IMS Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following modifications is common in secretory proteins but does not occur in eukaryotic mRNA?

a) addition of poly-A tail
b) capping with 7-methylguanine
c) glycolysation
d) splicic) ng

Explain

A

Glycolysation

Explain:
a, b and d are all examples of post transcription modifications in mRNA

Glycolysation is the controlled enzymatic modification of an organic molecule, especially a protein, by addition of a sugar molecule

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2
Q

What kind of secretion is based on vacuole-based exocytosis (as seen in salivary glands or the pancreas)?

a) Apocrine
b) Eccrine
c) Holocrine
d) Merocrine

Explain

A

Merocrine

Merocrine glands secrete product through exocytosis of secretory vacuoles - no part of cell is lost in process

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3
Q

Which of the following hormones is essential for stimulating the production of platelets?

a) Erythropoietin
b) Granulocyte colony stimulating factor
c) Thrombopoietin
d) Thyroid hormone

A

Thrombopoietin

Thrombopoietin is a glycoprotein hormone produced by the liver and kidney which regulates the production of platelets. It stimulates the production and differentiation of megakaryocytes, the bone marrow cells that bud off large numbers of platelets.

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4
Q

What does Prasugrel block in order to inhibit platelet aggregation?

A

ADP binding to P2Y receptor

Prasugrel is a drug used to prevent formation of blood clots. It is a platelet inhibitor and an irreversible antagonist of P2Y₁₂ ADP receptors.

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5
Q

Which characteristic of a drug predicts that it will be easily absorbed across a cell membrane?

A

Lipophilic, unionised

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6
Q

Which of the following antibiotics targets bacterial ribosomes?

a) Chloramphenicol
b) Penicillin
c) Rifampin
d) Trimethoprim

Explain

A

Chloramphenicol

Chloramphenicol: targets bacterial ribosomes to inhibit protein synthesis

Penicillin: prevents new cell wall formation so bacteria dies

Rifampin: inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase, the enzyme responsible for DNA transcription

Trimethoprim: antibiotic that prevents bacteria producing folate so bacteria cannot produce DNA

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7
Q

During an ART (assisted reproductive technology) treatment cycle, hCG (human Chorionic Gonadotropin) by subcutaneous injection is used for:

a) induction of ovulation
b) luteal phase support
c) ovarian stimulation
d) pituitary down regulation

A

Luteal phase support

Providing hormonal supplementation during the luteal phase with either progesterone itself, or human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which stimulates progesterone production, may improve implantation. Due to similar structure, hCG binds to same receptor as LH.

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8
Q

Which of these events occur during the second meiotic division?

a) DNA replication
b) Pairing between chromosomal homologues
c) Recombination between chromosomal homologues
d) Separation of sister chromatids

A

Separation of sister chromatids

The first meiotic division separates pairs of homologous chromosomes to halve the chromosome number (diploid → haploid)
The second meiotic division separates sister chromatids (created by the replication of DNA during interphase).

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9
Q

Which statement best describes how viral antigens are displayed on the cell surface of an infected cell? Viral peptides are loaded onto:

a) CD4+ receptors
b) CD8+ receptors
c) MHC class I molecules
d) MHC class II molecules

A

?

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10
Q

Skeletal muscle fibres are repaired by which of the following cells?

a) fibroblasts
b) myocytes
c) myotubes
d) satellite cells

A

Satellite cells

Paraxial mesodermal cells adjacent to the neural tube form blocks of cells called somites. Skeletal muscles, excluding those of the head and limbs, develop from mesodermal somites. Somites give rise to myoblasts.

A myoblast is a muscle-forming stem cell that migrates to different regions in the body and then fuses to form a myotube.

A myotube is formed from many different myoblast cells so it contains many nuclei, but has a continuous cytoplasm. This is why skeletal muscle cells are multinucleate (cardiac and smooth muscle cells are not).

A satellite cell is similar to a myoblast because it is a type of stem cell; however, satellite cells are incorporated into muscle cells and facilitate the protein synthesis required for repair and growth.

Fibroblasts: are the major cells responsible for the production of collagen

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11
Q

During replication of DNA, the synthesis of DNA on the lagging strand takes place in segments. What are these segments called?

A

Okazaki fragments

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12
Q

Which of the following controls the binding of oxygen to haemoglobin?

a) At high altitude, levels of bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) in red blood cells rise, decreasing the affinity of Hb for oxygen
b) Decreased pH of blood increases the affinity of Hb for oxygen
c) High levels of carbon monoxide in blood increase the affinity of Hb for oxygen
d) Increased lactic acid concentration in blood increases the affinity of Hb for oxygen

A

At high altitude, levels of bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) in red blood cells rise, decreasing the affinity of Hb for oxygen

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13
Q

Which of the following is a feature of the primary structure of collagen?

a) every other amino acid residue is glycine
b) It contains a high proportion of hydrophobic amino acid residues
c) It contains hydroxylated proline and lysine residues
d) It is abnormal in patients with low vitamin D levels

A

?

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14
Q

Which of the following is a glycerophospholipid?

a) Galactocerebroside
b) Ganglioside GM2
c) Phosphatidylserine
d) Sphingomyelin

A

Phosphatidylserine

Phosphatidylserine is a phospholipid—more specifically a glycerophospholipid—which consists of two fatty acids attached in ester linkage to the first and second carbon of glycerol and serine attached through a phosphodiester linkage to the third carbon of the glycerol

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15
Q

Which of the following procedures is used as a common technique for karyotyping using light microscopy?

a) C-banding
b) FISH
c) G banding
d) Q banding

A

FISH

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16
Q

Concerning the spinal cord, which of the following is true?

a) Microglia are involved in neurotransmission
b) Oligodendrocytes myelinate axons
c) The cell bodies of neurons are found in the white matter of the spinal cord
d) “White matter” is so-called because it looks white in sections with Weigert’s stain

A

Oligodendrocytes myelinate axons in the CNS

c) Cell bodies of neurones in CNS are found in GREY matter (stains up white due to lack of myelin)
d) White matter in CNS contains axons (stains up dark due to lots of myelin)

17
Q

In competitive inhibition of an enzyme, which statement is true?

a) The apparent Km of the enzyme is not affected by the presence of inhibitor
b) The inhibitor always binds irreversibly to the enzyme
c) The inhibitor prevents the substrate binding to the enzyme
d) The Vmax value for the enzyme changes in the presence of inhibitor

A

The inhibitor prevents the substrate binding to the enzyme

Competitive inhibition:

  • Km raised (increased [S] required to reach Vmax)
  • Vmax unchanged (inhibitor swamped out at high substrate conc)

N.B. Km is the concentration of substrate which permits the enzyme to achieve half Vmax. Vmax is the reaction rate when the enzyme is fully saturated by substrate.

18
Q

Which of the following is a type of tapeworm?

a) Entamoeba histolytica
b) Schistosoma haematobium
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
d) Taenia saginata

A

Taenia Saginata

a) Entamoeba histolytica: belongs to Amoebae –> type of protozoa
b) Schistosoma haematobium: belongs to Trematodes (flukes) –> type of Helminths (worms)
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae: gram positive bacteria
d) Taenia Saginata: belongs to cestodes (tapeworms) –> type of Helminths (worms)

19
Q

Which of the following is a function of the lungs?

a) act as reservoir of blood
b) Conversion of angiotensin II to angiotensin III in the regulation of blood pressure and volume
c) Extract CO2 from the atmosphere
d) Maintain acid-base balance by absorption of oxygen

A

Act as reservoir of blood

b) Lungs involved in conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II by ACE
d) Lungs maintain acid-base balance by exhaling CO2

20
Q

If a submariner exits a broken submarine at depth what is he/she advised to do?

a) Exhale as quickly as possible as surfacing
b) Hold nose and mouth shut as surfacing
c) Hold nose shut as surfacing
d) Take a deep breath and hold it as surfacing

A

?

21
Q

The functional residual capacity is the sum of which two lung volumes?

A

ERV and residual volume

22
Q

You have been asked to see a patient in the emergency department. The blood gas results performed by the nurse prior to your assessment are as follows: pH 7.27; pCO2 8.22 kPa; pO2 9.02 kPa. Which acid-base abnormality is this patient likely to have?

A

Respiratory acidosis

23
Q

In which zone of the lung are you most likely to have a collapsed blood vessel?

A

Zone 1

At top of lungs alveolar are almost fully open (squashes vessels). Pressure inside alveolus is higher than pressure of blood flowing through vessels.

P alveolar > P arterial > P venous (P out > P us > P ds)

Good ventilation but no perfusion, very small in healthy people