Imported Fevers Flashcards

(141 cards)

1
Q

Key elements of a travel history

A
  • where did you go? (be as exact as possible, include stop-overs, rural vs urban)
  • when did you go? (exact dates and timings of symptoms; ask first about last few weeks and then last few years)
  • why did you go? (VFR - visiting friends and relatives?)
  • what did you do? (activities / interactions)
  • what pre-travel vaccines/malaria prophylaxis did you take?
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2
Q

When do malaria symptoms present?

A

falciparum: within 1 month (7d - 3 months)

non falciparum: some months after (weeks to months)

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3
Q

Areas with viral haemorrhagic fever?

A

sub saharan africa

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4
Q

Areas with malaria

A

SSA
latin america and caribbean
south east Asia
central and South Asia

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5
Q

Incubation period of viral hemorrhagic fevers

A

3-21 d

most people develop Sx within 7-10d

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6
Q

VHF

A

viral hemorrhagic fevers

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7
Q

Ways to get exposed to tropical diseases?

A

ticks
animals
tsetse fly
cruise ships or resorts
freshwater
game park
inhalation of dust or faeces
sexual contact
contaminated food or water
raw food
unpasteurised milk
bush meat

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8
Q

MERS mortality in relation to sars-cov-2 and associated animal

A

much higher mortality

from camels

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9
Q

% poeple returning from SSA with tropical illness?

A

70%

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10
Q

What type of travel is at higher risk of tropical infections?
What infections are common from returnees in SE Asia?

A
  • Risk of tropical infection higher among VFRs (visiting friends and relatives)
  • Non-tropical were common among returnees from SE Asia (45%)
  • but enteric fever (34%) and dengue (20%) remain important
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11
Q

why are VFRs ar high risk of tropical infections?

A

may be in more rural areas
may not be as careful with prophylaxis
may think they have immunity but this immunity may have disappeared after not being in the country for some years

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12
Q

Risk assess for VHF

A

VHF within 21d of return
also check for malaria

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13
Q

undifferentiated fever

A

fever without focal signs where the fever could be coming from

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14
Q

RDT for malaria

A

now increasingly used

rapid tests

Paracheck-Pf® (detect plasmodial HRP-II)
OptiMAL-IT (parasite LDH)

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15
Q

falciparum malaria on smear

A

‘headphones’ - 2 black dots connected

more than one parasite in one RBC

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16
Q

Management of severe falciparum Malaria

A

IV artesunate

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17
Q

parasitaemia - why is it important to know in malaria?

A

will tell you if it is severe or not

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18
Q

which group is mainly affectedly deaths from malaria?

A

African children <5 account for 80% of all malaria deaths in the region

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19
Q

Malaria with greatest mortality

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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20
Q

Plasmodium vivax

A

the most common of the less virulent (non-falciparum) species

causes milder disease
dominant in endemic areas outside SSA e.g. southeast asia

causes tertian malaria (fever spikes every 48h)

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21
Q

plasmodium falciparum

A

most virulent and causese the most severe disease

dominant in Africa

commonest type of malaria

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22
Q

life cycle of malaria

A
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23
Q

Mx of malaria caused by P.vivax and P. ovale

A

chloroquine + primaquine (check G6PD first before giving primaquine)

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24
Q

Prevention and pre-travel advice in malaria

A

risk assess - geographical + individual (pregnancy/accommodation/season)

prevent mosquito bites (repellants/nets)

prophylaxis (malarone/mefloquine/doxycycline; varies by region)

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25
Presentation of malaria
10-15d post bite in cyclical fevers chills, high fevers and sweats
26
What gives you a dx of severe malaria?
high parasitaemia (>2% // >5% in non immune or >10%) OR schizont - altered consciousness with or without seizures - respiratory distress or ARDS - circulatory collapse - metabolic acidosis - renal failure, haemoglobinuria (blackwater fever) - hepatic failure - coagulopathy +/- DIC - severe anaemia or massive IV haemolytic - hypoglycamiea
27
Why not give too many fluids in malaria?
???
28
Schizont
RBC with multiple parasites in it one schizont give you a diagnosis of severe malaria
29
Thick and thin blood smear
Field's or Giemsa stain Thick: screen parasites (sensitive) think: identify species and quantify parasitaemia
30
Malaria antigen detection tests
Paracheck-Pf (detect plasmodial ...) OptiMMAL-IT (parasite LDH)
31
Management of malaria
Falciparum: - severe: 1. artesunate IV 2. quinine IV - mild: oral ACT (Riamet/Co-artem - artemisinin combination therapies, eat with fatty meals) Non-falciparum - chloroquine + primaquine (check G6PD)
32
Mx of severe malaria
ABCDEFG (correct hypoglycaemia, cautious rehydration avoiding overload, organ support) IV artesunate In preference to IV quinine Daily parasitaemia then PO follow on eg with ACT (artemesin combination therapy (riamet - Artemether + lumefantrine)
33
SE of IV quinine
cinchonism arrhythmia hyperinsulinaemia
34
SE of IV artesunate
delayed haemolysis (make sure to FU a few weeks after treatment!!)
35
What should you check before starting chloroquine + primaquine?
G6PD otherwise can get severe haemolysis
36
What is dengue transmitted by?
Aedes mosquito mainly: Aedes aegypti
37
How many seroptyeps of dengue?
4 (1-4)
38
where does dengue replicate?
midgut
39
prevention of dengue
use mosquito repellents cover your skin (long sleeves, nets etc) in people who have had dengue before: vaccination
40
climates with dengue
urban and semi urban tropical and subtropical climamtes early morning and dusk/twilight -> cover skin particularly then Vaccine: Dengvaxia (licensed 2015, not for travellers, only for people who have had dengue before) mosquito control (on a governmental etc level)
41
how many dengue cases of dengue in UK / year
340 NOTIFIABLE
42
Dengue incubation and disease duration
4-7 d incubation duration 2-7 dy
43
sx of dengue
high fever (40) severe headache (retro-orbital) myalgia/arthralgia N&V blanching rash (sunburn, white when you press) Maculopapular, measles-like exanthem (2-5d post fever onset) thrombocytopenia Most are mild/ asymptomatic – get better in 1-2 weeks but can be severe
44
testing for dengue
blood/urine PCR (after 4 days) serology after 5-7d - IgM: (cross reacts with other viruses - IgA can be useful - IgG not very useful convalescent serology 2w later to check RDT (rapid diagnostic tests - Not the best yet)
45
issues with dengue serology
X-reaction with other flaviviruses IgG (JE, yellow fever) have to wait 5-7d to do serology
45
Vaccines for dengue
Dengvaxia licensed in 2015 not for travellers
46
Figmothermic bradycardia
fever with no tachy / fever with bradycardia
47
Himalaya peak temperatures - which pathogen and what are they ?
typical of salmonella typhi temperature goes up and down
48
What causes enteric fever?
salmonella typhi and paratyphi
49
transmission of enteric fever
faeco oral (only humans can be infected, no known animal reservior, some humans can be carriers (Typhoid Mary))
50
Diagnosis of typhoid fever
blood, BM and stool cultures RDT - false +ve, used in low income settings only
51
where is enteric fever common?
10x more likely on Indian subcontinent
52
Clinical presentation of enteric fever
gradual onset of high, prolonged fever headache rose spots (rare) constipation dry cough
53
untreated typhoid course
week1: fever, fluctuations with bradycardia, malaise, headache, cough, epistaxis week 2: extreme fatigue, high fever and plateau, bradycardia, delirium, raised ALT, HS-megaly wee 3: complications: intestinal haemorrhage due to bleeding, congested Peyer's patches, intestinal perforation in the distal ileum, septicaemia, resp complications, encephalitis
54
Which mosquito spreads malaria?
female Anopheles mosquito
55
Fever in a returning traveller - causes
- tropical diseases (e.g. malaria, typhoid, dengue, VHF; bacterial disease e.g. cholera, E.coli) - common UK causes (UTI, Pneumonia, influenza) - STIs (e.g. HIV seroconversion)
56
Resource to check for current outbreaks
Promed NaTHNaC / travel health pro
57
Which type of salmonella is only seen in humans?
S. Typhi it is NOT zoonotic the only reservoir is in humans
58
What are the different types of salmonella?
typhoidal - S. typhi - S. paratyphi Non-typhoidal - S. enteritidis - S. cholerasuis - S. typhimurium
59
What type of pathogens are salmonella species? What do they produce on a certain growth medium?
anaerobic gram -ve bacilli produces H2S (hydrogen sulfide) on TSI agar
60
how long does S. typhi vaccination last for?
3 years
61
Who is the S. typhi vaccination recommended for?
traveling to high-risk areas (East and Southeast Asia, South and Central America, Africa
62
How does typhoid fever present?
Incubation period: 6-30d Week 1 fever fluctuations Relative bradycardia Constipation or diarrhea Headache dry cough Week 2 Persistent high fever (no chills) and plateau- mostly unresponsive to antipyretics Rose-spots (lower chest and abdomen) - 1/3 raised ALT EPISTAXIS (in 25%) Typhoid tongue: greyish/yellowish-coated tongue with red edges Nonspecific abdominal pain and headache or RLQ pain (terminal ileum) Yellow-green diarrhea, or obstipation and bowel obstruction (as a result of swollen Peyer patches in the ileum) Neurological symptoms (delirium, coma) -> due to Week 3 Clinical features of week 2 Additional possible complications include: Gastrointestinal ulceration with bleeding and perforation Hepatosplenomegaly In rare cases: sepsis, meningitis, myocarditis, and renal failure From week 4 improvement (or complications)
63
What pathogen causes enteric fever?
S. typhi
64
Pathophysiology of typhoid fever.
- high infective dose (10^5 organisms) needed to cause disease (ORAL uptake) - uptake by Peyer's patches in the distal ileum (migrates via M cells through the epithelium and into the Peyer patches) - Infection of macrophages → nonspecific symptoms (can survive IC -> facultative IC parasite with flagella) - Spread from macrophages to the bloodstream → septicemia → systemic disease - Migration back to intestine → excretion in feces
65
transmission of salmonella
faeco-oral S. typhi humans are the only reservoir for other types can also get if from raw eggs/undercooked chicken food prepared buy carriers contaminated water
66
Prevention of typhoid fever?
- Sanitation & hygiene - Vaccination – partially protective for S.typhi but no cover for S. paratyphi
67
Mx of typhoid fever
ORS (oral rehydration solution) First Ceftriaxone IV Then give Azithromycin PO (depending on resistance)
68
Complications of typhoid fever
- GI perforation - septicaemia as a result of perf - encephalitis - respiratory complications - 2-5% Chronic salmonella carrier (increased risk of gallbladder cancer)
69
Why is chronic carriage of salmonella an issue?
increased risk of gallbladder cancer
70
Ix for typhoid fever
blood and stool cultures FBC LFTs (raised ALT)
71
Distinguishing feature of enteric fever
Sphygmothermic dissociation (relative bradycardia) + fluctuating fever which then plateaus (not very responsive to antipyretics)
72
Who is at increased risk of salmonella?
people with SCD/asplenic patients - are at increased risk of salmonella infections - can get salmonella osteomyelitis
73
areas where travellers can get enteric fever from
tropics & subtropics
74
distinguishing feature of anopheles mosquito
the only one that feeds with thorax in the air
75
What are arboviruses and what are some examples?
viruses spread through can anthropod vector such as a mosquito (blood sucking) RNA viruses e.g. West Nile virus; Chikungunya; Zika; Dengue;
76
subtypes of arboviruses
bunyaviridae (e.g. hantavirus, rift valley fever) togaviridae (e.g. chikungunya) flaviviridae (e.g. dengue, yellow fever, zika)
77
Do you have to isolate someone with dengue?
no because you get it via mosquitoes
78
is dengue notifiable?
yes
79
Leptospirosis - which animal associated with?
rats
80
Issue with dengue reinfection
risk: dengue haemorrhagic fever/dengue shock syndrome if infected with different serotype Antibody dependent enhancement is the underlying mechanism you get cytokine storm rarely seen in travellers
81
Mx of dengue
supportive generally self limiting in 1-2 weeks
82
Do travellers get dengue haemorrhagic fever?
generally no they can get dengue but DHF is uncommon
83
Do travellers get dengue haemorrhagic fever?
generally no
84
What happens with a sample that you take with ?dengue/other tropical diseases?
gets sent to RIPL (rare and imported pathogens laboratory) there they test for everything from the area the patient travelled to you still give them some clinical information and what you suspect so that they can interpret the findings accordingly
85
Why is dengue associated with water?
because mosquitoes (aedes) are found near water
86
which blood bottle for malaria thick and thin films
EDTA (purple)
87
Features of severe falciparum malaria (RELEVANT FOR FINALS)
Impaired consciousness (GCS<15) or seizures renal impairment acidosis (pH <7.3) hypoglycaemia (<2.2 mmol/L) pulmonary oedema or ARDS anaemia (Hb <8g/dL) spontaneous bleeding/DIC shock (BP <90/60 mmHg) haemoglobinuria (without G6PD) parasitaaemia >2% (WHO >10%) pregnancy vomiting
88
what pathogen type causes malaria
plasmodium = protozoal infection (unicellular eukaryotes)
89
Life cycle of plasmodium (malaria)
involves mosquitoes (female anopheles) and humans (RBCs and liver; initial replication in liver then asexual reproduction in RBCs) In humans: Erythrocytic and Exoerythrocytic stages Undergo asexual reproduction in the erythrocytes
90
Features on microscopy of different plasmodium species
Falcip – double dotted rings (chromatin dots on some rings) Vivax – schuffners dots may be present Malariae – mature schizonts have daisy head appearance. Squarish appearance of ring forms Ovale – enlarged red cells. Comet forms P. knowlesi
91
return from tropics, sunburn rash, low platelets, fever - dx?
dengue
92
Malaria disease course
Infection → asymptomatic parasitemia → uncomplicated illness → severe malaria → death
93
Which drug is used to eradicate liver hypnozoites in P. vivax and P. ovale malaria?
Primaquine
94
The Plasmodium species associated with dormant hypnozoites in the liver are....
Plasmodium vivax Plasmodium ovale
95
Which patients are relatively resistant to malaria?
sickle cell trait
96
What are dormant malaria plasmodium stage in the liver called?
hypnozoite
97
what pathogen causes anthrax? what type of pathogen is it
bacillus anthraces gram-positive spore-forming bacterium
98
Mx of anthrax
doxycycline / ciprofloxacin
99
Signs of anthrax
pulmonary: massive lymphadenopathy + mediastinal haemorrhage cutaneous: painless round black lesions + rim of oedema
100
SE of RIPE
Rifampicin - orange secretions, raised ALT (if 5x upper normal stop, if 3x then monitor and continue) Isoniazid - peripheral neuropathy Pyrazinamide - hepatitis Ethambutol - ophthalmoplegia, loss of colour vision (check CV before starting)
101
what is a marker of someone with TB being infectious?
+ve auramine stain of sputum
102
why are AFB test positive in TB?
they have a mycolic acid layer in the test they are heated up, stain gets in and as the layer forms again the stain does not leave in organisms without this layer the stain simply gets out
103
Mx of latent TB
R+I for 3 months OR isoniazid for 6 months
104
What if someone on TB meds is not getting better?
have a high level of suspicion for ddx usually people respond well to anti-TB meds also check for resistance
105
common types of extra pulmonary TB
LN CNS peritoneal
106
in what TB cases should you add prednisolone for treatment and how long?
CNS and pericardial TB high dose pred for 6-10 w
107
imaging in TB
CXR initially often CT scan is useful
108
what are the issues with strep pneumoniae blood cultures?
S. pneumoniae undergoes autolysis additionally the best time to take blood culture is 1h before onset of fever and this would rarely be done
109
What % people have Staph on their skin and what % of that is MRSA?
20% 20% of them
110
mortality of S aureus sepsis
30-40%
111
how caan you get Staph aureus sepsis?
IVDU cuts/grazes diabetic foot ulcers psoriasis
112
name g-ve rods
E coli Klebsiella citrobacter
113
How long after TB Mx is initiated are patients hopefully no longer smear +ve and infective?
2w
114
clinical presentation of chikugunya
Fever !!joint pain (severe bilateral polyarthralgia) periarticular oedema headache maculopapular 089 rash
115
How can you get chikungunya>
Aedes mosquito (aegypti > albopictus). Vertical
116
causative agent of chikungunya and pathogen type
CHIKV. Genus: Alphavirus of Family Togaviridae. RNA
117
Mx of chikungunya
Mainly supportive. Simple analgesics (paracetamol/ NSAID) but avoid aspirin.
118
Ix for chikungunya
PCR or IgM
119
What confection can you get in chikungunya?
dengue both by aedes mosquito
120
complications of chikungunya
Main is severe chronic arthralgia for weeks/ months
121
Where is chikungunya seen
Widespread Africa, Americas, Asia
122
Where is chikungunya seen
Widespread Africa, Americas, Asia
123
incubation period for chikungunya
Inc: 3-7 days (range 1-10)
124
Which infections are associated with Guillain Barre syndrome?
Campylobacter jejuni Zika CMV influenza EBV HIV
125
Where are VHF mainly?
SSA
126
Mx of leptospirosis
Antibiotics: doxycycline, ceftriaxone, penicillin
127
Mx of Strep pneumonia sepsis
PENICILLIN as high a dose as you can e.g. 12g/d BenPen
128
Ix for leptospirosis
PCR of DNA in serum, urine, CSF IgM ELISA (false positive with EBV, CMV, viral hepatitis)
129
Epidemiology of leptospirosis
Tropical, subtropical & temperate e.g. sewage/ after floods/ rural areas/ water sports
130
transmission of leptospirosis
excreted in dog/rat urine can invade abraded skin or mucous membranes penetrates broken skin mouth/eyes/nose/wounds swimming in contaminated water
131
What pathogen causes leptospirosis
zoonotic disease caused by gram-negative Leptospira bacteria (L. interrogans) obligate, aerobic, motile spirochetes many subgroups can invade abraded skin or mucous membranes
132
Sx of leptospirosis
early phase: mild and characterized by nonspecific symptoms (e.g., high fever, headache, and myalgia (thighs and lower back)) second phase: meningismus and raised WCC in CSF, correlattes with IgM generation CONJUNCTIVAL HAEMORRHAGES Most cases -> symptoms resolve spontaneously after 1/52 10% of cases -> disease progresses rapidly to a severe form (icterohemorrhagic leptospirosis, or Weil disease), which typically presents with a triad of jaundice, bleeding manifestations (haemorrhages in organs), and AKI +haemolytic anaemia +mental status change
133
How do you get anthrax?
zoonotic infection in: cows, goats, and sheep transmission by contact with infected animals or infected animal products
134
Lyme disease - how do you get it?
e.g. hiking transmitted via ticks (Ixodes scapularis tick) - anthropod-borne or deer
135
Neuroborreliosis mx
IV ceftriaxone for 2-4w
136
Mx of Lyme disease
doxycycline for 2-3 weeks or: amoxillin, cefuroxime, azithromycin
137
Lyme diseases dx
clinical (esp. if erythema migrans is present) ELISA (sensitive) and Western blot (specific) antibodies for IgM (2-4 weeks) and IgG (4-6 weeks.) PCR of blood/ CSF but imperfect.
138
vector for lyme disease
Ixodes scapularis also: deer
139
What pathogen causes lyme diseases?
Borrelia spp. (spirochaete - bacteria) e.g. burgdorferi in USA (other types more common in Europe and asia i.e. B. afzelii and B. garinii)
140
Presentation of lyme disease
Can be asymptomatic Early localized infection: in 80% this is Erythema migrans rash – can be large and then clear centrally ‘bull’s eye rash.’ May have viral symptoms. Early disseminated infection: through blood/; lymph – in 10-20% rah, myalgia, arthralgia. 10-15% untreated get neuroborrleiosis – lymphocytic meningitis, cranial neuritis, radiculopathy, mononeuritis multiplex May cause heart Lyme carditis: palpitations, dizziness, fainting, HF Late disseminated infection: after several months; multisystem. In 60% of untreated can lead to join pain/ effusions/ Lyme encephalopathy/ encephalomyelitis. ACA – Acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans