In Class Clicker Questions Flashcards
(202 cards)
1
Q
Mycology is the study of
- Mycobacterium
- Mycoplasma
- Fungus
- Protozoa
- Virus
A
- Fungus
2
Q
Which of the following images is bacteria?
A
B
3
Q
Which one of the following is a cell wall component unique to bacteria?
- Proteoglycan
- Peptidoglycan
- Lipopolysaccharide
- Mycolic acid
A
2
4
Q
Cell wall component unique to gram positive bacteria:
- Lipopolysaccharide
- Teichoic Acid
- Mycolic acid
- Peptidoglycan
A
2
5
Q
Cell wall component unique to gram negative bacteria:
- Lipopolysaccharide
- Teichoic Acid
- Mycolic acid
- Peptidoglycan
A
1
6
Q
Gram positive staining in some bacteria is due to the presence of
- Peptidoglycan layer
- Teichoic acid
- A thick peptidoglycan layer
- Thick outer membrane
A
3
7
Q
Acid fast positive staining in Mycobacteria is due to the presence of
- Lipopolysaccharide
- Teichoic acid
- Mycolic acid
- Peptidoglycan
A
3
8
Q
Which one of the following processes is the least likely virulence mechanism in bacteria?
- Bacterial movement using flagella
- Bacterial attachment using fimbriae
- Biofilm production and attachment to surfaces
- Bacterial protein production by ribosomes
A
4
9
Q
Humoral immune response is measured by screening for
- Antibodies
- Antigen
- T cells
- Macrophages
A
1
10
Q
Ability of a test to accurately identify an infected animal as positive is known as
- Sensitivity
- Specificity
A
1
11
Q
Ability of a test to accurately identify a non-infected animal as negative is known as
- Sensitivity
- Specificity
A
2
12
Q
Which of the following is not acceptable practice in sample collection
- Urine collected by free catch
- Urine collected by catheter
- Urine collected by cystocentesis
- Urine collected and shipped to the lab in a syringe with a needle attached to it
A
4
13
Q
Which method of urine collection will give you the best results?
- Urine collected by free catch
- Urine collected by catheter
- Urine collected by cystocentesis
A
3
14
Q
Which of the following statement is incorrect about antibody titer
- It is the last (highest) dilution of the serum at which antibodies are detected in a test
- Determination of antibody titer can be used for diagnosis of infectious diseases
- Detection of antibody titer at any stage of infection is sufficient to detect an active infection
- A four fold increase between serum samples collected at acute and convalescent stages of disease is indicative of an active infection
A
3
15
Q
TRUE/FALSE.
Results from Serum testing for brucellosis animal X; serum titer = 1/100
Animal Y; serum titer 1/800
Interpretation:
Animal Y has higher levels of antibodies than animal X.
A
TRUE
16
Q
Which will be the least likely scientific factor to be considered in deciding antimicrobial therapy?
- Know the drugs
- Know the microbes
- Know the patient
- Know the client
A
4
17
Q
TRUE/FALSE
In general, drugs with lower MIC values are better choices for treatment.
A
TRUE
18
Q
TRUE/FALSE
Use of a pure culture of bacteria in antimicrobial susceptibility testing is critical for obtaining accurate results.
A
TRUE
19
Q
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding antimicrobial susceptibility testing?
- MIC is the lowest concentration of antimicrobial agent which can inhibit growth of bacteria
- Published break point are required for interpretation of AST results
- MIC can be measured in E-Test
- MIC can be accurately measured in Disk diffusion test (Kirby Bauer tests)
A
4
20
Q
Which of the following antimicrobial does not belong to B-Lactam group
- Ampicillin
- Imipenem
- Cephaloporins
- Enrofloxacin
A
4
21
Q
Mechanism of action B-lactams group is by
- Inhibiting protein synthesis
- Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
- Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis
- Inhibiting efflux pumps
A
2
22
Q
One of the adverse effects of using B-lactams such as penicillin in certain individuals is
- Development of methicillin resistance
- Development of clindamycin resistance
- Type IV hypersensitivity
- Type I hypersensitivity
A
4
23
Q
The most common canine staphylococcus isolate is
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Staphylococcus pseudintermedius
- Staphylococcus hyicus
- Staphylococcus epidermidids
A
2
24
Q
Blackie, a 5 year old female dog was presented to the vet clinic with unresolving skin lesions. Purulent and bloody exudate was oozing out of some of the lesions. Which of the following Staphylococcus species is most commonly involved I this type of cases in dogs?
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Staphylococcus psuedintermedius
- Staphylococcus hyicus
- Staphylococcus epidermidis
A
2
25
A skin lesion in a dog, the most likely pathogen in this case is?
1. S. aureus
2. S. pseudintermedius
3. S. hyicus
4. S. epidermidis
2
26
The bacteria in this image is most likely
1. Streptococcus
2. Staphyllococcus
3. Rhodococcus
4. Micrococcus
1
27
What disease will be at the top of your differential diagnosis list when a horse is presented to you with this lesion?
1. Pyoderma
2. Strangles
3. Scarlet fever
4. Lymphadenitis
2
28
Which of the following is a streptococcus species belonging to the lancefield group G and is reported to cause fatal illness in cats?
1. S. Equi subsp. Zooepidemicus
2. S. Felis
3. S. Canis
4. S. Suis
3
29
Which of the following streptococcus is an important pathogen in in fish and is zoonotic
1. S.pneumonia
2. S.suis
3. S. iniae
4. S. pyogenes
3
30
TRUE/FALSE
Clinicians must consider vancomycin as a last resort antimicrobial agent to treat infections because of the emergence of vancomycin resistant enterococcus sp.
TRUE
31
Which of the following is incorrect about tetracyclines?
1. Act by inhibiting protein synthesis
2. Broad spectrum antimicrobial agent
3. Bactericidal in action
4. Energy dependent efflux is common mechanism of resistance.
3
32
A bacteria which uses host actin to travel through cells;
1. Listeria monocytogenes
2. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
3. Bacillus anthracis
4. Streptococcus iniae
1
33
Which of the following is not true of aminoglycoside group
1. Act by inhibiting protein synthesis
2. Is nephrotoxic
3. Imipinem is a member of the group
4. Need parenteral administration
1
34
TRUE/FALSE
Gentamicin is not a good choice of antibiotic to treat anaerobic infections.
TRUE
35
TRUE/FALSE
Gentamicin and penicillin should be mixed in the same syringe to obtain a synergistic effect
FALSE
36
Which of the following is incorrect about listeriosis in ruminants:
1. Sporadic outbreaks occurs after feeding soiled silage
2. Encephalitis and neurological signs occurs after the organism enter through the wounds in the buccal mucosa
3. Generally disease occurs in winter
4. Hepatic necrosis is the main lesion in adult ruminants
4
37
This pig will most likely have an infection from
1. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
2. Listeria monocytogenes
3. Staphylococcus hyicus
4. Streptococcus suis
1
38
TRUE/FALSE
Toxin and capsule are required for the virulence of Bacillus anthracis.
TRUE
39
TRUE/FALSE
Capsule of anthrax bacilli is composed of polysaccharide.
FALSE.
It is made up of amino acid.
40
McFadyean staining reaction is used for detecting
1. LPS of A. bacilli
2. Capsule of anthrax bacilli
3. Fimbriae of anthrax bacilli
4. Endospore of anthrax bacilli
2
1 is incorrect because it is Gram +
41
TRUE/FALSE.
In avirulent forms of bacillus anthracis presence of toxin is essential for generating protective immune response.
TRUE
42
TRUE/FALSE
Anthrax is a contagious disease
FALSE
43
This pig will mostly have an infectious caused by
1. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
2. Listeria monocytogenes
3. Staphylococcus hyicus
4. Streptococcus suis
3
44
Caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats is caused by:
1. C. pseudotuberculosis
2. C. renale
3. C. bovis
4. C. bovis
1
45
TRUE/FALSE
Rhodococcus equi is an obligate intracellular pathogen.
FALSE
46
TRUE/FALSE
A positive antibody titer to phospholipase D exotoxin of C. pseudotuberculosis is a confirmatory diagnosis for internal forms of caseous lymphadenitis
FALSE
47
Which of the following combination of antimicrobials are used for treating foal pneumonia caused by Rhodococcus equi?
1. Beta lactam / aminoglycoside
2. Macrolide / rifampin
3. Sulfa/ trimethoprim
4. Tetracycline / fluoroquinolone
2
48
Appropriate term for drugs belonging to the sulfa group
1. Antibiotic
2. Antimicrobial agent
3. Antibacterial agent
4. Antiparasitic agent
2
49
TRUE/FALSE
Sulfa drugs act by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis pathway
TRUE
50
In your opinion, which of the following is more important/valuable for a veterinarian?
1. Depth of knowledge
2. Breadth of knowledge
2
51
What type of culture would you request from a lesion like this in a dog?
1. Aerobic culture
2. Anaerobic culture
3. Aerobic and anaerobic culture
4. Whatever!
3
52
Which of the following features help in the ID of dermatophilus congolensis infections in cattle?
1. Scabby lesions
2. Presence of gram positive coccobacili in the smear
3. Tram track appearance of the organism in the stained smears of scabs
4. Presence of Gram variable filamentous bacteria
3
53
TRUE/FALSE
Trueperella pyogens is a common opportunistic pathogen in pyogenic lesion of internal organs in cattle
TRUE
54
Which of the following agent disease pair is incorrect?
1. Actinobaculum suis - pyelonephritis in swine
2. Corynebacterium bovis - pyelonephritis in cattle
3. Actinomyces bovis - lumpy Jaw in cattle
4. Dermatophilus congolensis - rain scald in horses
2
55
A prokaryote is an organism with;
1. No chromosome
2. No nucleus
3. No proteins
4. No nucleic acid
2
56
Which of the following statement is incorrect about campylobacter, helicobacter and Lawsonia?
1. They are gram negative organisms
2. They are pathogens of the gastrointestinal tract and occasionally genital tract
3. Aerobic culture is the method of diagnosis
4. All of these are extracellular pathogens
3/4
57
Guillain Barre syndrome is associated with infection caused by bacteria
1. Campylobacter jejuni
2. Campylobacter fetus subsp. Venerialis
3. Campylobacter coli
4. Zika virus
1
58
A major source of campylobacter jejuni infection
1. Poultry
2. Milk
3. Ground water
4. Salt water
1
59
Major route of infection caused by C. fetus subsp. Fetus
1. Ingestion
2. Inhalation
3. Venereal
4. Wound infection
1
60
Which of the following bacteria is involved in hepatocellular neoplasms in mice?
1. Helicobacter pylori
2. Helicobacter bilis
3. Helicobacter mustelae
4. Helicobacter heilmanni
2
61
Which of the following tests is used for the diagnosis of helicobacter pylori
1. Catalase
2. Oxidase
3. Urease
4. Mucinase
3
62
Lesion in the ileum of a poor doing foal; most likely etiology;
1. Lawsonia intracellularis
2. Campylobacter jejuni
3. Helicobacter equi
4. Campylobacter coli
1
63
Residents flooded the Woodhaven police department with calls Friday and Saturday after seeing as many as 50 dead ducks lining Marsh Creek. The department of natural resources cam to area and took water and soil samples. If you were contacted about this incident, which disease will be on the top of your differential diagnosis list?
1. Avian spirochetosis
2. Pastuerollosis
3. Duck plague
4. Botulism
4
64
Which of the following bacteria is a spirochete?
1. Helicobacter
2. Campylobacter
3. Treponema
4. Lawsonia
3
65
Brachyspira hyodysentriae causes
1. Fibronecrotic colitis in swine
2. Porcine intestinal adenomatosis
3. Bovine papillomatous digital dermatitis
4. Avian spirochetosis
1
66
Which of the following is not a condition caused by a spirochete?
1. Lyme disease
2. Gastric ulcers
3. Leptospirosis
4. Rabbit Syphilis
2
67
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Lyme disease?
1. Caused by spirochete
2. Disease occurs as a result of ixodes tick bite
3. Change in outer membrane proteins in hosts is an important virulence factor
4. This disease can be transmitted by direct contact with infected animals
4
68
Properties of mycobacteria include all of the following except:
1. Presence of mycolic acid
2. Positive acid fast staining
3. Presence of lipid compounds in the cell wall
4. May survive in macrophages
5. All are obligate pathogens
5
69
Properties of mycobacteria include all of the following except
1. Variable mycolic acid length depending on species
2. Complete or partial acid fast staining
3. Presence of lipid compounds in the cell membrane
4. May survive at lower pH
5. Some members are saprophytic
3
70
Which of the following staining methods is not an acid fast stain?
1. Kinyoun's
2. Zeihl Neelsen
3. Auramine rhodamine
4. Geimsa
4
71
TRUE/FALSE.
Mycolic acid present in mycobacterium cell wall facilitates phagocytosis and removal of bacteria.
FALSE
72
Which of the following is mycobacterium is common cause of zoonotic tuberculosis?
1. M. tuberculosis
2. M. bovis
3. M. paratuberculosis
4. M. lepraemurium
2
73
All of the following are animal reservoirs of M. bovis in certain geographic locations except:
1. Elephants
2. Cattle
3. Badgers
4. Brush tail possums
1
74
Which of the following is incorrect about mycobacterium infections?
1. Induce granulomatous inflammation
2. Multinucleated macrophages are common in lesions
3. Caseous necrosis and mineralization may be present in the lesions
4. Humoral immunity helps in protection from infections.
4
75
TRUE/FALSE
Combination antimicrobial therapy is essential in the treatment of tuberculosis to kill multiple species mycobacterium present in a lesion.
FALSE
76
Johne's disease is primarily a disease of
1. Ruminants
2. Canines
3. Felines
4. Humans
1
77
Mycobacterium avium subsp. Paratuberculosis causes
1. Granulomatous enteritis
2. Granulomatous pneumonia
3. Granulomatous neuropathy
4. Granulomatous encephalitis
Extra: what is the disease name?
1
Johne's disease in cattle
78
Mycobacterium avium subsp paratuberculosis - Disease is
1. Bovine tubercolosis
2. Intestinal adenomatosis
3. Paratuberculosis
4. Crohn's disease
3
79
Bacterial etiology of a lesion that looks exactly like paratuberculosis in swine is
1. Mycobacterium avium subsp homnisuis
2. Helicobacter pylori
3. Campylobacter jejuni
4. Lawsonia intracellularis
3
80
Which of the following is a disease not caused by mycobacterium?
1. Buruli ulcer
2. Johne's disease
3. Leprosy
4. Rabbit syphilis
4
81
Characteristics of mycoplasma include all except:
1. Absence of cell wall
2. Susceptibility to B-lactams
3. No gram staining
4. Colonize ciliated epithelium
2
82
Enzootic pneumonia is caused by
1. Mycoplasma hyorhinis
2. Mycoplasma hyosynoviae
3. Mycoplasma suis
4. Mycoplasma hyuopneumoniae
4
83
Which of the following is incorrect regarding enzoonotic pneumonia in swine
1. Caused by M. hyopneumonia
2. Causes anteroventral pneumonia
3. Predisposes to secondary bacterial infection
4. Causes anemia
4
84
1. Which of the following is not reportable?
2. M mycoidies subsp. Mycoides
3. M. capricolum subsp capripneumonia
4. M gallisepticum
5. M. ovipneumonia
5
85
Anaplasma marginale and mycobacterium hemofelis infect RBCs. Which of the following is correct?
1. Both of them do not have cell wall
2. Both are intracellular
3. Both are transmitted through tick
4. Both of them are bacteria
4
86
Rickettsia are not
1. gram negative
2. Transmitted by arthropods
3. Facultative intracellular
4. Susceptible to tetracycline
3
87
Members of the genus Rickettsia generally have affinity to
1. Vascular Endothelium
2. Epithelium
3. Leukocytes
4. Erythrocytes
1
88
Select the incorrect pair
1. R. rickettsia - endothelium
2. Anaplasma marginale - RBCs
3. Chlamydia psittaci - monocytes
4. Anaplasma platys - platelets
3
89
Which of the following is not true about fungi
1. Fungi have nuclei
2. Fungi have ribosomes
3. Fungi have mitchondria
4. They are always multicellular
4
90
A component of fungal cell membrane is
1. Peptidoglycan
2. Ergosterol
3. Mycolic acid
4. Lipopolysaccharide
2
91
Which is incorrect about fungal morphology
1. Unicellular forms are called yeast
2. Multicellular forms are called mold
3. Hyphae are unicellular
4. Mycelium is a group of tangled hyphae
3
92
Antifungal agents generally target
1. Membrane ergosterol
2. Protein synthesis
3. Cell wall synthesis
4. Ribosomes
1
93
Which of the following is not true about griseofulvin
1. Inhibit cell division
2. Accumulates in keratin
3. Oral administration
4. Acts against multiple fungal species
4
94
Which of the following is not true about fungal diseases?
1. Can be due to tissue invasion
2. Can be due to toxins produce by fungus
3. Can induce hypersensitivity reactions
4. Can commonly induce suppurative lesions
4
95
Which of the following is incorrect about dermatophytes?
1. They cause superficial skin infections
2. They have affinity to keratinized epithelium
3. They are zoonotic
4. Systemic infections may occur
4
96
Identify the correct dermatophyte host pair
1. T. verrucossum - horse
2. T. mentagrophyte - cattle
3. M. canis - cats
4. M. nanum - dogs
3
97
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1. M. canis can cause pseudomycetoma in cats
2. Griseofulvin is effective against dermatophytes
3. The sample for diagnostic testing should be collected from the center of the lesion
4. Cats are asymptomatic carriers of M. canis
3
98
Woods lamp fluorescence is used for the diagnosis of?
1. M. canis
2. M. nanum
3. T.verrucossum
4. T.mentagrophytes
1
99
Identify this yeast, associated with broad based budding.
1. Blastomyces
2. Cryptococcus
3. Sporothrix
4. Histoplasma
1
100
A dog presents with respiratory disease, diarrhea and small intracytoplasmic yeast found within macrophages. Identify this yeast.
1. Blastomyces
2. Cryptococcus
3. Sporothrix
4. Histoplasma
4
101
Identify this yeast.
1. Blastomyces
2. Cryptococcus
3. Sporothrix
4. Histoplasma
2
102
Which of the following dermatophytes is specific to cattle?
1. Microsporum canis
2. Microsporum gypsium
3. Trichophyton verrucossum
4. Trichophyton equinum
3
103
This rooster is most likely infected with...
Microsporum gallinae
104
A client comes to your clinic with this lesion. He says he has indoor cats. What should you do?
Check the cats for Microsporum canis.
105
Which of the following is a prokaryote?
1. Bacteria
2. Fungus
3. Protozoa
4. Helminth
1
106
Which of the following components are present in a bacteria?
1. Nucleus
2. Histones
3. Sterol
4. Chromosome
5. Ribosomes
6. Membrane bound organelles
4, 5
107
Which are not present in bacteria?
1. Nucleus
2. Histones
3. Complex cell wall
4. Peptidoglycan
5. Chromosome
6. Ribosomes
7. Membrane bound organelles
1, 2, 7
108
Chose the correct statement
1. All bacteria have an outer membrane
2. Mycobacteria have lipopolysaccharide
3. Peptidoglycan is present in only gram + bacteria
4. Mycobacteria are the only acid fast positive bacteria
5. Teichoic acid is unique to gram positive bacteria
5
109
What are the components that only gram negative bacteria have?
1. Nucleus
2. Peptidoglycan
3. Outer membrane
4. Endotoxin
5. Ribosomes
6. Lipopolysaccharide
7. Enzymes
3, 4, 6
110
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of LPS is the endotoxin found in Gram negative bacteria.
1. Specific O Chain
2. Polysaccharide Component
3. Lipid A Component
4. Inner Oligosaccharide
Extra: How does it work?
3
It binds to macrophages and causes cytokine stores.
111
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ contributes to the antigenicity of Gram negative bacteria.
1. Specific O Chain
2. Polysaccharide Component
3. Lipid A Component
4. Inner Oligosaccharide
2
112
# Choose the incorrect pair:
1. Pathogen - microbe that causes disease
2. Pathogenesis - what predisposes animal to infection
3. Virulence - degree of pathogenicity
4. Virulence factors - traits of microbe that cause disease
Extra: give the correct explanation
2: Pathogenesis: mechanisms which cause disease
113
Identify the mismatched pair
1. Flagella - motility
2. Fimbriae - adherence
3. Capsule - protect from phagocytosis
4. Spores - survival
5. Endoflagella - binary fission
5
114
# Choose the incorrect statement:
1. All fungi are eukaryotes
2. Yeasts are fungi
3. Dimorphic fungi exist in yeast and mold form
4. Fungal cell membrane contains sterols
5. Fungal cell wall contain peptidoglycan
5
115
Which of the following is not a dimorphic yeast?
1. Blastomyces
2. Histoplasma
3. Coccidioides
4. Cryptococcus
4
116
Antibody development after exposure to a pathogen or an antigen is known as:
1. Antibody Titer
2. Cellular Immunity
3. Seroconversion
4. Biosafety
3
117
# Choose the incorrect statement regarding antibody titers:
1. A positive antibody titer is always diagnositic
2. False positive response can be due to previous exposure or vaccination
3. False negative response can occur in early infection
4. False negative results can occur due to anergy in the last stages of the disease.
5. Four fold increase in the convalescent titer is suggestive of an active infection.
1
118
TRUE/FALSE.
All antibiotics are antimicrobials but not all antimicrobials are antibiotics.
TRUE.
Antibiotics: produced by microorganisms.
Antimicrobial: any substance that kills/inhibits growth of micoorganisms.
119
What are the two Antimicrobial susceptibility tests?
Disk Diffusion
Broth/Agar Dilution
120
The minimum amount of drug required to inhibit growth is known as:
1. Minimum inhibitory concentration
2. Kirby Bauer Concentration
3. Susceptibility break point
4. Susceptibility minimum
1
Susceptibility breakpoint = drug concentration above which an organism is resistant and below it it is susceptible. 3 values: Susceptible, intermediate, resistant.
121
TRUE/FALSE.
1. You must use a pure isolate in the disk diffusion test.
1. You can get the MIC value from the Kirby Bauer Test
1. TRUE.
2. FALSE.
122
Which of the following conditions you would investigate when a dog presented with this type of lesion:
1. Bacterial
2. Allergy
3. Immune mediated skin condition
4. Parasitic infections
5. Neoplasm
6. Trauma
All of them
123
A common bacterial isolate from canine pyoderma
1. S.pseudintermedius
2. S.pseudointermedius
3. S.intermedius
4. S.aureus
1
124
Greasy pig disease is caused by
1. E.rhusiopathiae
2. H.parasuis
3. Staph hyicus
4. Streptococcus suis
3
125
Bumble foot is caused by:
1. E.rhusiopathiae
2. Mycobacterium avium
3. Staph hyicus
4. Staphylococcos Aureus
4
126
Botryomycosis is caused by:
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Helicobacter bilus
3. Staph hyicus
4. Microsporum Canis
Extra: What is different about this kind of infection?
1
Extra: it is not superficial
127
What are the most common causes of cat bite abscess?
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Pasteurella
3. Streptococcus pyogenes
4. Actinomyces spp.
2
128
A dog presents with a non-healing cutaneous lesion and subcutaneous nodules. Giemsa stained smear from a dog with a subcutaenous nodular lesion. Which of the following bacteria will be on your DDx?
1. Pseudomonas
2. Streptococcus
3. Mycobacterium
4. Bacillus
3
129
An owner brings in this dog with ulcerated lesions on the ear. You take a smear and stain it with Giemsa (shown). What do you suspect?
1. Lawsonia intracellularis
2. Histoplasma capsulatum
3. Mycobacterium lebraemurium
4. Sporothrix schenkii
3
130
You are asked to treat this cow. A sample you stain with Giemsa appears as such under the microscope. What do you do next?
1. Send it in for culture because you don't know what it is.
2. You suspect S. aureus and so begin antibiotic treatment.
3. This is a commensal and so it is not diagnostic. Try other tests.
4. This is diagnostic and so you can start treatment. (What is it then?)
4. Dermatophilus!!!
131
Foot rot is caused by....
1. Clostridium piliforme
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Fusobacterium necrophorum
4. Nocardia spp.
3
132
This Persian cat comes in with pseudomycetoma A subcutaneous nodule. What do you think it is?
1. Microsporum canis
2. Trichophyton verrucosum
3. Staphylococcus aureus
4. Mycobacterium spp.
1
133
Skin lesion from a horse from a swampy area from florida; most likely etiology is:
1. Histoplasma
2. Prototheca
3. Pythium
4. Trichosporon
3
134
Select correct disease organism pair:
1. Strangles: streptococcus equi subsp. Equi
2. Pigeon fever : corynebacterium psuedotuberculusis
3. Glanders : bukholderia mallei
4. Melioidosis: burkholderia pseudomallei
1, 2, 3, 4
135
TRUE/FALSE.
Pathognomonic skin lesions observed in swine erysipelas is a local suppurative dermatitis
FALSE
136
What is distinct about spirochetes?
1. They only affect canine
2. They have an affinity to ciliated epithelium.
3. They have an endoflagella
4. They are protozoan
3
137
Which is not an arthropod borne disease?
1. Ehrlichia canis
2. Coxiela burnettii
3. Borrelia burgdoferi
4. Rickettsia Rickettsia
1. Ehrlichia ruminantium
2
138
Which of the following is associated with Human gastric adenocarinoma?
1. Helicobacter pylori
2. Campylobacter jejuni
3. Lawsonia intracellularis
4. Chlamydia psittaci
1
139
Which of the following is not reportable?
1. Enzootic pneumonia caused by M. hyopneumoniae
2. Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
3. Contagious Caprine pleuropneumonia
4. M. synoviae
1
140
A dog presesnts with pneumonia and osteomyelitis from Nevada. Based off of the geographic region, what do you suspect?
1. Aspergillus
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Nocardia
4. Coccidioides immitis
4
141
A dog enters your clinic with acute febrile illness, dehydration, vomiting, icterus, increased creatinine/BUN and increased WBCs. What do you do?
1. Euthanize the animal
2. Collect Serum for MAT, urine/blood for PCR and FA
3. Administer lasix and then collect urine for lab
4. Culture the feces because you suspect intestinal bacteria
2 - suspect leptospirosis
142
You are called to do a necropsy on a pig and find fibronecrotic lesions with psedomembrane formation. What do you suspect?
1. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
2. Campylobacter jejuni
3. Helicobacter pylori
4. Lawsonia intracellularis
1
143
A farmer recently purchased replacement heifers and has noticed diarrhea in several cattle. What do you do?
1. You test smegma of bulls for campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis
2. Give lasix and test urine for Leptospirosis
3. Test the cattle for Johne's disease
4. Culture the feces for E. coli
3 - Johne's disease is caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis
144
What is unique about Borrelia burgdorferi?
1. It is acid fast positive
2. It can be transferred directly to humans
3. It causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever in dogs
4. It has outer surface lipoproteins that changes between hosts, making it difficult to control.
4
145
You meet an elephant zookeeper with chornic cough and stomach pain. What does this person have?
1. Aspergillus
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Crohn's disease
4. Asthma
2
146
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Campylobacter jejuni?
1. Common in young animals
2. It is an important food safety pathogen
3. It is a spirochete
4. The major isource for human infection is ingestion of infected chicken
3
147
Which of the following statements is incorrect about chlamydia?
1. It has affinity for epithelium
2. C. psittaci is a reportable
3. It does not generate its own ATP
4. It is a facultative intracellular pathogen
5. It is susceptible to tetracycline
4
it is an obligate intracellular pathogen
148
A 3 month old FIV + kitten with pale mucous membranes presents. You find this organism in the blood smear. What is it?
1. Anaplasma phagocytophilum
2. Mycoplasma hemofelis
3. Borrelia burgdorferi
4. Mycobacterium lepraemurium
2
149
Which of the following is not caused by mycotoxins?
1. Ergot
2. Aflatosxins
3. Fumonisin
4. Salmon fish poisoning
4
150
What is incorrect about mycobacterium?
1. Many are saprophytes that cause tuberculosis.
2. Caseous necrosis is a hallmark of tuberculosis (tubercle formation)
3. They are facultative inctracellular pathogens that live in macrophages.
4. They cause cellular immunity (Th1)
1
151
Rodentiosis is caused by?
Y. pseudotuberculosis
aka fat liver disease
152
How do you treat glasser’s disease?
What causes this?
* Give antibiotics to the sick and vaccinate the healthy
* Haemophius parasuis
153
What is the reservoir for F. tularensis?
Rodents & rabbits
154
Brucellosis has been eradicated and so false positives are due to...
Y. enterocolitica & B. suis (all of the above?)
155
E. coli O78 is responsible for…
Respiratory disease in poultry
156
This bacteria can be found in humid environments, has a blue/green color, and a distinct smell (candy sweet?). It is responsible for nosocomial infections.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
157
What causes wooden/timber tongue?
Actinobacillus lingnieresii
158
The most likely etiology in this condition in cattle
1. Corynebacterium bovis
2. Moraxella bovis
3. Mycobacterium bovis
2
159
What organisms cause otitis in calves?
Mycoplasma bovis and histophilus somni
160
Giemsa stained smear from the of a dog; organisms seen is
1. Malassezia
2. Candida
3. Bacillus
4. Sporothrix
1
161
The main cause of conjunctivitis in cats is...
Chlamydia felis
162
In horses, guttural pouch mycoses may occur as a complication of
1. Strangles
2. Pigeon fever
3. Glanders
4. Pseudoglanders
What is the most common fungus seen?
1
Aspergillus
163
A dog comes in with respiratory infection and loss of pigmentation around the nose. What organism do you mainly suspect?
Aspergillosus
164
A dog comes in with this nasal polyp. What is it?
How do you confirm?
It is unculturable and so you have to send a biopsy.
It is Rhinosporidium seeberi
165
What are two important organisms that cause pyothorax?
Actinomyces and nocardia
166
What is the typical presentation of histoplasma in dogs?
Wasting and diarrhea
167
Bone involvement of a fungal infection means it is...
Coccidiodes immitis
168
This yeast is associated with spherules, osteomyelitis and is geographically limited to Nevada, arizona, California, etc.
Coccidioides immitis
169
Which of the following bacteria is not generally involved in shipping fever pneumonia in catlle
1. Mannheimia hemolytica
2. Pasteurella multocida
3. Histophilus somni
4. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
5. Mycobacterium bovis
6. Trueperella pyogenes
4
170
This marbling of the lung is characteristic of what disease in bovine?
Contagious bovine pleuropneunomnia
Mycoplasma mycoides. subsp. mycoides - it is reportable
171
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1. Foal pneumonia is caused by rhodococcus equi
2. R. Equi is facultative intracelluar bacteria
3. R. Equi is partiallly acid fast
4. Penicillin is the antibiotic choice in treatment of R. equi infections
4
172
Identify the incorrect pair:
1. Fluoroquinolones --\> protein synthesis
2. Tetracycline --\> ribosomes
3. Beta lactams --\> cell wall
4. Sulfonamides --\> nucleic acid synthesis
1
173
Which organism would you suspect in diarrhea in a horse or rabbit?
1. Clostridium perfringens
2. Clostridium difficile
3. Helicobacter pylori
4. Staphylococcus aureus
1, 2
174
What is the fastest test to look for toxins?
1. Hemeaggluttination
2. Flourescent antibody testing
3. ELISA
4. PCR
2
175
Which of the following organisms is enterotoxic?
1. Clostridium perfringes
2. Clostridium chauveoi
3. Clostridium novyi
4. Clostridium botulin
1
176
What does this goat have?
1. Strangles
2. Glanders
3. Caseous lymphadenitis
4. TEME
3
177
If you see sulfur granules, what bacteria will you be looking for?
Nocardia and actinomyces
178
The least important consideration for using an antimicrobial is:
1. Patient
2. Client compliance
3. Susceptibility
4. Cost
4
179
If you suspect anthrax, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
1. Notify the appropriate authorities
2. Perform a necropsy
3. Ensure that the soil is left undisturbed
2
180
Which part of the gram negative bacteria is necessary for infection?
1. Ribosomes
2. Nucleus
3. protien
4. outermembrane
4
181
Whenever you see erythromycin resistance in a susceptibility test, you should always be concerned with..
1. MRSA
2. Inducible clindamycin resistance
3. B-lacatam inducible resistance
2
182
If a culture comes back negative, the vet should not:
1. Assume that it is not a bacterial infection
2. Continue testing to identify the cause
1
183
This cattle has....
Actinomyces bovis
184
A shelter has a large population of cats dying.. What do you suspect?
1. Streptococcus canis
2. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius
3. Streptococcus equi
4. Nocardia
1
185
Which of the following is not true about streptococcus equi subsp equi
1. It causes strangles in horses
2. It is transferred via direct contact
3. It may lead to complications such as bastard strangles, guttural pouch empyema and chondroids.
4. It causes similar conditions in other species
4
186
Tyzzer's disease is caused by..
1. C. difficile
2. C. chauvioe
3. C. novyi
4. C. piliforme
4
187
Tetanus and botulin are...
1. Histotoxins
2. neurotoxins
3. Enterotoxic
2
188
What is a unique feature of bacteria?
1. They synthesize protein
2. They divide by binary fission
3. They are unicellar
4. They are pathogenic
2
189
Which of the following is least pathogenic?
1. Staphylicoccus epidermis
2. Staphylococcus hyicus
3. Streptococcus equi equi
4. Streptococcus canis
1
190
A high risk pathogen to would be considered:
1. BSL-1
2. BSL-2
3. BSL-3
3
191
Staphylococcus resistance is due to:
1. Exotoxins
2. changes on the mecA gene
3. The presence of a capsule
4. Immune evasion because they are facultative intracellular
2
192
Most likely differential diagnosis is...
1. Histoplasma
2. Blastomyces
3. Sporothrix
4. Coccidiodes
5. Cryptococcus
4
193
You do a smear from the case with coccidiodes. Which of the following would you see?
B
Spherules with endospores in it
194
Which of the following bacteria is commonly associated with enterotoxemia in farm animals?
1. Clostridium perfringens
2. Clostridium chauvoei
3. E. coli
4. Salmonella
1
195
Prototheca is a
1. Fungus
2. Bacteria
3. Algae
4. OOmycetes
3
196
Brucella has specific affinity towards....
The reproductive tract
197
Brucellosis is suspected in a dog presented with;
1. Reproductive disorders in a female dog
2. Acute architis in a male dog
3. General illness and lymphadenopathy
4. Discospondylitis or osteomyelitis
5. All of the above
5
Main organisms are Brucella canis and Brucella suis
198
In your knowledge, which of the following organisms does not have a predilection for nervous tissue?
1. Cryptococcus neoformans
2. Histophilus somni
3. Listeria monocytogenes
4. Salmonella
4
199
Pleocytosis is the presence:
1. Pleomorphic cells in the blood
2. Pleomorphic cells in the csf
3. Pleomorphic cells in the nervous tissue
4. Increased number of cells in the cerebrospinal fluid
4
200
This focal, symmetrical, bilateral encephalomalacia in sheep is caused by....
Clostridium perfringens type D in sheep
201
Which of the following is not a histotoxic clostridium sp.
1. C. chauvoei
2. C. novyi
3. C. septicum
4. C. difficile
4
202
What antimicrobials are contraindicated in rabbits and horses because of diarrhea?
Lincomycin and clindamycin
