Induction Agents Flashcards

(214 cards)

1
Q

Low dose IV anesthetics produce ____ and high doses produce ___

A

low dose = sedation
high dose = unconsunessness

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2
Q

T/F
We do not witness stage 2 with IV induction.

A

True
No outward presentation of stage 2; goes thru stage 2 in ~2 seconds
EEG can show tho

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3
Q

TIVA

A

total IV anesthesia

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4
Q

Uses for induction agents

A

Induction of anesthesia
TIVA (Total intravenous anesthesia)
MAC (Monitored anesthesia care)
Sedation during local and regional anesthesia

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5
Q

All IV anesthetics are ____ and produce…

A

sedative-hypnotics
dose-dependent CNS depression

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6
Q

Ideal induction agent criteria

A

-Hypnosis and amnesia
-Rapid onset (time of one arm–brain circulation)
-Rapid metabolism to inactive metabolites
-Minimal CV and resp depression
-No histamine release/hypersensitivity reactions
-nonmutagenic, noncarcinogenic
-No untoward neurologic effects (seizures, myoclonus, neurotoxicity)
-beneficial effects: analgesia, antiemetic, neuroprotection, cardioprotection
-P.kinetic models for accurate dosing
-Ability to continuously monitor delivery

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7
Q

mutagenic

A

inducing or capable of inducing genetic mutation

we want our indxn agents to be nonmutagenic

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8
Q

ideal induction agent should be ___ soluble

A

water

however, a balance of water and lipid solubility is important

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9
Q

____ support microbial support

A

Lipids

Propofol has a preservative in it

also why we want water-soluble preparations for indxn agents

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10
Q

IV anesthetics have a ___ onset

A

rapid

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11
Q

IV anesthetics distribute rapidly to…

A

higher perfused and vessel-rich tissues

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12
Q

allows for rapid crossing of the blood-brain barrier

A

lipophilicity

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13
Q

Three-phase process that occurs after a bolus of propofol

A

-Rapid distribution phase(A): plasma –> peripheral tissues

-Slow distribution phase(B): into other tissues while the drug in rapid distribution tissue —> back to plasma

-Terminal phase or elimination phase(C): removed from the body

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14
Q

the branch of pharmacology concerned with the movement of drugs within the body

A

Pharmacokinetics

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15
Q

Used to describe the behavior in IV agents (propofol) during infusion via a pump

A

Three-Compartment Model

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16
Q

Central compartment

A

(CA1, blood)

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17
Q

Peripheral compartments

A

(CA2 and CA3)

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18
Q

Elimination

A

(G1)

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19
Q

Three compartment model steps

A
  1. Propofol is injected into the blood and fills the central compartment
  2. Redistributes to peripheral compartments (one rapid and one slow)
  3. Elimination
  4. Accumulation over time in peripheral compartments (infusion), less drug is removed from the central compartment by redistribution and less drug is needed to be infused
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20
Q

Elimination half-time (t1/2)

A

The time it takes for the plasma concentration of a drug to decrease to 50% of its original concentration (after one bolus dose)

1 compartment model

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21
Q

T/F
Context-sensitive half-time applies to IV boluses

A

false
applies to infusions!

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22
Q

In order to use Elimination half-time (t1/2), we must follow a ___ compartment model.

A

1

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23
Q

In order to use Elimination half-time (t1/2), the drug must be…

A

only in the blood phase or a drug administered only once (bolus)

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24
Q

Context-sensitive half-time

A

The time to achieve a 50% reduction in concentration after stopping a continuous infusion.

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25
What does this graph tell us about fentanyl and propofol?
fentanyl has a much higher CSHT than propofol will keep patient asleep for much longer
26
What does this graph tell us?
CSHT of opioids note how remifent drops to 50% extremely quickly & how fentanyl takes very long
27
T/F Remifentanil is distributed to tissue
False broken down via **ester hydrolysis** rapidly does not redistribute well
28
T/F the ability to distribute into tissues and redistribute into the plasma compartment increases the half-life of a drug
True
29
Which opioid has a context-sensitive half-time that is essentially **independent** of the duration of the infusion?
remifentanil
30
Context-Sensitive half-time (3-compartment model)
Describes the transfer of drug: plasma --> peripheral compartments --> (once the infusion is stopped) back into the central compartment
31
Propofol (Diprivan)
**2,6-diisopropylphenol** Rapid onset, **predictable context-sensitive half-time** Rapid emergence, rapid redistribution Antiemetic properties
32
you must know this table in its entirety
33
How much of propofol is protein bound?
98%
34
⭐️ Propofol primary mechanism
GABA-A receptor agonist **enhancement of GABA inhibition**
35
⭐️ Propofol CV effects
significant decreases in SVR, SV, & CO
36
⭐️ Propofol pulmonary effects
respiratory depressant potent bronchodilator
37
⭐️ T/F Unlike opioids, Propofol does not exhibit potential for addiction.
False Addiction potential: may elicit feelings of well-being or euphoria during emergence
38
⭐️ Propofol Key Clinical Uses
-General anesthesia: induction & maintenance -TIVA -Conscious & deep sedation -ICU sedation -PONV prophylaxis **& rescue!** -Safe with malignant hyperthermia
39
⭐️ T/F When used for surgical procedures, propofol can only be used in the OR.
False Used for **conscious and deep sedation**, including out-of-operative-room settings
40
⭐️ Is propofol safe to use in malig.hyperthemia?
yes
41
⭐️ Propofol CNS effects
-CNS depressant -neuroprotective -anticonvulsant -decreases CerebPerfPrsr, CMRO2, CBF, & ICP
42
What happens when the GABA receptor allows Cl- to flow in?
-hyperpolarized -does not allow electrical conductivity
43
Propofol is primarily metabolized by the ____. The kidneys excrete ...
liver inactive and water-soluble metabolites
44
Most common extrahepatic sites of propofol metabolism are .... They account for ___% of metabolism.
kidneys and lungs 30%
45
Which model explains the elimination of propofol?
3 compartment
46
How does propofol induce an unconscious state
enhances GABA's inhibitory pathways ~central cholinergic transmission, NMDA or alpha-adrenergic sites
47
paradoxical excitation
unpredictable movement, not easily arousable
48
T/F Higher doses of propofol will always create deeper sedation/anesthesia
False possible paradoxical excitation (unpredictable movement, not easily arousable) at higher doses
49
T/F Propofol is an anticonvulsant and can treat status epilepticus
True also shortens seizure duration
50
T/F Propofol can be used for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
False ECT requires inducing a seizure & propofol is an anticonvulsant
51
⭐️ Why are the CV effects of propofol more significant after induction than gtt?
CV effects are dose dependent Smooth muscle relaxant & impair SNS
52
T/F Propofol affects the SNS.
True decreases sympathetic activity indirect effects on **arterial vasodilation and venodilation**
53
With larger doses of propofol, what changes are you likely to see in the BP and HR?
Drop in SBP & DBP without the increased HR (decreased CO, SV, SVR)
54
What makes propofol a good bronchodilator?
direct effect on intracellular calcium
55
Maintenance doses of propofol can result in which resp effects?
diminished tidal volume and increased RR
56
An induction dose of propofol will create apnea how quickly?
within 30 seconds
57
T/F Propofol can only exhibit its antiemetic effects when used with certain adjuncts.
False PONV is decreased with propofol administration regardless of the type of anesthetic
58
Propofol dose for PONV
10-15mg IV
59
Propofol infusion rate for PONV prophylaxis
Background infusions of 10 ug/kg/min
60
How does Propofol prevent PONV?
possible direct effect on the vomiting center (**Chemoreceptor trigger zone**)
61
Propofol dose for opioid-induced pruritus
10 mg IV
62
How does Propofol treat opioid-induced pruritus?
Mechanism is related to spinal cord suppression
63
What makes propofol the induction agent of choice?
rapid, predictable awakening
64
What makes propofol easily titratable?
quick recovery (very short elimination half-life) predictable clearance
65
Induction dose of Propofol
1-2.5 mg/kg (2 mg/kg)
66
IV sedation/MAC propofol dose
25-75 mcg/kg/min (variable)
67
Maintenance of anesthesia (GA) dose of propofol
100-200 mcg/kg/min (variable)
68
Propofol usual concentration
10mg/mL (200mg/20mL)
69
Which pt population typically requires lower doses of propofol?
old ppl small ppl (note: peds need more b/c high Vd & Cl)
70
What gives Propofol its allergic potential?
its phenyl nucleus and di-isopropyl side chain egg LECITHIN most egg allergies are actually to egg proteins; prop = lecithin (fatty part of yolk) Generic contains sodium metabisulfite = contraindicated in patients with sulfite sensitivity
71
Why is propofol painful on injection?
thick, glycerol-based emulsion
72
How common in pain on injection from propofol?
60-70% of pts complain
73
Children need (higher/lower) doses of prop bc...
higher doses higher Vd and faster clearance
74
Why do elderly people need lower doses of prop?
prolonged effects and increased sensitivity due to decreased cardiac output and clearance
75
Would prop be okay to use in a pt with CV Dz?
probably not decreases CO, SV, SVR and BP
76
Opened propofol vials are good for ____ & ___ for syringes.
vial (infusion) = 12 H syringe = 6 H
77
Propofol Infusion Syndrome (PRIS)
-Doses of 4 mg/kg/hr for > 48 hours (67 ucg/kg/min) -brady; possible into asystole -unexplained: metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, rhabdomyolysis, hyperlipidemia, and/or enlarged liver, renal failure, EKG changes, arrhythmias
78
Green urine with prop use is a sign of...
Increased extrahepatic metabolism excretion of these metabolites in urine
79
Which conditions may contribute to Propofol Infusion Syndrome (PRIS)?
cardiomyopathies, skeletal myopathy, or hyperkalemia Highly dependent on infusion dose and duration
80
with longer propofol infusions urine may become...
milky colored
81
Etomidate (Amidate)
**GABA-A receptor agonist** A carboxylated imidazole derivative
82
T/F Avoid use of etomidate in patients prone to hypotension.
False Etomidate is hemodynamically stable
83
Etomidate adverse effects
Adrenocortical suppression (critically ill) Postoperative nausea and vomiting possible
84
Etomidate is good for which pts?
cardiac, trauma, and elderly
85
⭐️ Why do we not use etomidate infusions?
Continuous infusion limited due to possible adrenal suppression
86
Etomidate follows with compartment model?
3
87
Etomidate metabolism
liver & plasma esterases excreted by kidneys (80%) and in bile (20%)
88
Is Etomidate highly protein bound?
Yes 75%
89
Etomidate has a (fast/slow) onset. This is due to...
fast redistribution
90
Is etomidate irritating to veins? Why or why not?
yes Solvent (propylene glycol) contribute to veno-irritation and phlebitis
91
⭐️ How long does etomidate's adrenal suppression last?
up to 72 H
92
Etomidate Induction dose:
0.2-0.3 mg/kg
93
T/F Etomidate is considered a proconvulsant
true lowers seizure threshold
94
Etomidate MoA
GABA-A agonist
95
Etomidate CNS effects
potent vasoconstrictor that reduces CBF, ICP and CMRO2
96
When giving etomidate as an induction agent, we should watch for ____. If that happens, we give ____.
seizure-like, myoclonic movements versed/opioids
97
Etomidate CV effects
Minimal/no effect on MAP, PA pressure, PCWP, CVP, SV, CI, SVR and PVR
98
How does etomidate cause adrenocortical suppression?
Inhibits 11β- hydroxylase prevents conversion of cholesterol --> cortisol
99
If prolonged, adrenocortical suppression will cause...
hypoTN
100
Ketamine (Ketalar) is a derivative of...
Phencyclidine (PCP) -chiral compound -racemic: S and R enantiomers
101
When emerging from Ketamine, what may the pt experience?
Emergence delirium & hallucinations
102
⭐️ T/F The Ketamine compound is achiral.
False -PCP analog -chiral compound -racemic mix: S and R enantiomers
103
Of all induction agents, which is metabolized into a clinically significant metabolite?
Ketamine Liver: **demethylation** = norketamine (biologically active, 1/3 - 1/5 as active)
104
What is Ketamine's metabolite? Is it active or inactive?
norketamine active (1/3-1/5 as active)
105
Ketamine metabolism
-mostly liver -cytochrome P-450 enzymes -**demethylation to norketamine**
106
Ketamine has (high/low) lipid solubility & (high/low) protein binding.
high lipid sol. low protein binding
107
T/F Ketamine can only be given IV.
False Bioavailable by multiple routes: IM (93%) transnasal (25-50%) rectal/oral (16%)
108
T/F Ketamine rapidly redistributes
True
109
Ketamine induction dose
0.5-2 mg/kg IV 4-5 mg/kg IM
110
Ketamine onset (IV)
30-60 seconds
111
Ketamine duration
10-20 mins
112
Ketamine MoA
It produces a functional dissociation between **thalamocortical & limbic systems** NMDA **antagonist**
113
What's the benefit of using Ketamine with opioids/propofol?
Inhibit 2 different pain pathways
114
Ketamine acts as a (agonist/antagonist) at the ___ receptor
**antagonist** NMDA
115
T/F SNS stimulation is expected with Ketamine.
True MAP, CO, SVR, and myocardial oxygen requirements increase
116
Aside from the NMDA receptor, where does Ketamine act?
-Non-NMDA glutamate receptors -**Nicotinic receptors -Cholinergic receptors -Monoaminergic receptors** -Mu, delta and kappa-opioid receptors -inhibits neuronal Na+ channels (Local anesthetic action) & Ca+ channels (Cerebral vasodil8)
117
T/F Ketamine exerts effects similar to local anesthetics.
True ketamine inhibits neuronal Na+ channels (Local anesthetic action)
118
Ketamine's antagonist activity at the NMDA receptor causes...
pain relief
119
Ketamine is a NMDA receptor (agonist/antagonist).
antagonist
120
Dissociative amnestic state is seen with which drug?
Ketamine
121
Dissociative amnestic state
(ketamine) -unconscious; eyes open (nystagmus) -spontaneous respiration -do not react to painful stimuli
122
Induction doses of ____ are associated with increased HR and BP
Ketamine
123
Can we give ketamine to a hemodynamically unstable pt?
Yes!
124
T/F Ketamine can be given to OB pts
True
125
Ketamine should be used with caution in pts with which cardiac condition?
severe right heart dysfunction (Ketamine increases PVR)
126
T/F Ketamine can be used for depression
True
127
What causes Ketamine's profound analgesia?
probably due to prevention of developing hyperalgesia
128
T/F It's okay to give ketamine to opioid abuse patients.
True
129
Emergence Benefits of using ketamine
Using less opioid and adding ketamine can produce faster wake up.
130
T/F Ketamine is not indicated for use in chronic pain.
False treats acute and chronic pain
131
T/F Ketamine causes significant respiratory depression.
False
132
Ketamine (increases/decreases) ICP. This is due to...
-increases ICP -Potent cerebral vasodilator -increases CBF of 60-80% during normocapnia
133
How can we can attenuate ketamine's effect on ICP?
raises ICP attenuate with hyperventilation
134
T/F Increased ICP is an absolute contraindication to ketamine.
False relatively contraindicated research in progress
135
Due to its effect on muscarinic receptors, ketamine increases _____ _____.
airway secretions
136
How does Ketamine affect the airways (2)?
good bronchodilator maintains protective airway reflexes
137
Ketamine's CV effects resemble...
SNS stimulation MAP, CO, SVR, & myocardial oxygen requirements increase
138
The mechanism for ketamine-induced CV effects
direct SNS stimulation
139
T/F Ketamine can be used in pts w/ mild to severe hypovolemia.
False ideal for induction in a hypovolemic patient HOWEVER, use in critically-ill or shock-like patient = profound hypoTN d/t catecholamine depletion in these patients, leading to unopposed direct myocardial depression
140
Emergence Delirium
phenomenon associated w/ postop ketamine anesthesia -Visual, auditory illusions -Confusion -Delirium
141
Ketamine Emergence Delirium usually occurs at doses higher than...
> 2 mg/kg dose-dependent occurrence
142
Emergence Delirium Prevention
-preop midazolam -Recover in calm/quiet environment
143
Dexmedetomidine (Precedex)
alpha 2-adrenergic agonist highly selective, specific, and potent
144
Which is more selective of alpha 2 receptors? Precedex Clonidine
Precedex (7-8x more)
145
How does Precedex induce sedation?
activation of α2-receptors in the **locus coeruleus**  & induces a **state mimicking natural sleep**.
146
T/F Precedex has analgesic properties.
True
147
T/F Precedex does not cause respiratory depression.
False can produce mild resp. depression
148
How does Precedex affect norepinephrine?
Inhibits Norepi release in **locus coeruleus**
149
How does Precedex affect opioid metabolism?
Dexmedetomidine: weakly inhibits CYP-450 system could cause increased plasma [ ] of opioids administered during anesthesia
150
What % of Precedex is protein bound?
94%
151
Precedex faces (rapid/slow) (hepatic/renal) metabolism involving which reactions?
rapid hepatic conjugation N-methylation hydroxylation
152
Precedex CNS effects
-sedative, anxiolytic, & analgesic effects (**spinal cord and brain**)
153
T/F Analgesic effects of Precedex do not alter the amount of opioid needed.
False decreases opioid requirement
154
Precedex respiratory effects
-less ventilatory depression vs. other sedative-hypnotic/opioid anesthetics -**Bolus will reduce minute ventilation**
155
If we give a bolus of Precedex, we should expect a decrease in which respiratory parameter?
minute ventilation (amount of air that enters the lungs per minute)
156
How does Precedex cause hypoTN and bradycardia?
high alpha-2-adrenereceptor activity
157
Which pt population is esp at risk for bradycardia from precedex?
Children
158
Benefits of using Precedex as anesthetic adjuvant
**blunt the hemodynamic effects of direct laryngoscopy** improves hemodynamic stability
159
Precedex uses
-sedation: procedural, postop, ICU, when **controlled ventilation** is required -extubation: breathe spontaneously and appear calm (pediatrics) -IV adjuvant: induction or maintenance of GA, local/regional **-blunt acute SNS response to laryngoscopy**
160
Precedex sedation dose (initial)
0.5 - 1 mcg/kg given over 10 minutes
161
Precedex sedation dose (drip)
0.2-.7 mcg/kg/hr
162
Treating Precedex bradycardia
atropine, ephedrine or volume Omitting the loading dose
163
Precedex side effects
hypoTN bradycardia dry mouth nausea hyperTN
164
The CV and resp effects of benzos are considered to be...
minimal but be cautious
165
benzos produce...
amnesia
166
Benzos relax which muscles?
skeletal (centrally)
167
Benzos MoA
1. bind to alpha subunits of GABA receptor 2. increasing Cl- conductance 3. hyperpolarization of the membrane 4. nerve resists stimulation
168
Effects of Benzos are primarily d/t...
their effect on the central inhibitory neurotransmitter, GABA-A
169
GABA is an (excitatory/inhibitory) ____.
inhibitory neurotransmitter
170
Which benzo usually doesn't burn on injection?
versed other benzos typically burn
171
Which benzo is water soluble in its bottle?
versed
172
Versed's first pass extraction is over ___%
50%
173
Which benzo has shortest duration of action?
Versed/midazolam
174
What contributes to Versed's short duration?
rapid redistribution, hepatic metabolism and renal clearance
175
T/F Versed dosage should be adjusted in pts with renal/liver Dz
true Versed = hepatic metabolism and renal clearance
176
Benzos CNS effects
Can decrease CMRO2, CBF with **little effect on ICP**
177
Benzos Resp effects
may decrease **upper airway reflexes** & central respiratory drive
178
Benzos CV effects
Can decrease the SVR and BP
179
Do Benzos cross the placenta?
yes avoid in OB if possible
180
Benzos create amnesia in which timeframe?
remember everything up until the point you gave them versed
181
What type of amnesia do benzos create?
Anterograde amnesia a loss of memory for events occurring forward in time
182
Benzo reversal
Flumazenil (Romazicon) 0.2 mg IV over 15 seconds no reponse after 45 secs: give 0.2 mg repeat at 1 min intervals (max: 4 doses)
183
Flumazenil (Romazicon) dosing
0.2 mg IV over 15 seconds no reponse after 45 secs: give 0.2 mg repeat at 1 min intervals (max: 4 doses)
184
Benzo dosing Versed (Preop)
orally, nasally, rectally, IM, IV peds preop: 0.5 mg/kg 30 mins b4 OR adult preop: 1-2 mg
185
Which benzo(s) are not water soluble?
Lorazepam and Diazepam “**D**on’t **L**ike water”
186
Which benzo(s) usually cause injection pain? Why?
Lorazepam and Diazepam propylene glycol (like etomidate!) “**D**amn, **L**ady! That shit hurts!”
187
induction drugs that contain propylene glycol
Lorazepam Diazepam Etomidate
188
Versed solubility changes upon administration
1. water-soluble 2. conformational change in bloodstream 3. more lipophilic Ring on its structure breaks once in blood and becomes lipophilic
189
Barbiturate Classes
**Oxybarbiturates** O2 atom on the #2 carbon atom **Thiobarbiturates** Replacement O2 atom w/ sulfur on the #2 carbon atom BOTH: pyrimidine center
190
Which barbiturate class contains sulfur?
Thiobarbiturates (pyrimidine center) (O2 atom --> sulfur on carbon #2)
191
Oxybarbiturates
Methohexital (used in ECTs) Phenobarbital Pentobarbital Secobarbital
192
Thiobarbiturates
Thiopental Thiamylal
193
What do the two barbiturate classes have in common?
pyrimidine center
194
Barbiturate metabolism
Primary: hepatic inactive metabolites excreted in urine and bile
195
Barbiturate redistribution
Rapid redistribution into highly perfused compartments **rapid termination after a single dose**
196
Barbiturate extended infusion
(Thiopental) accumulates in poorly perfused compartments slow elimination (prolonged context-sensitive half-time and delayed recovery)
197
Barbiturate Sites of action
cortical and brainstem GABA inhibitory pathways
198
Barbiturates will cause...
Loss of consciousness, respiratory and CV depression
199
Hypnotic effects of barbiturates are likely enhanced by...
inhibits central excitatory pathways (**glutamate via NMDA receptors & acetylcholine**)
200
Thiopental elimination 1/2 life
12 H (long)
201
Does thiopental induce or treat seizures?
anticonvulsant used to treat status epilepticus
202
How does thiopental affect ICP?
**it decreases ICP!** -induction for pts with ↑ ICP -treat ↑ ICP resistant to hyperventilation alone
203
Thiopental protects the brain by...(4)
-cerebrovascular vasoconstriction ↓ cerebral blood flow ↓ intracranial pressure -Decreased cerebral metabolic O2 consumption
204
Thiopental stimulates the release of ___ from ___.
histamine mast cells
205
Thiopental precipitates with...
succinylcholine rocuronium lidocaine (Pharm class: pancuronium)
206
T/F We cannot give succinylcholine, rocuronium, or lidocaine if we have already given the pt thiopental.
False flush IV line thoroughly before giving after Thiopental
207
Acute Intermittent Porphyria (AIP)
disorder of porphyrin enzyme metabolism, either in the liver or the bone marrow
208
Porphyrins are involved in ___ production.
heme
209
_____ can precipitate an attack of AIP, and must be avoided in patients with a history of this disorder
all barbiturates
210
Acute Intermittent Porphyria (AIP) 5 P's
211
Methohexital (Brevital)
Oxybarbiturate Proconvulsant activity
212
Agent of choice in Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
Methohexital (Brevital)
213
Methohexital Induction dose
1-2 mg/kg (IV) 20-30 mg/kg (Rectal)
214
Thiopental Induction dose
2.5-5 mg/kg (IV) In the elderly reduce the dose by 30-35%