents
  2. Processing source-testing requests
  3. Ensuring that all employees who enter job classifications or work assignments are offered HBV vaccinations
  4. Maintaining a sharps injury log

CP-6 Section 16

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180
Q

What does OSD stand for?

A

Occupational Safety Division

CP-6 Section 15.A

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181
Q

What is CP-7?

A

Airborne Pathogens Critical Policy

CP-7

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182
Q

What is the purpose of CP-7 Airborne Pathogens?

A

To establish guidelines and procedures which; when properly implemented, may safeguard Office employees from airborne pathogens.

CP-7

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183
Q

Airborne Disease:

A

An illness that is spread when droplets of pathogens are expelled into the air.

CP-7

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184
Q

Airborne Pathogens:

A

Microorganisms that may be present in the air and can cause diseases in exposed humans.

CP-7

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185
Q

Casually Transmitted:

A

Any illness capable of being spread from one person to another by merely being in close proximity to the infected individual, without requiring intimate contact.

CP-7

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186
Q

Engineering Control Systems:

A

Apparatuses and procedures that isolate, limit exposure, or remove airborne pathogens from the work place.

CP-7

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187
Q

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis:

A

An airborne pathogen that can cause TB infection, which may lead to active TB disease.

CP-7

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188
Q

What causes TB Infection?

A

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Bacterium

CP-7

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189
Q

What is the difference between TB Infection and Active TB?

A

Active TB: shows symptoms and is infectious to others
TB Infection: no symptoms and not infectious to others

CP-7

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190
Q

What are some of the symptoms of Active TB?

A
  1. Cough that lasts more than 3 weeks and produces sputum and blood
  2. Chest pain
  3. Fever, chills, and night sweats
  4. Easily tired, loss of appetite, and weight loss

CP-7

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191
Q

What are 2 PPE that can be used in the event of airborne pathogens?

A
  1. Respirators
  2. One-way Airway

CP-7 Section 1

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192
Q

What is one of the most commonly used tests for determining TB infection?

A

Mantoux Tuberculin Skin Test (TST)

CP-7 Section 3

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193
Q

Who is responsible for providing baseline TB screening for all newly hired detention personnel and deputies?

A

Occupational Safety Division (OSD)

CP-7 Section 3.A

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194
Q

How often does OSD provide TB testing for Office personnel?

A

Annually

CP-7 Section 3.B

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195
Q

What is the alternative to taking the TB skin test?

A

Chest x-ray

CP-7 Section 3.C

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196
Q

What are some of the most common highly contagious diseases caused by airborne pathogens? (3)

A
  1. Measles
  2. Mumps
  3. Chickenpox

CP-7 Section 6

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197
Q

What does a Blood Titer Test measure?

A

The amount of antibodies in blood which can determine a person’s immunity to a given disease.

CP-7 Section 7

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198
Q

If an employee is sent to the contracted occupational health clinic for Blood Titer Testing, what form does the supervisor need to complete to process the exposure as an industrial illness?

A

Maricopa County Risk Management Online Claim Form

CP-7 Section 7.B

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199
Q

What are the employee’s responsibilities when an occupational exposure to airborne pathogens occurs?

A
  1. Notify the immediate supervisor, ASAP
  2. Seek medical testing to determine exposure
  3. Complete memo regarding the exposure

CP-7 Section 8.B

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200
Q

What are the supervisor’s responsibilities when an occupational exposure to airborne pathogens occurs?

A
  1. Complete memo
  2. Complete the Maricopa County Risk Management Online Claim Form

CP-7 Section 8.C

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201
Q

In the event of an occupational exposure to airborne pathogens, when does a supervisor need to have their memo completed?

A

Within 24 hours of the exposure.

CP-7 Section 8.C

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202
Q

An occupational exposure shall not be reported as a work-related injury or illness, unless certain criteria exists or develops. What are those 4 criteria?

A
  1. Loss of consciousness
  2. Modification of an employee’s job/restriction of work motion
  3. Recommendation of medical treatment beyond first aid
  4. Positive test for airborne disease infection

CP-7 Section 8.E

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203
Q

What is CP-8?

A

Preventing Racial and Other Bias-Based Profiling

CP-8

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204
Q

What is the purpose for CP-8?

A

To establish procedures to ensure deputies are fair and equitable in deciding whether or not to make contact with member of the public and take law enforcement actions.

CP-8

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205
Q

What shall not be motivating factors in any law enforcement action?

A
  1. Race
  2. Ethnic background
  3. Gender
  4. Sexual orientation
  5. Religion
  6. Economic status
  7. Age
  8. Cultural group
  9. National origin

CP-8

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206
Q

What is: The selection of an individual for law enforcement contact or action based to any degree on an actual or perceived trait common to a group, except as part of a reliable and specific suspect description.

A

Bias-Based Profiling:

CP-8

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207
Q

Racial Profiling:

A

The reliance on race or ethnicity to any degree in making law enforcement decisions, except in connection with a reliable and specific suspect description.

CP-8

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208
Q

In reference to CP-8, inmate housing shall be based on what? (3-ASS)

A

Age, Sex, and Security Level.

CP-8 Section 2

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209
Q

According to CP-8, inmates in Office custody shall have equal access to all programs and services based on what criteria (4-SSNP)?

A
  1. Space availability
  2. Security level
  3. Need
  4. Program criteria

CP-8 Section 2

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210
Q

True or False?
Supervisors shall unequivocally and consistently reinforce to subordinates that racial and bias-based profiling and/or discriminatory policing are unacceptable.

A

True.

CP-8 Section 5.B

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211
Q

What is CP-9?

A

Occupational Safety Program

CP-9

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212
Q

What is the purpose of CP-9?

A

To establish a comprehensive Occupational Safety Program which sets forth standards for occupational practices and defines the accountability of all personnel for its effectiveness.

CP-9

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213
Q

What is: A state entity which operates under the Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Act of 1970, and has jurisdiction over occupational safety and health issues within Arizona.

A

Arizona Division of Occupational Safety and Health (ADOSH):

CP-9

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214
Q

What is: Investigation of a potential safety problem, condition, accident, injury, or near miss in order to identify the root cause and to eliminate or minimize its effect in the future.

A

Incident Analysis

CP-9

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215
Q

What is: A federal agency which is responsible for establishing occupational safety and health standards, and ensuring that employees are in compliance with these standards.

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA):

CP-9

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216
Q

What is: An environment where individuals have a shared set of beliefs, practices, and attitudes toward the importance of the welfare of all employees.

A

Safety Culture:

CP-9

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217
Q

Commander:

A

An employee with the rank of lieutenant or above, or its civilian equivalent.

CP-9

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218
Q

First-Line Supervisor:

A

An employee with the rank of sergeant, or its civilian equivalent.

CP-9

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219
Q

The Occupational Safety Program shall consist of what 5 elements?

A
  1. Safety Planning and Goals
  2. Safety Practices
  3. Training
  4. Safety Meetings
  5. Resolution of Safety Concerns

CP-9

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220
Q

What does the Safety Committee assist with?

A

The development and implementation of the Occupational Safety Program.

CP-9 Section 1.A

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221
Q

How often may the OSD meet with division commanders to review safety goals?

A

Annually

CP-9 Section 1.A

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222
Q

Who shall maintain a written record of work area and equipment inspections?

A

Supervisors

CP-9 Section 1.B

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223
Q

According to the Occupational Safety Program, how often shall Supervisors conduct work area and equipment inspections?

A

Monthly

CP-9 Section 1.B

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224
Q

In accordance with the Occupational Safety Program, when shall employees conduct an inspection of their respective work areas and equipment?

A

At the beginning of each shift.

CP-9 Section 1.B

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225
Q

According to the Occupational Safety Program, how often shall Shift Commanders inspect work environment within their area of command?

A

At least on a quarterly basis.

CP-9 Section 1.B

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226
Q

How often shall Division Commanders inspect their areas of command, according to the Occupational Safety Program?

A

Semi-annually

CP-9 Section 1.B

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227
Q

What is CP-10?

A

Respirator Program

CP-10

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228
Q

What is the purpose of CP-10?

A

To establish guidelines for employees to prevent the inhalation of airborne pathogens or chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, or explosive agents and to protect themselves from other inhaled hazards or contaminants in the workplace.

CP-10

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229
Q

What does NIOSH stand for?

A

National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health

CP-10

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230
Q

Chemical Agents:

A

Solid, liquid, or gaseous substances that produce an effect on a living organism by acting on the body tissue, or in an environment by interacting with air, water, and/or soil.

CP-10

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231
Q

What is: The use of a protocol to qualitatively or quantitatively evaluate the fit of a respirator on an individual.

A

Fit Test:

CP-10

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232
Q

Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA):

A

An atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the breathing air source is designed to be carried by the user.

CP-10

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233
Q

What does SCBA stand for?

A

Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus

CP-10

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234
Q

What does CBRNE stand for?

A

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, or Explosive Agents

CP-10

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235
Q

Division commanders shall ensure that Fit Testing is completed at least ___________.

A

Annually

CP-10 Section 3

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236
Q

Employees below the rank of lieutenant are required to demonstrate proper use of the SCBA equipment every ______ days.

A

180 days

CP-10 Section 8.A

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237
Q

If an employee is unable or fails to demonstrate proficiency during Fit Testing, he shall be referred to the Fit Testing Coordinator for remedial testing within ______ days of the initial test.

A

14 days

CP-10 Section 8.B

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238
Q

What does WMD stand for?

A

Weapons of Mass Destruction

CP-10

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239
Q

How often shall SCBAs be inspected?

A

Monthly

CP-10 Section 11.A

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240
Q

Compressed breathing air shall meet at least the requirements for what grade of breathing air?

A

Grade D

CP-10 Section 12

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241
Q

Who shall conduct evaluations of the workplace to ensure that the provisions of the Respirator Program are being implemented and continue to be effective?

A
  1. Program Administrator, or his designee
  2. Fit Testing Coordinator

CP-10 Section 13

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242
Q

What is CP-11?

A

Anti-Retaliation

CP-11

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243
Q

What is the purpose of CP-11?

A

To ensure that members of the public and Office personnel do not experience retaliation for exercising their right to freedom of speech.

CP-11

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244
Q

What is the purpose of DA-1 Emergency Procedures for Jail Facilities?

A

To establish uniform procedures for the development, implementation, distribution, and review of emergency procedures for each jail facility.

DA-1

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245
Q

Who develops the emergency procedures to be included in the operations manual?

A

Jail Commander

DA-1 Section 1

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246
Q

List 8 emergencies that would be included in the emergency procedures.

A
  1. Escapes
  2. Fire
  3. Facility power failure
  4. Hostage situations
  5. Medical disasters
  6. Medical emergencies
  7. Riots or inmate disturbances
  8. Facility evacuation

DA-1 Section 1

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247
Q

Where will the emergency procedures be located in the jail facility?

A

In each control room.

DA-1 Section 3

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248
Q

What is the purpose of DA-2 Inspection and Testing of Emergency Equipment?

A

To establish procedures for the regular inspection and testing of emergency equipment.

DA-2

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249
Q

Who will inspect and test all emergency equipment?

A

Facility Maintenance Officer (FMO)

DA-1 Section 1

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250
Q

What does FMO stand for?

A

Facility Maintenance Officer

DA-1

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251
Q

Other than SCBAs, if repairs are required for emergency equipment who will the FMO contact?

A

County Facilities Management Department

DA-1 Section 3

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252
Q

When will employees visually check the pressure level of fire extinguishers, AEDs, and SCBAs located in their area of responsibility?

A

At the beginning of each shift.

DA-1 Section 4

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253
Q

The FMO shall perform a visual and physical inspection of all jail facility SCBAs how often?

A

Twice a year

DA-1 Section 4.C

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254
Q

How often will SCBAs be mechanically tested for air leaks, internal damages, or other substandard conditions?

A

Annually

DA-2 Section 4.C

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255
Q

How often will hydrostatic testing be conducted for SCBAs?

A

Every 5 years

DA-1 Section 4.C

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256
Q

What is the purpose of DA-4 Jail Maintenance?

A

To establish guidelines for the maintenance, inspection, and emergency repair or replacement of jail equipment or property.

DA-4

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257
Q

What does a supervisor need to do if an officer informs them of equipment in need of repair or replacement?

A

Forward a memo, e-mail, or telephonic message to the FMO.

DA-4 Section 1

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258
Q

Who do the FMOs report to?

A

Jail Commander

DA-4 Section 3

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259
Q

What is the purpose of DA-5 Inmate Suicide Prevention?

A

To provide a comprehensive set of suicide prevention measures and to assist employees in identifying and managing potentially suicidal inmates.

DA-5

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260
Q

Most suicides occur within the first _______ hours of incarceration.

A

48 hours

DA-5 Section 3

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261
Q

List 7 situational factors which may affect inmate suicides.

A
  1. Minor or insignificant arrest history
  2. Juvenile
  3. Persons with high status in the community
  4. Prior suicide by close family member or loved one
  5. Previously imprisoned and facing new serious charges or a long prison term
  6. Prior suicide attempt in a jail setting
  7. Harsh, condemning, or rejecting attitudes of others

DA-5 Section 3

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262
Q

True or False?
Isolation greatly increases the likelihood of suicide; therefore, a potentially suicidal inmate shall never be placed into isolation unless the inmate is constantly supervised.

A

True

DA-5 Section 6

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263
Q

An inmate on suicide watch shall be observed how often?

A

No less than every 15 minutes.

DA-5 Section 7.C

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264
Q

CHS staff may specify what conditions for a suicide watch inmate?

A
  1. How often the inmate is observed
  2. The amount and type of clothing or linens the inmate may have
  3. The amount and type of personal property the inmate may have
  4. Type of meals served
  5. The inmate shall be provided an opportunity to drink water
  6. The expected duration of the suicide watch

DA-5 Section 7.C

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265
Q

How often will a suicide watch inmate be given the opportunity to drink water?

A

At least every 2 hours.

DA-5 Section 7.C

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266
Q

When a suicide attempt has been identified, what shall take precedence over the preservation of a crime scene?

A

The preservation of the life of an inmate.

DA-5 Section 10

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267
Q

What is the purpose of DB-1 Inmate Custody Records and Files?

A

To establish a standardized system for the secure maintenance, transfer, and storage of inmate documents, records, and files.

DB-1

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268
Q

Commitment File:

A

The file containing the inmate’s judicial records pertaining only to charges, holds, or sentencing info.

DB-1

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269
Q

Custody File:

A

The file containing the inmate’s judicial and custodial records. The Custody File consists of two files, the Commitment and Jail Files.

DB-1

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270
Q

What 2 files does the Custody File consist of ?

A
  1. Commitment File
  2. Jail File

DB-1

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271
Q

Full Custody:

A

Continuous custody until the inmate is judicially released on all charges, holds, or sentences.

DB-1

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272
Q

True or False?
Inmates who have been temporarily released into the community and return; such as in the Work Furlough Program, or are serving a work release/weekender sentence are considered full-custody.

A

False.

DB-1

273
Q

Jail File:

A

The file containing the inmate’s custodial records pertaining only to jail-related information.

DB-1

274
Q

When will the inmate’s Custody File be separated into 2 files?

A
  1. A newly booked inmate has completed the intake process
  2. When an inmate’s status changes to full custody

DB-1 Section 2

275
Q

Where will the Commitment File be transferred to?

A

Sheriff’s Information Management Services (SIMS)

DB-1 Section 2

276
Q

Where will the Jail File be sent?

A

To the receiving jail facility.

DB-1 Section 2

277
Q

Jail Files shall only be transferred to where?

A
  1. Another jail facility when the inmate is reassigned for housing
  2. SIMS, upon the inmate’s release
  3. Legal Liaison Section (LLS) upon an inmate’s in-custody or imminent death

DB-1 Section 4

278
Q

When will SIMS combine the Commitment File with the Jail File to reestablish the Custody File?

A

After release of the inmate.

DB-1 Section 5

279
Q

Who will be responsible for ensuring that the Custody Files are maintained and secured after release?

A

Record warehouse personnel.

DB-1 Section 6

280
Q

How long will Custody Files be held at the records warehouse after an inmate’s release?

A

3 years

DB-1 Section 6

281
Q

What is the purpose of DB-2 Operations Journal and Logbooks?

A

To establish guidelines for the use of the electronic Operations Journal (OJ) and Hardbound Logbooks.

DB-2

282
Q

What does OJ stand for?

A

Operations Journal

DB-2

283
Q

If OJ is down for less than ____ hours, all handwritten entries from the Hardbound Logbook shall be transferred into the OJ.

A

24 hours

DB-2 Section 2.A

284
Q

What needs to be done if OJ is down for more than 24 hours?

A

An entry shall be made in OJ indicating the date and time it went down, and that all entries made during the outage can be found in the Hardbound Logbook.

DB-2 Section 2.B

285
Q

In reference to the Hardbound Logbook, what entries are permitted in the left margin?

A

The date and time.

DB-2 Section 3

286
Q

What is the purpose of DB-3 Security and Surveillance Systems?

A

To establish guidelines for the storage and dissemination of electronic storage media using detention security surveillance systems.

DB-3

287
Q

What does CCTV stand for?

A

Closed circuit television

DB-3

288
Q

In reference to Security Surveillance Systems, all media shall be maintained for a time frame that does not exceed the system storage capabilities. What does that generally equate to?

A

Approximately 60 days.

DB-3 Section 1

289
Q

Requests from other law enforcement agencies, or the Maricopa County Attorney’s Office to view security electronic storage media need to be referred to whom?

A

electronic storage media need to be referred to whom?
Legal Liaison Section (LLS)

DB-3 Section 2

290
Q

What is the purpose of DC-1 Inmate Canteen?

A

To establish guidelines for the efficient operation and management of the Inmate Canteen Section.

DC-1

291
Q

What goes into the Special Services Fund?

A

All of Canteen’s net profits.

DC-1

292
Q

What is the Special Services Fund for?

A

To hold all of Canteen’s net profits in trust for the education and welfare of inmates.

DC-1

293
Q

What is the purpose for DC-2 Accountability of Monies & Negotiable Instruments?

A

Establishes guidelines for accepting, handling, safeguarding, and disbursing bond and fine monies and inmate funds.

DC-2

294
Q

True or False?
The Maricopa County Sheriff’s Office accepts inmate account deposits of Cashier’s Checks, US Postal Money Orders, and Western Union Money Orders.

A

False.
The Office has TouchPay, a cashless money system.

DC-2

295
Q

What is the purpose of DC-3 Facility Safes?

A

To establish a system for controlling and recording access to facility safes.

DC-3

296
Q

When accessing a facility safe, how many people need to be there?

A

Two, one of whom must be a supervisor.

DC-3

297
Q

Inmate Funds/Canteen System (IF/CS):

A

A computer information system which links to the Jail Management System (JMS) and is used to record the transactions and maintain the balances of inmate fund accounts.

DC-4

298
Q

What does IF/CS stand for?

A

Inmate Funds/Canteen System

DC-4

299
Q

When may an inmate release money to someone not in custody?

A

Within the first 72 hours of incarceration. (does not include fine payments, posting bonds, canteen purchases etc.)

DC-4

300
Q

A request to pay an inmate’s own bond or fine shall be processed by who?

A

SIMS

DC-4

301
Q

Indigent Inmate:

A

An inmate who has one dollar or less in his inmate funds account for at least seven consecutive days.

DD-1

302
Q

Property Container:

A

An Office issued plastic bag or cardboard box for inmates to store their personal items.

DD-1

303
Q

According to DD-1 Authorized Inmate Possessions, what will a property container include?

A
  1. Bar of soap
  2. Toothbrush
  3. Tube of toothpaste
  4. Comb
  5. Pencil
  6. Copy of the Rules and Regulations for Inmates

DD-1

304
Q

What items are inmates allowed to posses?

A
  1. One mattress
  2. One sheet
  3. One blanket
  4. One pair of shoes
  5. One pair of socks
  6. One pair of underware
  7. One pair of pants
  8. One shirt
  9. One towel
  10. Thermal underware
  11. Purchased canteen items
  12. Religious materials and literature
  13. Contact lenses
  14. Prescription eyeglasses
  15. Prostheses
  16. Hearing aid
  17. 3 books, 5 magazines, & not more than 2 daily newspapers
  18. 5 photographs
  19. Legal documents
  20. 5 pencils
  21. Medical care items
  22. Medical alert bracelets/necklaces
  23. One inmate identification card
  24. One property container
  25. Other hygiene items

DD-1

305
Q

What items may be issued for medical reasons?

A
  1. Extra clothing/bedding
  2. Keep on person medication (KOP)

DD-1

306
Q

What items are issued to Indigent inmates?

A
  1. Up to 5 postcards/week
  2. One pencil/week
  3. One tube of toothpaste/week
  4. One toothbrush

DD-1

307
Q

Working inmates may possess what items while at their working assignments?

A
  1. Comb
  2. Eyeglasses

DD-1

308
Q

What is DD-2?

A

Inmate Property Control

DD-2

309
Q

What is the purpose of DD-2 Inmate Property Control?

A

To establish procedures for securing, storing, and releasing inmate personal property and clothing.

DD-2

310
Q

How big is a personal property storage bag?

A

Approximately 12” x 12”

DD-2

311
Q

How often will locker runs be conducted?

A

At least weekly.

DD-2

312
Q

True or False?
Inmate clothing may be released.
False.

A

False.
Inmate clothing shall not be released; it may only be exchanged.

DD-2 Section 6

313
Q

True or False?

A search warrant or court order is required to release an inmate’s property or clothing to a law enforcement agency.

A

False.
An inmate’s property or clothing may be seized by a law enforcement agency as evidence pertaining to a suspected crime without a search warrant or court order.

DD-2

314
Q

Bond Surrender:

A

The delivery of a defendant who had been released on bail by a bond agent to the custody of the Office.

DE-2

315
Q

Bond surrenders shall be accepted only on cases or charges within whose jurisdiction?

A

The Maricopa County judicial jurisdiction

DE-2

316
Q

A sum of money paid by a bond agent to secure the release on an inmate who is awaiting trial, with the condition that he will appear in court on the date of trial.

A

Surety Appearance Bond

DE-3

317
Q

Who is responsible for determining an inmate’s custody level?

A

Classification Division

DF-1

318
Q

What are the 3 security level designations?

A
  1. Minimum
  2. Medium
  3. Maximum

DF-1

319
Q

When will a pretrial inmate in closed custody or administrative segregation have his status reviewed by classification?

A

Every 7 days for the first two months; after that, every 30 days.

DF-1

320
Q

Who may initiate the review of an inmate’s classification?

A
  1. Detention personnel
  2. CHS personnel
  3. The inmate
  4. A third party

DF-1

321
Q

How often will the Classification Division Commander review the classification process?

A

Annually.

DF-1

322
Q

Who is allowed access to an inmate’s Classification File?

A
  1. The Sheriff
  2. Detention personnel
  3. Office personnel authorized by the Classification Section Commander

DF-2

323
Q

How long does the Classification Section maintain and store Classification Files of released inmates?

A

2 months

DF-2

324
Q

How long do the Classification Files of released inmates stay at the records warehouse?

A

3 years

DF-2

325
Q

Sedentary:

A

A lifestyle that includes sitting or remaining inactive for most of the day with little or no exercise.

DG-1

326
Q

The Food Services Section shall prepare two or more meals for each inmate during a ______ hour period.

A

24 hour

DG-2

327
Q

The interval between evening and morning meals shall be no more than ____ hours.

A

14 hours

DG-2 Section 1.A

328
Q

True or False?

Inmates refusing a modified diet meal will receive a regular meal as a replacement.

A

False.

DG-2 Section 8

329
Q

How often will the food service areas be inspected?

A

Weekly

DG-3 Section 1.A

330
Q

How often shall a physical count and inspection of all knives and utensils be conducted?

A
  1. Every 3 hours
  2. After any change in staff

DG-4 Section 2.C

331
Q

List 8 main Medical Diets:

A
  1. Clear Liquid
  2. Diabetic
  3. Jaw Fracture
  4. Mechanical Soft
  5. Post-Gastrectomy
  6. Pregnancy
  7. Renal
  8. Low Body Mass Index (BMI)

DG-7

332
Q

Request for medically necessary diet meals that are not listed in policy (EX: allergy diets, other special medical diets), shall be referred to who for authorization?

A
  1. Dietitian
  2. Medical provider

DG-7 Section 4

333
Q

True or False?

Inmate refusing a modified diet will receive a regular diet as a replacement.

A

False.

Inmates refusing a modified diet will NOT receive a regular diet as a replacement.

334
Q

What does the the Correctional Health Services (CHS) Contractor Coordinator do?

A

A CHS employee responsible for working with the volunteer coordinator to ensure the contract employees working with CHS complete the badging process.

DH-1

335
Q

Gate-Pass Personnel:

A

Non-employees who provide services in a jail on an irregular basis, for which the Office or any other agency does not compensate them. (must use Visitor Card Pass)

DH-1

336
Q

Jail Access Identification (ID) Card:

A

Identification cards that are issued to contractors and volunteers.

DH-1

337
Q

Who will be issued a blue Jail Access ID?

A
  1. Religious personnel
  2. Maricopa County Adult Probation

DH-1

338
Q

Who will be issued a yellow Jail Access ID?

A
  1. Volunteers
  2. Contracted programs personnel

DH-1

339
Q

Who will be issued a red Jail Access ID?

A

Contractors and volunteer personnel for CHS.

DH-1

340
Q

Who will be issued a Visitor Pass Card (8)?

A
  1. News media personnel
  2. Officers of the court
  3. Contractor vending company employees
  4. Jail tour participants
  5. Private physicians
  6. Employees of other law enforcement/correctional agencies in civilian attire
  7. Temporary medical personnel

DH-1

341
Q

Who will be issued a Courtesy ID Card?

A

Contractors and vendors that work with the Information and Technology Bureau.

DH-1

342
Q

True or False?

Former employees of the Office will be allowed to enter the jail facility.

A

False.

DH-1

343
Q

List 4 reasons to revoke a Jail Access ID Card:

A
  1. Failure to observe Office or jail facility rules/regulations
  2. Failure to conduct job functions in a reasonable and professional manner
  3. Actions or behaviors which threaten the safety or security of a jail facility
  4. Serious violations of a local, state, or federal law

DH-1

344
Q

Administrative Contraband:

A

Any item not specifically included in the definition of contraband in ARS 13-2501, which has nonetheless been prohibited by the Sheriff for possession by inmate. Includes money, jewelery, tobacco products, and fire-producing items.

DH-3

345
Q

Criminal Contraband:

A

Any item specifically defined in ARS 13-2501, such as dangerous weapons or drugs.

DH-3

346
Q

Gender Non-Conforming:

A

A person whose appearance or manner does not conform to traditional societal gender expectations.

DH-3

347
Q

Intersex:

A

A person whose sexual or reproductive anatomy or chromosomal patter does not seem to fit typical definitions of male or female.

DH-3

348
Q

Transgender:

A

A person whose gender identity, internal sense of feeling male or female, is different from the person’s assigned sex at birth.

DH-3

349
Q

True or False?

An inmate’s legal and regular mail may be inspected in his absence, but not read.

A

True

DH-3 Section 2

350
Q

Pat-down searches on male inmates may be conducted by who?

A

Male or female officers

DH-3 Section 2

351
Q

Who will conduct invasive body cavity searches?

A

Qualified licensed medical professional not associated with the Office.

DH-3 Section 6

352
Q

When an invasive body cavity search or x-ray examination is necessary, the jail commander will provide medical personnel with what?

A
  1. Written request to perform the search
  2. Search warrant, court order, or written consent from the inmate

DH-3 Section 6

353
Q

A working inmate found with contraband may lose what?

A

His two for one.

DH-3 Section 8

354
Q

What 4 duties does the Key Control Officer have?

A
  1. Conduct a monthly jail key inventory
  2. Report lost or damaged keys
  3. Ensure that each locking device has a key that is readily available
  4. Numbering and recording all keys

DH-5 Section 1

355
Q

In the instance of a lost key, the shift supervisor is responsible for what?

A
  1. Questioning personnel who were recently in possession of the lost key
  2. Initiating a search of the areas in which the lost key was recently used
  3. Forwarding recommendation that may help to prevent similar future occurrences.

DH-5 Section 3

356
Q

All inmates in intake, transportation areas; and all unsentenced maximum and medium security or partially sentenced inmates, will be observed by an officer assigned to a housing unit or holding area at least once every ____ minutes.

A

30 minutes

DH-6 Section 2

357
Q

All unsentenced minimum security inmates and all fully-sentenced inmates will be observed by an officer how often?

A

Once every hour.

DH-6 Section 2

358
Q

When shall the first ID head count be conducted?

A

The first 30 minutes of shift.

DH-6 Section 4

359
Q

What is the Emergency Response Cart ?

A

A device designed to store emergency response equipment for the ERT that is to be stored in a designated area as determind by the division commander.

DH-8

360
Q

Who may activate ERT?

A

The Division Commanders or his designee

DH-8 Section 1

361
Q

List 9 situations in which ERT may be activated:

A
  1. Jail safety and security
  2. Cell extractions
  3. Special Response Team (SRT) assistance
  4. Medical emergencies
  5. Major and minor fires
  6. Major power failures
  7. Riots or multiple inmate disturbances
  8. Escapes or attempted escapes
  9. Hostage situations

DH-8 Section 1

362
Q

ERT officers shall attend at least ___ hours of proficiency training annually.

A

8 hours

DH-8 Section 3

363
Q

When activated, the ERT shall consist of no fewer than ____ trained detention officers and an ERT trained sergeant.

A

7

DH-8 Section 3

364
Q

List 9 pieces of equipment that the emergency response cart shall include:

A

List 9 pieces of equipment that the emergency response cart shall include:

  1. Riot helmets w/face shields
  2. Protective vests
  3. Elbow/knee pads
  4. Protective gloves
  5. Slash resistant forearm sleeves
  6. Spit masks
  7. PPE
  8. Paper/Jump suits
  9. Video camera

DH-8 Section 4

365
Q

What is a Custody Watch Commander ?

A

Normally, a detention lieutenant, assigned to the SRT with overall command of the Unit and its operations.

DH-9

366
Q

SRT training in squad tactics shall be conducted at a minimum of ___ hours every month at the direction of the squad Team Leader (TL).

A

8 hours

DH-9 Section 5

367
Q

All request to activate the SRT shall be made through who?

A

The Communications Division

DH-9 Section 7

368
Q

List 7 situations in which the SRT may be activated:

A
  1. Planned use of force
  2. Cell extractions
  3. Combative inmates
  4. Group disturbances
  5. Forced medication
  6. Safe Cell/Safe Bed placements
  7. High-Risk inmate transports

DH-9 Section 7

369
Q

When a welfare check is requested and the officer requires no assistance, he shall respond with what?

A

His serial number ONLY.

DH-10

370
Q

Recreation for unsentenced general population inmates shall be allowed at all jail facilities one hour per day, ____

A

4 days

DI-1

371
Q

What does NOC stand for?

A

Nature of Charges

DI-1 Section 2

372
Q

What does JCNF stand for?

A

Jail Commander Notification Form

DI-3

373
Q

Placement into security restrictive housing may be made for up to ____ hours.

A

72 hours

DI-3 Section 2.F

374
Q

Who will be responsible for reviewing an inmate’s actions every 7 days when in security restrictive housing?

A

Jail commander or designee

DI-3 Section 2.F

375
Q

When it is determined that an inmate is to serve 15 or more days in disciplinary housing, the Inmate Classification Division shall do what?

A
  1. Review the inmate’s file
  2. Determine if the inmate shall be reclassified to a higher security level

DI-3 Section 3.B

376
Q

How often does SMRC review the classification of inmates in administrative restrictive housing?

A

Every 30 days

DI-3 Section 4

377
Q

What does SMRC stand for?

A

Special Management Review Committee

DI-3

378
Q

How often do closed custody inmates have their classification reviewed by SMRC?

A

Every 30 days.

DI-3 Section 5

379
Q

Habeas Corpus Petition:

A

An action filed by an inmate, which alleges that their detention is in violation of the Constitution of the United States of America.

DI-5

380
Q

In Propria Persona (Pro Per):

A

A criminal pro per is an inmate, who has elected to represent himself in his criminal case, has been issued a valid court order or minute entry stating that he may proceed pro per, and has been assigned advisory counsel.

DI-5

381
Q

Officers of the Court:

A

Professionals who are authorized to have privileged visits with inmates.

DI-5

382
Q

Pro per inmates are authorized to possess up to ___ file boxes in their assigned cell.

A

3 file boxes

DI-5

383
Q

Pro per inmates requesting non-privileged visits with other Office inmates, or with persons not in custody, will be required to submit the name, gender, race, and date of birth of each person on a request form, no fewer than ___ working days prior to the requested date of the interview.

A

3 working days

DI-5 Section 4

384
Q

Pro per inmates requesting visits with an inmate incarcerated by another agency must do what?

A

Obtain a court order to have that inmate transported to an Office jail.

DI-5 Section 4

385
Q

Pro per inmates are limited to how many visits in a seven day period for interviewing witnesses?

A

5 visits

DI-5 Section 4

386
Q

When can an inmate’s pro per status be suspended or dismissed, at the direction of the judge of record?

A

If that inmate is transferred to MHU for placement on a medically ordered suicide watch.

DI-5 Section 6

387
Q

It is the policy of the Office to provide for effective communication with inmates and the public with limited English language proficiency, regarding detention-related Office business, and to be in compliance with what?

A

Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964

DI-6

388
Q

Who is responsible for assigning an LEP Manager to each facility?

A

The Limited English Proficiency Compliance Unit (LEPCU)

DI-6 Section 9

389
Q

The LEP Manager shall be an active what?

A

FTO

DI-6 Section 9

390
Q

How often shall the Custody Bureau Hearing Unit Commander or his designee review and/or update the Rules and Regulations?

A

Annually.

DJ-1

391
Q

Full Restriction:

A

A sanction imposed by a hearing sergeant against an inmate for a violation of the Rules and Regulations for Inmates as part of the formal disciplinary procedure.

DJ-2

392
Q

Who will review and/or update the inmate disciplinary procedure annually?

A

Custody Bureau Hearing Unit Commander or his designee

DJ-2 Section 1

393
Q

A DAR shall be completed and issued to an inmate charged with a jail rule violation within ____ hours of the violation or knowledge that such a violation occurred.

A

72 hours

DJ-2 Section 4

394
Q

In reference to a DAR, if a criminal act has occurred what is the shift supervisor responsible for doing?

A
  1. Initiating the IR
  2. Notifying Jail Crimes, as necessary
  3. Attaching a copy of the IR to the DAR, and forwarding to BHU

DJ-2 Section 4

395
Q

A shift supervisor shall review a DAR within ___ hours of receiving it from the reporting officer.

A

24 hours

DJ-2 Section 4

396
Q

DARs shall require a disciplinary hearing to be conducted within ___ working days of the inmate’s receipt of the DAR, unless the inmate waives his right to a hearing.

A

7 working days.

DJ-2 Section 4

397
Q

An inmate may submit a Disciplinary Appeal Form within what time frame?

A

24 hours from the time he received his yellow copy of the DAR.

DJ-2 Section 4

398
Q

In reference to an inmate’s Disciplinary Appeal Form, how long does the jail commander or his designee have to make a decision?

A

5 working days

DJ-2 Section 5

399
Q

Suspended Sanctions:

A

An administrative action used to record the disciplinary violation of a seriously mentally ill or mental health chronic care inmate who has been found guilty of committing a jail rule violation, for classification purposes, with in JMS. (Inmates placed on this status shall have no disciplinary restrictions imposed.)

DJ-2

400
Q

External Grievance Appeal:

A

A process by which an inmate may submit a grievance for review to the External Referee, following a response to an Institutional Grievance Appeal that the inmate considers unsatisfactory. (The External Referee shall not be an Office employee.)

DJ-3

401
Q

Institutional Grievance Appeal:

A

A process by which an inmate may submit a grievance for review to the jail facility commander, or in the case of a medical grievance, the appropriate clinic supervisor, following a response to a concern that the inmate considers unsatisfactory.

DJ-3

402
Q

Inmates must submit an Inmate Grievance form to detention personnel within ____ hours of the event being grieved and must include a proposed resolution.

A

48 hours

DJ-3 Section 2

403
Q

True or False?

The 48 hour time limit requirement is for all grievances.

A

False.
All grievances other than those which allege excessive use of force or restraint, employee misconduct, or a violation of the PREA.

DJ-3 Section 2

404
Q

Detention personnel (First Line Officers) shall attempt to resolve a grievance within how many hours?

A

72 hours

DJ-3 Section 5

405
Q

The shift supervisor shall respond to the detention grievance within ____ working days.

A

7 working days

DJ-3 Section 6

406
Q

Pod Restriction sanctions may be imposed for an initial period of how long?

A

7 days

DJ-4 Section 3

407
Q

True or False?
One inmate representing a pod may challenge the validity of the Pod Restriction by submitting an Inmate Institutional Disciplinary Appeal.

A

True.

DJ-4 Section 5

408
Q

Who can approve a requests to Photograph an MCSO Inmate?

A

Jail commander or senior command officer present

DJ-5

409
Q

Only those inmates who have been in Office custody over ___ days will be subject to random drug testing.

A

30 days

DJ-6 Section 1

410
Q

If an inmate’s initial urinalysis test is positive, the inmate may do what?

A

Request a 2nd test to confirm the positive result.

DJ-6 Section 3

411
Q

An inmate’s refusal to submit to drug testing or a positive drug test result will require what two things?

A
  1. Inmate immediately placed into security segregation
  2. DAR initiated recommending the max disciplinary sanction

DJ-6 Section 3

412
Q

File Stop:

A

A step taken to flag an inmate’s file that indicates additional action must be taken prior to the release of the inmate. (must be initiated prior to the completion of the release process)

DJ-7

413
Q

Injunction Against Harassment:

A

A court order prohibiting a person from harassing another person.

DJ-7

414
Q

The Injunction Against Harassment consists of how many pages?

A

5 pages

DJ-7

415
Q

What are the 5 pages of the Injunction Against Harassment?

A
  1. Petition for Injunction Against Harassment (2 pgs)
  2. Injunction Against Harassment (2pgs)
  3. Certificate or Affidavit of Service (1 pg)

DJ-7

416
Q

Order of Protection:

A

A court order issued to restrain a person from committing an act included, but not limited to, domestic violence.

DJ-7

417
Q

The Order of Protection consists of how many pages?

A

5 pages

DJ-7

418
Q

What are the 5 pages of the Order of Protection?

A
  1. Petition for Order of Protection (2 pgs)
  2. Order of Protection (2 pgs)
  3. Certificate or Affidavit of Service (1 pg)

DJ-7

419
Q

What other paperwork may be included with the Order of Protection papers (2)?

A
  1. Defendant’s Guide Sheet and a Brady Warning Document
  2. Confidential Service Document/Form

DJ-7

420
Q

Order of Protection or Injunction Against Harassment service that has been accepted for an inmate who is not immediately available to be served shall require what?

A

A file stop be entered into JMS.

DJ-7 Section 1.B

421
Q

The detention staff who accepts an Order of Protection or Injunction Against Harassment, which is being served by one inmate on another inmate, shall ensure what 3 things?

A
  1. Put keepaways on the 2 inmates
  2. Make necessary housing changes
  3. Notify classification for possible changes

DJ-7 Section 1.C

422
Q

An Order of Protection or Injunction Against Harassment stays in effect for how long?

A

1 year

DJ-7 Section 2

423
Q

The detention supervisor or his designee shall be responsible for ensuring that the inmate has been served the Order of Protection/Injunction Against Harassment within ____ hours of the time of acceptance.

A

2 hours

DJ-7 Section 2.B

424
Q

What does OIC stand for?

A

Operations Information Center

DJ-7

425
Q

The shift supervisor, or his designee, shall ensure that a copy of the Order, Petition, and Certificate/Affidavit of Service is faxed to whom?

A
  1. Sheriff’s Office Records
  2. AFIS Division, OIC Section

DJ-7 Section 4

426
Q

True or False?

The nutra-loaf is served twice daily with a beverage, food tray, and utensils.

A

False.
The nutra-loaf is served twice daily WITHOUT a beverage, food tray, or utensils.

DJ-8

427
Q

If an inmate is placed on nutra-loaf sanction, all property; excluding hygiene items and legal paperwork, shall be removed from the inmate for the first ____ hours.

A

48 hours

DJ-8 Section 6.A

428
Q

If an inmate is placed on nutra-loaf sanction, all property; excluding hygiene items and legal paperwork, shall be removed from the inmate for the first ____ hours.

A

48 hours

DJ-8 Section 6.A

429
Q

Inmates who use or attempt to use their property to harm others or as a barrier while on nutra-loaf sanction, may have their property removed for how long?

A

An additional 24 hours.

DJ-8 Section 6.C

430
Q

After the initial 48 hours of a nutra-loaf sanction, the inmate will be given how much time for dayroom and shower access?

A

15 minute block

DJ-8 Section 6.D

431
Q

True or False?
After the initial 48 hours of a nutra-loaf sanction, the inmate shall receive one 15 minute block of time for dayroom and shower access on the seventh day and every seventh day after that for the duration of the sanction.

A

True.

DJ-8 Section 6.D

432
Q

In reference to nutra-loaf sanctions, how often will the inmate get regular meals while on the sanction?

A

Every seventh day for a 24 hour period.

DJ-8 Section 6.D

433
Q

An inmate who commits an offense may be sanctioned to the nutra-loaf for up to ___ days for each separate occurrence.

A

30 days

DJ-8 Section 8.C

434
Q

What will be removed from inmate postcards by detention personnel?

A

All adhesive postage.

DK-1

435
Q

What is the maximum allowable size of a postcard?

A

4.25” x 6”

DK-1 Section 1.A

436
Q

How many photographs may an inmate receive by mail?

A

5

DK-1 Section 1.D

437
Q

What is the maximum size of a photograph an inmate is allowed to have?

A

4” x 6”

DK-1 Section 1.D

438
Q

Branding:

A

An announcement at the beginning of a phone call indicating that the call will be monitored and recorded.

DK-2

439
Q

Court of Record:

A

A court in which all proceedings are permanently recorded according to law.

DK-2

440
Q

What does IPIN stand for?

A

Inmate Personal Identification Number

DK-2

441
Q

What does ITS stand for?

A

Inmate Telephone System

DK-2

442
Q

Jail Security Matter:

A

A subject or concern that may pose a serious threat to the safety or security of any person, place, or thing.

DK-2

443
Q

What does TTY stand for?

A

Text Telephone Device

DK-2 Section 4

444
Q

All video visits must be scheduled a minimum of ___ hours in advance by the person requesting the visit.

A

24 hours

DK-3

445
Q

How often will working inmates receive a clean jail uniform shirt, pants, under garments, and socks?

A

Daily, upon completion of their shift.

DL-1 Section 4.A

446
Q

How often will towels be exchanged?

A

At least 3 times/week.

DL-1 Section 6.A

447
Q

How often will undershorts, bras, and panties be exchanged?

A

At least 2 times/week.

DL-1 Section 6.B

448
Q

How often will socks be exchanged?

A

At least once per week.

DL-1 Section 6.C

449
Q

How often will sheets, jail uniforms shirts, pants, and nightgowns be exchanged?

A

At least once a week.

DL-1 Section 6.D

450
Q

How often will blankets be exchanged?

A

Monthly

DL-1 Section 6.E

451
Q

Who can authorized extra laundry-issued items?

A

CHS

DL-1 Section 7

452
Q

Control rooms shall be inspected by a supervisor how often?

A

Daily

DL-2 Section 2

453
Q

Each jail commander, or his designee, should inspect the entire jail how often?

A

Monthly

DL-2 Section 3

454
Q

When security override is extended past 72 hours, the inmate may receive one 15 minute shower every ____ hours thereafter.

A

72 hours

DL-3 Section 2.F

455
Q

After each meal, inmates shall be allowed how long to clean their cells, bunks, and dayroom areas?

A

1 hour

DL-3 Section 5.C

456
Q

Double-Time Credit (Two-For-One):

A

A method of release computation which results in an inmate receiving two days credit for each one day that he has participated in an approved work program. (ARS 31-144)

DM-1

457
Q

Mosaic Program:

A

A six-week intensive treatment program for inmates with severe substance dependence disorders, moderate to severe mental health conditions, and inmates who have a moderate to high risk of recidivism.

DM-1

458
Q

The Inmate Work Program is only available to who?

A

Fully-sentenced inmates

DM-1 Section 2

459
Q

Reduction in privileges for non-working inmates include, but are not limited to what? (7)

A
  1. Reduced/ Restricted Dayroom
  2. One On-Site Regular Video Visit and one Remote Regular Video Visit withing a 7 day period
  3. Shall not receive charge a-call access
  4. One religious service during a 7 day period
  5. Not allowed to order canteen
  6. No access to TV
  7. Not permitted to take part in any program

DM-1 Section 2.A

460
Q

Any removal or prohibition of an inmate from the Inmate Work Program shall be documented with what forms?

A
  1. DAR
  2. JCN
  3. Administrative No Work Report

DM-1 Section 2.I

461
Q

Concurrent Sentence:

A

Refers to jail sentences that may be served at the same time with the longest period controlling

DM-2

462
Q

Consecutive Sentence:

A

Refers to jail sentences that must be served one after the other rather than at the same time.

DM-2

463
Q

Inmates who are identified by CHS as SMI, and inmate being released unescorted from a psychiatric unit, shall only be released between what times?

A

Between 0800-1700 hours

DM-2 Section 6.B

464
Q

All un-escorted leaves by inmates into the community require what?

A

Court order

DN-1

465
Q

True or False?
Escorted leaves by inmates into the community may be granted by a jail commander with a court order.
False.

A

False.
Escorted leaves by inmates into the community may be granted by a jail commander with or without a court order.

DN-1

466
Q

List 7 situations in which an inmate may be granted leave into the community:

A
  1. Drug program interview
  2. Viewing at a mortuary
  3. Hospital visits w/a relative
  4. Medical, dental, psych appointments w/a private health care provider
  5. Reading of wills
  6. Polygraph examination
  7. Official law enforcement business

DN-1 Section 2

467
Q

If an un-escorted inmate does not return within ___ hours of the time specified by the court, the incident will be considered an unauthorized absence.

A

6 hours

DN-1 Section 6

468
Q

Adjudication:

A

The process of judicially deciding a case

DN-2

469
Q

What are the 3 ways an inmate may be selected for the Work Furlough Program?

A
  1. A judge orders the inmate to participate in Work Furlough
  2. A judge orders MCAPD to screen the inmate for eligibility in the Work Furlough Program
  3. MCAPD chooses to screen an inmate for eligibility in the Work Furlough Program

DN-2 Section 2

470
Q

What criteria must an inmate meet to enter or remain in the Work Furlough Program?

A
  1. Must be classified Minimum or Medium security
  2. Must not require special housing accommodations (NOC or AD Rest)

DN-2 Section 3

471
Q

In reference to work release, an inmate who has not arrived within ___ hours after his scheduled arrival time will be listed as a “no-show”.

A

6 hours

DN-3 Section 2.B

472
Q

What is: The transfer an inmate into the custody of an out-of-county agency, awaiting return to MCSO custody.

A

Inactive Release:

DN-6

473
Q

What is: A court’s written order, in the name of a state or other competent legal authority, commanding the addressee to do or refrain from some specified act.

A

Writ

DN-6

474
Q

Hobbling (Hogtying/Suitcasing):

A

Restraint of a combative person by binding hands to ankles behind the back. (Prohibited for all Office personnel)

DO-1

475
Q

When do inmates need to be released once notification has been given that the release process has been initiated?

A

Immediately.

DO-2 Section 5 Brf. 1738

476
Q

How many photos will be taken of an inmate upon entry into the booking area?

A

2

DO-3 Section 2

477
Q

To ensure a positive identification, every effort shall be made to make certain that fingerprints are obtained from each inmate within ___ hours of acceptance into Office custody.

A

24 hour

DO-3 Section 3

478
Q

ID personnel shall make every effort to ensure that all persons in custody have legible fingerprints taken and forwarded to the Department of Public Safety (DPS) within how long?

A

10 days

DO-3 Section 3.A

479
Q

(Intake) If an inmate refuses to complete the identification process, what does the shift supervisor need to do?

A

Submit an Order for Obtaining Evidence to the Initial Appearance (IA) Judge.

DO-3 Section 4

480
Q

What shall not be used to obtain identification data?

A

Physical force

DO-3 Section 4.A

481
Q

If the court order or contempt charge for an inmate refusing to complete the identification process is denied by the IA Judge, what will be done?

A
  1. Notation will be made in JMS
  2. Inmate will be released

DO-3 Section 4.C

482
Q

What is: A booking which results when a person appears for fingerprinting and photographing at the Criminal Records Section by order of either a justice court or superior court.

A

Summons Booking

DO-5

483
Q

What is a Buccal DNA Collector:

A

A plastic device used to gather cheek cells from the inside of the mouth.

DO-6

484
Q

Inmates who are serving an order of confinement within an Office jail on any felony offense (ARS 13-610) shall be required to submit to DNA testing for law enforcement identification purposes. When will the testing be done?

A

Within 30 days of an inmate being sentenced.

DO-6

485
Q

What 5 things need to appear on a self-surrender’s Confinement Order?

A
  1. Self-surrender’s first and last name
  2. At least one numerical identifier (ex: social security # or DOB)
  3. Date and time the person is to surrender and the sentence imposed by the court
  4. ARS or the charge being booked
  5. Case # or complaint # from the court

DO-7 Section 1

486
Q

When will a self surrender be considered a “no-show”?

A

If they present themselves more than 6 hours after the date and time specified in the Confinement Order.

DO-7 Section 1.F

487
Q

What is the ALPHA Program:

A

A residential substance abuse counseling treatment program provided by, or through, the Office for the benefit of eligible inmate.

DP-1

488
Q

What does CSD stand for?

A

Custody Support Division

DP-1

489
Q

What does MASH stand for?

A

Maricopa County Sheriff’s Office Animal Safe Haven

DP-1 Section 2

490
Q

What does TJC stand for?

A

Transition from Jail to Community

DP-1 Section 2

491
Q

List 7 types of Inmate Programs that are offered:

A
  1. Educational programs
  2. Social service programs
  3. Vocational counseling and training
  4. Recovery support programs
  5. ALPHA Program (substance abuse programs)
  6. Maricopa County Sheriff’s Office Animal Safe Haven (MASH)
  7. Transition from Jail to Community (TJC)

DP-1 Section 2

492
Q

Religious activities shall not be permitted to exceed how long?

A

60 minutes

DP-1 Section 5.C

493
Q

How often will the Inmate Library deliver books, magazines, and requested materials?

A

Monthly

DP-3 Section 5

494
Q

When will the materials received from the Inmate Library be delivered to the inmates?

A

Within 24 hours.

DP-3 Section 5

495
Q

What is a Officiant:

A

A person who officiates at a religious ceremony.

DP-4

496
Q

What is the criteria for an inmate requesting to be married?

A
  1. No major disciplinary charges pending
  2. Must not be confined in disciplinary/security segregation unit
  3. Is eligible to receive visitors
  4. Is not being held under the jurisdiction of a Federal or State correctional agency
  5. Is not a Fugitive from Justice
  6. Is 18 or older

DP-4

497
Q

An inmate requesting permission to get married, needs to submit the request how long before the marriage?

A

At least 60 days in advance.

DP-4

498
Q

True or False?

With approval of the Sheriff; or his designee, ex-offenders may be used as volunteers.

A

True

DP-5 Section 3

499
Q

In reference to volunteers, if an ex-offender served an order of confinement as the result of a misdemeanor conviction how long must he wait to volunteer with the Office?

A

12 months

DP-5 Section 3

500
Q

In reference to volunteers, if an ex-offender served an order of confinement as the result of a felony conviction how long must he wait to volunteer with the Office?

A

36 months

DP-5 Section 3

501
Q

Inmates eligible to receive assistance from ILS who have less than 5 dollars in their Inmate Fund Account may request free writing materials how often?

A

Bi-weekly (Every Two Weeks)

DP-6 Section 7

502
Q

What materials may an indigent pro per inmate receive from ILS? (5)

A
  1. One large manila envelope
  2. Two unstamped, business-sized envelopes
  3. Five sheets of paper
  4. Two small pencils
  5. One eraser

DP-6 Section 7

503
Q

Inmates that are prescribed psychotropic medications should not be housed in areas that reach temperatures of what?

A

85 degrees

DQ-3 Section 7

504
Q

What is: A condition or factor that serves as a reason to withhold a certain medical treatment.

A

Contraindication:

DS-1

505
Q

CHS safe cell placement orders are written for ___ hour intervals.

A

6-hour

DS-1 Section 2

506
Q

How many detention personnel need to be present when placing an inmate into a safe cell?

A

No fewer than 6 and a supervisor

DS-1 Section 2.C

507
Q

Who may authorize the use of safe bed intervention?

A

Detention commander

DS-2 Section 3

508
Q

How many detention personnel need to be present when placing an inmate into a safe bed?

A

No fewer than 5 and a supervisor

DS-1 Section 3

509
Q

According to the National Commission on Correctional Health Care (NCCHC), safe bed intervention is to be implemented for how long?

A

implemented for how long?
The shortest time possible.

DS-1 Section 4

510
Q

An inmate that has been placed on a safe bed shall be offered a restroom break how often?

A

Every 2 hours

DS-1 Section 8

511
Q

How often will an inmate on safe bed placement be offered a range-of-motion?

A

Every 2 hours

DS-1 Section 9

512
Q

How often will the Critical Policies be reviewed?

A

Annually

GA-1 Section 6

513
Q

How often will all policies; excluding the Critical Policies, be reviewed?

A

Within 10 years of publication

GA-1 Section 6.B

514
Q

How long do employees have to receive, read, and understand their responsibilities in accordance with policy?

A

Within 50 days of the policy being distributed on TheHUB.

GA-1 Section 8

515
Q

What is: Having equal or overlapping jurisdiction or authority.

A

Concurrent Jurisdiction

GB-1

516
Q

Legal Definition of American Indian?

A

A person who is registered member of a federally recognized tribe.

GB-1

517
Q

Who enforces federal firearms regulations?

A

The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives (ATF)

GB-1 Section 5.B

518
Q

Bureau of Internal Oversight (BIO) Action Form:

A

A form that captures command’s response when the Audits and Inspections Unit (AIU) has identified perceived deficiencies during the performance of non-audit services, regardless of whether the deficiency is within the scope of the inspection, or outside the scope.

GB-2

519
Q

Boilerplate:

A

Language that is stock, unoriginal, appears repeatedly in different reports, and fails to attest to the unique facts of an incident.

GB-2

520
Q

Threshold:

A

The point at which a sufficient number of incidents have occurred to alert the EIU of conduct or performance that could become problematic for an employee or require a review of an Office operating procedure.

GB-2

521
Q

What are the 5 categories of alerts that supervisors receive in the case of an employee meeting or exceeding an established threshold in the EIS?

A
  1. Allegation Alert
  2. Incident Type Alert
  3. Monitored Status Alert
  4. Overall Alert
  5. Supervisory Alert

GB-2 Section 12

522
Q

The range and scope of the Sheriff’s authority, mandated duties, and responsibilities are set forth in what ARS code?

A

ARS 11-441

GB-2 Section 1.A

523
Q

Who is responsible for the day-to-day functions of budgeting, control of expenditures, and accounting for financial resources?

A

Business Operations Command

GB-4

524
Q

Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) and Americans With Disabilities Act Amendments Act (ADAAA):

A

Federal law that protects individuals with disabilities recognized under the ADA and ADAAA who are able to perform the essential functions of their position with or without reasonable accommodation.

GC-1

525
Q

What does ADP stand for?

A

Automatic Data Processing

GC-1

526
Q

Certification of Health Car Provider (CHCP):

A

A U.S. Department of Labor form used when an employee seeks a leave of absence under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA).

GC-1

527
Q

Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA):

A

The federal law conferring job-protected unpaid leave for eligible employees for a qualifying purpose.

GC-1

528
Q

What is a Fitness for Duty Examination:

A

Sworn and detention personnel may be ordered to submit to a Fitness for Duty Examination in accordance with ARS Title 38, Chapter 8, Article 1, if warranted by the employee’s conduct.

GC-1

529
Q

FMLA-Qualifying Event:

A

An event that qualifies under the FMLA, permitting an employee to take a job-protected leave of absence.

GC-1

530
Q

Leave Management Section (LMS):

A

Human Resources Services Division staff assigned to oversee issues relating to industrial injuries, ADA and FMLA compliance, modified duty, and military leave.

GC-1

531
Q

Rolling 12 Month Period:

A

A period of time used to determine FMLA leave entitlement.

GC-1

532
Q

What does TOR stand for?

A

Time Off Request

GC-1

533
Q

What is: An action requiring significant difficulty or expense on the part of the Office.

A

Undue Hardship

GC-1

534
Q

A federal statute that protects service What Protects a members’ and veterans’ civilian employment rights, and protects service members from discrimination in the workplace based on their military service or affiliation.

A

Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 (USERRA):

GC-1

535
Q

What does USERRA stand for?

A

Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994

GC-1

536
Q

List 11 paid leaves and/or absences:

A
  1. Bereavement Leave
  2. Civic Duty Leave
  3. Jury Duty Leave
  4. Witness Leave
  5. Crime Victim Leave
  6. Military Leave
  7. Administrative Leave With Pay
  8. Floating Personal Day
  9. Vacation Leave
  10. Sick Leave
  11. Holiday Leave

GC-1

537
Q

How many paid leaves and/or absences are there?

A

11

GC-1

538
Q

Bereavement Leave:

A

Classified, unclassified, or contract employees may use paid Bereavement Leave for each occurrence of the death of a family member.

GC-1 Section 1.A

539
Q

Who is not eligible for Bereavement Leave?

A

Temporary employees

GC-1 Section 1.A

540
Q

For each occurrence of death of a family member, eligible employees may receive paid Bereavement Leave of up to ____ working hours.

A

24 hours

GC-1 Section 1.A

541
Q

Who is not eligible for Civic Duty Leave?

A

Contract and temporary employees

GC-1 Section 1.B

542
Q

What code will a supervisor enter into ADP for the amount of hours actually on jury duty?

A

JDP

GC-1 Section 1.C

543
Q

Classified employees may carry over a maximum of _____ hours of Vacation time from one calendar year to the next.

A

240 hours

GC-1 Section 1.I

544
Q

List 10 legal holidays that are observed with pay:

A
  1. New Year’s Day
  2. Martin Luther King Jr./Civil Rights Day
  3. Presidents’ Day
  4. Memorial Day
  5. Independence Day
  6. Labor Day
  7. Veterans Day
  8. Thanksgiving Day
  9. the Friday after the fourth Thursday in November
  10. Christmas Day

GC-1 Section 1.K

545
Q

FMLA job-protected leave due to an FMLA-qualified event is limite to what?

A

12 weeks in a consecutive 12 month period.

GC-1 Section 2

546
Q

When a husband and wife are both employed by Maricopa County, how much FMLA are they allowed to take for the birth or placement of a child?

A

Each eligible employee may take up to 12 weeks

GC-1 Section 2.B

547
Q

Depending on the circumstances and duration of FMLA leave, the Leave Management Section (LMS) may require employees to provide re-certification of medical conditions no more than every ___ days.

A

30 days

GC-1 Section 2.F

548
Q

The Leave Management Section (LMS) shall notify the employee if re-certification of FMLA is required and shall give employees how long to provide medical re-certification?

A

15 days

GC-1 Section 2.F

549
Q

List 3 unpaid leaves of absence:

A
  1. Leave without Pay (LWO)
  2. Sick Without Pay (SWO)
  3. Furlough Day Off (FDO)

GC-1 Section 3

550
Q

What does UA stand for?

A

Unscheduled absence

GC-1

551
Q

How long is the waiting period before Workers’ Compensation Benefits Lost Wage Payment begin?

A

7 calendar days

GC-1 Section 3.B

552
Q

What is SVP?

A

Sick Using Vacation Pay

GC-1

553
Q

In reference to ADP pay codes, what is SWO?

A

Sick Without Pay

GC-1

554
Q

The SVP and SWO pay codes cannot be used to give an employee more than ____ hours per week.

A

40 hours

GC-1

555
Q

Who is responsible for the management and control of Office issued badges?

A
  1. Human Resource Services Division
  2. Posse Operations Section of Enforcement Support Division
  3. Command Staff

GC-2 Brf. 1820

556
Q

Reemployment:

A

The return, within one year from the date of separation, of a former employee of the Office who is separated due to reduction in force (RIF).

GC-3

557
Q

Assignments shall be made to do what?

A

Balance experienced personnel on all shifts.

GC-3

558
Q

Seniority among supervisors is based on what?

A

Date of rank.

GC-3

559
Q

Rating Period:

A

The timeframe that may be considered as the scope of the employee’s EPA, whether probationary, annual, or special.

GC-4

560
Q

When will EPA forms be distributed electronically to bureaus?

A

60 days prior to the date due.

GC-4 Section 4

561
Q

What are the 8 performance dimensions of an EPA? (P/P/J/Q/T/L/T/S)

A
  1. Adherence to Policy and Procedures
  2. Workplace Professionalism
  3. Performance of Essential Job Duties
  4. Quality of work
  5. Mandatory Training Completed
  6. Leadership
  7. Transfer Evaluation
  8. Quality of Supervisory Review/Supervisory Accountability

GC-4 Section 7

562
Q

For detention officers holding the rank of sergeant or below, what is the required training?

A

A minimum of 40 hours of approved training

GC-4 Section 7.E

563
Q

For detention officers holding the rank of lieutenant, what is the amount of training hours required?

A

A minimum of 24 hours of approved training.

GC-4 Section 7.E

564
Q

When must a written request for an Administrative Review of an EPA be submitted by the employee?

A

Within 7 calendar days of the presentation of the EPA.

GC-4 Section 10.A

565
Q

In reference to an Administrative Review of an EPA, when will a conference between the employee and the rating supervisor occur?

A

Within 10 calendar days of receipt of the request for review.

GC-4 Section 10.B

566
Q

True or false?

EPA Reviews by the Sheriff, or his designee, shall be limited to the 10 calendar day limit for response.

A

False.
EPA Reviews by the Sheriff, or his designee, shall NOT be limited to the 10 calendar day limit for response.

GC-4 Section 10.D

567
Q

True or False?

An EPA shall not be held for an employee who is the principal of an open misconduct investigation.

A

True.

GC-4 Section 13

568
Q

The completed sheets, rosters, or logbooks used to record detention assignments shall be maintained within the division for how long?

A

36 months

GC-5 Section 4

569
Q

What is: The budgetary result when employees are paid from a fund that they are not assigned to work in.

A

Cross-funding

GC-7

570
Q

What is contained in the Personnel File? (4-E/C/D/P)

A
  1. EPAs
  2. Commendations/Awards
  3. Disciplinary Actions
  4. Promotion/Demotion

GC-9 Section 2

571
Q

Who may be granted access to a Personnel File? (4-C/S/P/A)

A
  1. Employee’s Division Commander
  2. Employee’s Immediate Supervisor
  3. Personnel of PSB
  4. Personnel of Maricopa County Attorney’s Civil Division

GC-9 Section 3

572
Q

Outside of Pre-Employment personnel, who may remove Background Files from the Pre-Employment Services Division? (4-S/B/C/P)

A
  1. The Sheriff or Designee
  2. A Bureau Commander
  3. The Compliance Division
  4. The PSB

GC-9 Section 9

573
Q

List 4 minor awards: (4)

A
  1. Memorandum of Commendation
  2. Letter of Commendation
  3. Sheriff’s Commendation
  4. Employee of the Quarter

GC-14 Section 3.A

574
Q

List 9 higher awards:

A
  1. Military Service
  2. Awards for Bravery
  3. Purple Heart
  4. Life Saving Medal
  5. Exceptional Performance Awards
  6. Employee of the Year
  7. Supervisor of the Year
  8. Meritorious Unit Citation
  9. Service Awards

GC-14 Section 3.B

575
Q

Employees should discuss grievable matters with their immediate supervisor within ___ calendar days of the event, or the employee’s first knowledge of the event.

A

20 calendar days

GC-16 Section 3

576
Q

In reference to employee grievances, the employee shall allow the supervisor how long to attempt to resolve the concern?

A

10 business days

GC-16 Section 3

577
Q

What is: Any fact or circumstance that increases the severity or culpability of an act.

A

Aggravating Factor

GC-17

578
Q

What is: Any information or evidence presented regarding the employee or the circumstances of the incident that might result in reduced discipline.

A

Mitigating Factor

GC-17

579
Q

What is: A forum that allows an employee, regardless of employment status, who is being considered for serious discipline, to address the appointing authority regarding the intended discipline.

A

Pre-Determination Hearing (PDH):

GC-17

580
Q

What is: Facts alleged are more likely true than not true.

A

Preponderance of the Evidence

GC-17

581
Q

What are the dimensions of the nameplate?

A

3/8-inch wide and 2 1/4-inches long

GC-20 Section 4.A

582
Q

What is the nameplate made of?

A

Gold plated or solid brass metal.

GC-20 Section 4.A

583
Q

What are the dimensions of sergeant chevrons?

A

3-inches wide by 2 1/2-inches high

GC-20 Section 6.B

584
Q

All pins shall be worn ____-inch above the nameplate and centered above the pocket.

A

1/2 inch

GC-20 Section 7.C

585
Q

List 5 positions within CISM:

A
  1. CISM Administrator
  2. CISM Team Coordinators
  3. CISM Team Leaders
  4. CISM Team Members
  5. CISM Mental Health Professional

GC-22 Section 2

586
Q

Supervisors shall request that the CISM Team be activated in what situations?

A
  1. Officer-involved shooting
  2. Line-of-duty death
  3. Serious line-of-duty injury
  4. Prolonged or violent tactical operation
  5. Critical incident scene

GC-22 Section 3

587
Q

The use of tobacco products in any form shall only be used in exempt outdoor areas that are at least ____ feet from any door, windows capable of being opened, and ventilation systems.

A

20 feet

GD-4

588
Q

All inquiries from national or international media agencies shall be referred initially to who?

A

Public Information Officer (PIO)

GD-7

589
Q

What is: A written directive prepared by the Maricopa County Attorney’s Office or any other party that requests preservation of relevant records, documents, and ESI in anticipation of future litigation against the Office.

A

Litigation Hold Notice

GD-9

590
Q

What is: A formal document used to put the Office on notice of possible litigation or other written demand issued by a court.

A

Litigation Initiation Notice

GD-9

591
Q

List 5 Office Fund Accounts:

A
  1. Sheriff’s Contingent Fund
  2. Sheriff’s Inmate Trust Fund
  3. Petty Cash Fund
  4. 3511 Impound Unit (Towing Fund)
  5. Change Fund

GD-12 Section 2

592
Q

What is the Sheriff’s Contingent Fund used for?

A

For use in making advances for investigative trips and undercover operations.

GD-12 Section 2

593
Q

What is the Sheriff’s Inmate Trust Fund used for?

A

Holds all the monies belonging to inmates held in the jail system.

GD-12 Section 2

594
Q

What is the Petty Cash Fund used for?

A

For incidental purchases made by Office personnel when modest cost makes it impractical to obtain a purchase order. (limited to $100 for any single transaction)

GD-12 Section 2

595
Q

What is the 3511 Impound Unit (Towing Fund) used for?

A

Holds all administrative fees collected by the Office as a result of impoundment of vehicles. (ARS 28-3511)

GD-12 Section 2

596
Q

What is the Change Fund used for?

A

Holds monies that are used to issue change back to customers when they pay cash for a service. (Judicial Enforcement Division and the Records and Identification Division)

GD-12 Section 2

597
Q

Who will develop and implement a written emergency evacuation plan?

A

The commander of each Office facility and substation

GD-15

598
Q

What 6 things will each emergency evacuation plan include?

A
  1. Rank and position of the person by whose authority an evacuation shall be conducted
  2. Chain of command to be followed during an evacuation
  3. Rank and position of the person responsible for making appropriate notifications
  4. Evacuation routes and locations
  5. Priority list of material items to be evacuated (door cards, files, money)
  6. Floor plans with evacuation routes

GD-15 Section 2

599
Q

Emergency evacuation plans shall be reviewed how often?

A

Annually

GD-15 Section 3

600
Q

Upon an employee’s written request, the immediate supervisor may place the employee in modified duty status for how long?

A

7 cumulative calendar days.

GD-16 Section 3.A

601
Q

An employee who requires an excess of 7 calendar days of modified duty must submit a request to whom?

A

Division commander

GD-16 Section 3.A

602
Q

How long may the division commander place or retain an employee in modified duty status?

A

30 cumulative calendar days.

GD-16 Section 3.B

603
Q

An employee who requires an excess of 30 calendar days of modified duty must submit a request to whom?

A

Bureau commander

GD-16 Section 3

604
Q

What does TDD stand for?

A

Telephone Device for the Deaf

GD-18 Section 2

605
Q

What does and employee/volunteer with an Industrial Injury need to complete?

A

Industrial Injury/Significant Exposure Memorandum

GD-19

606
Q

When an Industrial Injury occurs, the supervisor will email what documents to the Occupational Safety Division? (3)

A
  1. Industrial Injury/Significant Exposure Memorandum
  2. Report of Significant Exposure to Bodily Fluids (if applicable)
  3. Paperwork from medical provider regarding employee’s/volunteer’s work status
    GD-19 Section 1.B
607
Q

How long will safekeeping property be maintained in the Property Management Division?

A

30 days

GE-3 Section 22

608
Q

What is: Language that is an inference, which has no proof.

A

Conclusory:

GF-5

609
Q

What does CAD stand for?

A

Computer Aided Dispatch

GF-5

610
Q

What are the 3 components of an IR?

A
  1. Face sheet
  2. Narrative
  3. Supplement

GF-5

611
Q

How many systems are in the Criminal Information Network?

A

13

GF-1

612
Q

What are the 13 systems in the Criminal Information Network?

A
  1. Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS)
  2. The National Crime Information Center (NCIC)
  3. National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (NLETS)
  4. Arizona Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (ALETS)
  5. Arizona Crime Information Center (ACIC)
  6. Arizona Computerized Criminal History File (ACCH)
  7. Offender Based State Correctional Information System (OBSCIS)
  8. Sex Offender Registration and Notification File (SORN)
  9. Offender Based Tracking System (OBTS)
  10. Motor Vehicle Division of the AZ Department of Transportation
  11. Juvenile Online Tracking System (JOLTS)
  12. The Justice Web Interface (JWI)
  13. IBM What does ACIC stand for?
    Arizona Crime Information Center

GF-1 Section 1.E i2 COPLINK
GF-1 Section 1

613
Q

What does ACIC stand for?

A

Arizona Crime Information Center

GF-1 Section 1.E

614
Q

What does NCIC stand for?

A

National Crime Information Center

GF-1 Section 1.B

615
Q

What does CJIS stand for?

A

Criminal Justice Information System

GF-1 Section 1.A

616
Q

What does ACJIS stand for?

A

Arizona Criminal Justice Information System

GF-1

617
Q

What does TOC stand for?

A

Terminal Operator Certification

GF-1 Section 6

618
Q

Terminal operators and other personnel using information received from the ACJIS and NCIC systems need to be certified when?

A

Within 6 months of hire or assignment.

GF-1 Section 6

619
Q

How often must a terminal operator renew his/her Terminal Operator Certification (TOC)?

A

Every 2 years

GF-1 Section 6

620
Q

What does AZPOST stand for?

A

Arizona Peace Officer Standards and Training Board

GG-2

621
Q

What is: A complete list in clear, chronological order of an individual’s whole career.

A

Curriculum Vitae (CV):

GG-2

622
Q

What is: A notice of an employee’s obligations and rights regarding compelled statements during an administrative investigation.

A

Garrity Warning:

GH-2

623
Q

What are the 4 findings that could be the conclusion of an administrative investigation?

A
  1. Exonerated
  2. Unfounded
  3. Not Sustained
  4. Sustained

GH-2 Section 6

624
Q

What may a supervisor do to improve a situation or prevent a potential negative work performance situation before it develops into a misconduct investigation?

A

Initiate an intervention

GH-2

625
Q

Prior to determining intervention regarding the work performance situation, a supervisor will do what 3 things?

A
  1. Confirm the employee’s conduct does not exceed a Category 1, First or Second Offense or a Category 2, First Offense
  2. Review disciplinary history by accessing the employee’s EIPro Dashboard
  3. Ensure that when considering a coaching, that the employee will not exceed the number of coachings allowed

GH-2

626
Q

External complaints received by phone or in person shall be referred to whom?

A

The on-duty supervisor

GH-2 Section 2.B

627
Q

External complaints involving allegations of excessive force or physical abuse require the supervisor to do what?

A

Make every reasonable attempt to make immediate personal contact with the complainant.

GH-2 Section 2.B

628
Q

What are the steps a supervisor needs to take if they received an external complaint directly?

A
  1. Meet the complainant and audio and video record the interaction
  2. Obtain pertinent information
  3. Complete a External Complaint Blue Team entry
  4. Attach audio and video recordings to the Blue Team entry

GH-2 Section 2.B

629
Q

What does PIR stand for?

A

Preliminary Inquiry Report

GH-2

630
Q

In the event of an inmate complaint alleging employee misconduct, if it is determined that a Preliminary Inquiry Report (PIR) is needed the supervisor will contact who?

A

Custody Bureau Hearing Unit (CBHU) Sergeant

GH-2 Section 2.B

631
Q

How long does a supervisor have to complete a preliminary inquiry regarding an inmate allegation of employee misconduct?

A

As soon as possible, and not to exceed 7 calendar days.

GH-2 Section 2.B

632
Q

In reference to an inmate alleging employee misconduct, what documentation will the supervisor provide to the shift commander for review?

A
  1. Preliminary Inquiry Report (PIR)
  2. Grievance Tracking Coversheet
  3. the original Inmate Grievance form
  4. any other associated information

GH-2 Section 2.B

633
Q

What is the difference between an internal complaint and an employee grievance?

A

Grievance-directed at such matters as employee status, work conditions, or operational procedures

Internal Complaint-directed at alleged misconduct on the part of the employee which may warrant a preliminary inquiry or investigation

GH-2 Section 2.B

634
Q

What is an Administrative Closure used for?

A

To indicate a service complaint was resolved without an administrative investigation.

GH-2 Section 2.B

635
Q

The Office is statutorily obligated to make a good faith effort to complete an administrative investigation within how many days?

A

180 calendar days

GH-2 Section 8

636
Q

What does AIU stand for?

A

Audits and Inspection Unit

GH-4

637
Q

What does BIO stand for?

A

Bureau of Internal Oversight

GH-4

638
Q

What is: A case management system used by the Early Intervention Unit, the Professional Standards Bureau (PSB), and the Compliance Division that tracks and analyzes information. (Complaints, commendations, use of force…etc)

A

IAPro:

GH-4

639
Q

How often will the Audits and Inspection Unit (AIU) auditors conduct a risk assessment for all Office Divisions at a minimum?

A

Once every 3 years

GH-4 Section 4

640
Q

What is: A Blue Team database tool that provides a visual overview of an employee’s status in the EIS and is used to monitor alerts within the system.

A

EI Dashboard

GH-5

641
Q

What is: The Office’s web-based software application that allows employees and supervisors to view incident information in the IAPro case management system.

A

EIPro

GH-5

642
Q

What is: A function within the Blue Team Application that allows command staff to view, access, monitor, and reassign incidents assigned within Blue Team to anyone in their respective division.

A

Incident Management Dashboard

GH-5

643
Q

What are the 5 categories of alerts generated by the Early Identification System? (A/I/M/O/S)

A
  1. Allegation Alert
  2. Incident Type Alert
  3. Monitored Status Alert
  4. Overall Alert
  5. Supervisory Alert

GH-5 Section 4

644
Q

How many types of approved supervisory interventions are there?

A

12

GH-5 Section 5

645
Q

Supervisors shall conduct a review of EIS records within ___ days of all employees upon transfer to their supervision or command.

A

14 days

GH-5 Section 8.C

646
Q

How many reviews will a supervisor make in the EIS records for each non-sworn subordinate?

A

One per month

GH-5 Section 8.C

647
Q

What is: A prisoner or inmate’s unauthorized departure from Office custody, as the result of administrative error.

A

Erroneous Release

GJ-13

648
Q

In the event that a supervisor is notified of an inmate escape, the supervisor will request what from the OIC?

A
  1. Attempt to Locate (ATL) notice
  2. Wanted Flyer

GJ-13 Section 1.E

649
Q

All escapes and attempted escapes of inmates or prisoners from within the confines of a jail shall be reported to whom?

A

Jail Crimes

GJ-13 Section 2

650
Q

An erroneous release shall be processed as what?

A

An escape from custody

GJ-13 Section 5

651
Q

In the case of self surrenders, what does an acceptable ID need to have?

A
  1. Subject’s name
  2. Date of birth
  3. Sex
  4. Clear photo

GJ-15

652
Q

In the event a suspect makes a bomb threat directly to Office personnel through a phone call, what information does the employee need to attempt to obtain?

A
  1. Time threat was received
  2. Time caller indicated the device would detonate
  3. Location of device
  4. What the device looks like
  5. Type of device
  6. How the device will be detonated
  7. Whether the caller personally placed the device
  8. Why the device was placed
  9. Voice characteristics, indicating sex, age, or accent
  10. Exact wording of the threat
  11. Description of any background noise

GJ-22 Section 1

653
Q

What does SART stand for?

A

Sexual Assault Response Team

GJ-28

654
Q

What is: Responders consisting of the PREA Coordinator, PREA Managers, Jail Crimes Investigators, the shift commander, and Correctional Health Services (CHS) staff, who may be utilized to assess a PREA incident.

A

Sexual Assault Response Team (SART)

GJ-28

655
Q

What is: An invasion of privacy of an inmate or prisoner by an employee or contractor for reasons unrelated to official duties. (EX:peering at inmate who is using the toilet, requiring an inmate to expose his or her buttocks, genitals, or breasts…etc)

A

Voyeurism:

GJ-28

656
Q

PREA Compliance Managers are required to do what?

A

Conduct at least one random inmate PREA interview per month.

GJ-28 Section 8.F

657
Q

When a supervisor is made aware of an allegation of sexual abuse, who will he notify? (4)

A
  1. Shift commander
  2. PREA Compliance Manager
  3. Jail Crimes Investigators
  4. Division commander

GJ-28 Section 9

658
Q

In the event of a PREA incident, the supervisor shall ensure that what documentation is completed? (6)

A
  1. PREA Initial Report
  2. IR
  3. JCN
  4. DAR
  5. OJ
  6. JMS

GJ-28 Section 9.A

659
Q

The PREA Initial Report shall be completed within how long?

A

24 hours

GJ-28 Section 9.A

660
Q

True or False?

Consensual incidents of a sexual nature are not PREA incidents.

A

True.

GJ-28 Section 9.C

661
Q

Who shall complete the PREA After Action Report at the conclusion of every sexual abuse investigation?

A

PREA Compliance Manager

GJ-28 Section 13

662
Q

What does NMI stand for?

A

Neuromuscular Incapacitation

GJ-30

663
Q

What is: An inability of the brain’s electric signals to reach and control body muscles, with the overall effect of being involuntarily immobilized and incapacitated.

A

Neuromuscular Incapacitation (NMI)

GJ-30

664
Q

What does CEW stand for?

A

Conducted Electrical Weapon

GJ-30

665
Q

Where should the TASER CEW be targeted on a subject?

A
  1. Back, below the neck
  2. Front, lower center mass

GJ-30 Section 4.A

666
Q

How often will every Office and personally owned TASER CEW be downloaded?

A

Once every 6 months

GJ-30 Section 7

667
Q

When will spark testing be conducted on the issued TASER CEW devices?

A
  1. Every 24 hours
  2. Prior to the beginning of shift (individually issued)

GJ-30 Section 9

668
Q

What does CID stand for?

A

Central Information Display

GJ-30 Section 9.A

669
Q

All Honor Guard unit members shall serve a probationary period of how long?

A

6 months

GJ-32 Section 3

670
Q

What does AED stand for?

A

Automated External Defibrillator

GJ-34

671
Q

What does CPR stand for?

A

Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation

GJ-34

672
Q

All AEDs shall be inspected how often?

A

Once per shift.

GJ-34 Section 3

673
Q

Who will a supervisor contact if an AED’s rescue ready light is red or if it is producing an audible warning tone?

A

CPR Coordinator

GJ-34 Section 3

674
Q

What is: An opioid receptor antagonist and antidote for opioid overdose produced in intramuscular, intranasal, and intravenous forms.

A

Naloxone (Narcan)

GJ-38

675
Q

The organizational structure of the Office is divided into 3 primary commands, which consist of what?

A
  1. Office of the Sheriff
  2. Chief Deputy
  3. Director

GK-1

676
Q

According to the organizational structure of the Office, the Office of the Sheriff consists of what 4 entities? (S/P/P/C)

A
  1. Sheriff
  2. Professional Standards Division
  3. Public Information Office
  4. Communications Coordinator

GK-1

677
Q

What does ESI stand for?

A

Electronically Stored Information

GM-1

678
Q

What is: A person with whom a detention officer may come in contact, who will voluntarily provide information to the Office that may begin or further an investigation.

A

Source of Information (SOI)

GN-8

679
Q

What does SOI stand for?

A

Source of Information

GN-8