Infection Flashcards

(114 cards)

1
Q

Example of an antiprotozoal used in amoebic infections

A

Mepacrine hydrochloride

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2
Q

Safest antibiotic classes in pregnancy

A

Penicilins and Cephalosporins

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3
Q

Signs and symptoms of infection

A

fever, inflammation, drowsiness in children, confusion in elderly, worsening of renal function

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4
Q

Clinical markers of infection

A

Raised CRP, Low BP, High ESR, temperature, Resp rate, pulse

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5
Q

what antibiotic classes must be avoided in children?

A

Tetracyclines (<12)

Quinolones cause arthropathy

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6
Q

What antibiotic has the largest risk of C diffe

A

Clindamycin

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7
Q

What type of antibiotics are related to adverse reactions e.g. fungal infections and antibiotic associated collitis/

A

Broad spectrum e.g. Cephalosporins

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8
Q

Examples of notifiable diseases

A
  • Anthrax -Cholera
  • Botulism -Brucellosis
  • Diarrhoea (infectious/bloody)
  • Diptheria -Encephalitis(acute)
  • Food poisoning
  • haemolytic uraemic syndrome
  • viral hepatitis -Legionnaires
  • Leprosy -Malaria -measles
  • meningitis -meninigococcal septicaemia - mumps
  • paratyphiod fever -plague
  • polio -rabies -rubella -SARS
  • scarlet fever -Smallpox
  • Strep (group A) -tetanus -TB -typhoid fever -typhus -whooping cough -yellow fever
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9
Q

What antibiotic is used in rheumatic fever to prevent recurrence?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin or sulfadiazine

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10
Q

What antibiotic is used in invasive strep A infection to prevent recurrence?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicilin (if pen allergic -> erthyromycin or azithromycin

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11
Q

What antibiotcs are used to prevent secondary menigococcal infection to exposed people?

A

Ciprofloxacin or Rifampicin

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12
Q

What antibiotic is used in haemophilus influenza type B to prevent secondary cases?

A

Rifampicin - if therre are vunlerable occupants in household

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13
Q

What antibiotic is used for diptheria in non immunocompromised patients to presvent secondary cases?

A

Erthyromycin - treat for further 10 days if swab +ve after 7 days of treatment

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14
Q

Antibiotic therapy used for prophylaxis of pertussis

A

Clarithromycin

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15
Q

Asplenia prophylaxis antibiotic of choice

A

Phenoxymethylpenicilin

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16
Q

Antibiotic of choice following animla bites

A

co-amoxiclav (or doxy + metro)

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17
Q

If a patient is having a GI procedure, what antibiotic should be given as a single STAT dose

A

Gent / cefuroxime / Co-amox up to 30 mins before procedure

If MRSA +ve - vanc/teic

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18
Q

Examples of antipseudomonal antibiotics

A

Pip-Taz, ticarcillin with clavulanic acid

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19
Q

What first line antibiotics should be given to suspected Meningococacal septicaemia patients

A
  • Benz pen OR cefotaxime OR chloramphenicol
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20
Q

What antibiotics are used to eliminate nasipharyngeal carriage of meningitis?

A

Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin

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21
Q

Antibiotics that can cause cholestatic jaundice

A

Co-amoxiclav + flucloxacillin

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22
Q

Antbitocs contraindicated in pregnancy

A

tetracyclines, trimethoprim, nitrofurantion (causes nausea; avoid at term)

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23
Q

Antibiotics to avoid in pregnancy

A

Metronidazole, Chloramphenicol, aminoglycosides and Tetracyclines, Quinolones and sulphonamides

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24
Q

Generally, what antibiotic is used for staphylococci infection?

A

Flucloxacillin

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25
Generally, what antibiotic is used for MRSA infection?
Vancomycin
26
Generally, what antibiotic is used for Anaerobic infection?
Metronidazole
27
Generally, what antibiotic is used forpseudomonas taphylococci infection?
Gentamicin
28
Generally, what antibiotic is used for streptococci infection?
Phenoxymethylpenicilin or Benpen
29
If menigitis is caused by listeria, how should it be treated?
Amoxicilin + Gentamicin for 21 days
30
If a patient is over 50yrs and has meningitis, how do we treat them?
/Cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) + AMOXICILLIN
31
Antibacterial of choice for otitis externa
flucloxacillin ( or clari if pen allergy. If pseudomonas suspected, give Cipro)
32
Signs of otitis media
Effusion, common in children, can be systemically unwell
33
When should antibiotics be offered to patients with OE
if systemically unwell e.g. fever or if there is otorrhoea or if pt <2 with bilateral OE Give amoxicilin or clari if pen allergic
34
Ear symptoms that would requrie referral
``` Dizziness or tinnitus Pain in the middle ear Fever and malaise in children (signs of systemic infection) Foreign body Deafness Inflammation of the pinea ```
35
What is the active ingredient in Sofradex
Framycetin 0.5%, Dex 0.05% and Gramicidin 0.005%
36
Active ingredient in locorten vioform
Flumetasone / ciloquinol 0/02%
37
What is the brand ofr neomycin + dexamethasone + acetic acid ear spray?
Otomize
38
antibiotic choice in Salmonella
Cipro or ceftotazidime
39
Antibiotic choice in campylobacter
clarithromycin
40
Treatment of C diffe
metronidazole PO for 10-14 days | OR Vanc PO OR Fidaxomicin
41
Antibioti choice for chlamydial infection
Doxycyline or Azithromycin for 7 days
42
Organisms that can cause sinusitis
Strep pneumoniae, Heam.influenzae, Moraxella catharrhalis
43
Should antibiotics be offered to all patients wiht ? sinusitis?
No - only those systemicall unwell with symptoms for 10 days or morer
44
First line antibiotics for Bronciesctasis or COPD acute exacerbations or
Doxy or Clari or amox
45
First line antibiotics for non severe CAP
Amoxicillin
46
First line antibiotic for moderate severity CAP
Amoxicilin + Clarithromycin or Doxy alone
47
High severity CAP treatment
Benzpen + clari
48
Atypical pneumonia first line antibiotic
Clari
49
HAP early onset natibiotic choice
co-amoxiclav
50
Treatmet for Impetigo if small areas of skin infected
Fusidic acid topical ( 7 days) or if MRSA mupirocin topical
51
Treatmet for Impetigo if widespread infection
PO flucloxacillin
52
Treatment for cellulitis
High dose flucloxacillin
53
Examples of aminoglycosides
Neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, gentamicin, streptomycin
54
What type of bacteria is Gentamicin active against
many gram -ve (inc. P aeruginosa) and some gram +ve --> inactive against Anaerobes
55
Side effects of aminoglycosides
Nephrotoxic Otoxic Hypocalcaemia + hypokalaemia + hypomagnesaemia May impair neuromusculae transmission (CI in MG)
56
If a patient has renal impairment and is prescribed an aminoglycoside, what must be done to the dosage interval?
increase the interval so there is more time for the drug to be excreted
57
What condition is AG contraindicated in?
Myasthenia Gravis
58
Why is IBW used to calculate Gentamicin doses>
AG are hydrophilic - to avoid excessive dosing in obese patinets
59
When should Gentamicin levels be taken and what is the aim?
For OD dose regimes: pre dose <1mg/mL | For multi dose regimes: take 1 hour after dose (5-10mg/mL) and trough levels (<2mg/mL)
60
If a gentamicin pre-dose conc is high, what should be done
increae the dosing interval
61
If an aminglycoside post dose level is high what should be done?
Reduce the dose of AG
62
MHRA alert for histamine related reaction was associated with which aminoglycoside?
Gentamicin
63
What antibiotics are broad spec and beta lactams?
Carbapenems
64
Are carbapenems active against methicillin resistant staph aureus?
No
65
Examples of Carbapenems
Meropenum and Imipenem
66
What antibiotics are cautioned in penicilin allergy?
Carbapenems
67
Which carbapenem is not active against P.aeruginosa?
Ertapenem (used for CAP, abdominal and gynae infection)
68
Why is imipenem given with Cilastatin?
Cilastatin is an enzyme inhibtor that blocks imipenems renal metabolism as kidneys partially inactive imipenem
69
Which carbapenem has the least seizure inducing potential?
Meropenem
70
What is the interaction between carbapenem and sodium valporate?
Carbapenems decrease the concentration of sodium valp as low as 10% - increasing sodium valp dose does nto counteract the interaction
71
What spectrum are cephalosporins?
Broad spec
72
Example of 1st gen cephalosporin
Cephalexin (often used in UTI, safe in pregnancy)
73
Example of 2nd gen cephalosporin
Cefuroxime (more activity against gram -ve bacteria)
74
Example of 3rd gen cephalosporin
Ceftriaxone and Ceftazidime (ceftazidime is active against pseudomonas)
75
Which cephlasporin can cause gall bldder stones?
Cetriaxone - caution in history of hypercalciuria
76
Examples of glycopeptides
vanc + Teic
77
What spectrum are glycopepetides active against
Gramm +ve only
78
Side effects of glycopeptides
Red man syndrome ( if infused too fast), nephrotxocitiy and otoxicity
79
What is the aim for Vancomycin trough levels?
10-20mg/L
80
Which antibiotic is well concentrated into bone and exreted in bile and urine?
clindamycin
81
Which antibiotic is most liley ot cause antibiotic associated colitiis?
Clindamycin
82
What is a caution associated wiht Macrolides?
Can prolong QT
83
Which macrolide is QDS dosing and which is BD?
``` QDS = erythromycin (more GI s/e) BD = clarithromycin ```
84
Macrolides can cause drug interactions. Why?
They are enzyme inhibitors so can increase levels of warfarin, statins, CCBs, Apixaban, digoxin etc
85
What condition can Azithromycin be sold as a max 1g dose for OTC?
Asymptomatic chlamydia trachomatis gential infection
86
Counselling points with metronidazole
Take with food, avoid alcohol and for48 hours after treatment, may darken urine
87
Which antibiotics are penicillinase resistant?
Flucloxacillin and Temocillin
88
what antibiotics are antipseudomal penicilins?
Pip-taz (4.5g TDS)
89
Amoxicilin peadiatric doses
Age 1-11months: 125mg TDS Age 1-4 years: 250mg TDS Age 5-17 years: 500mg TDS
90
What is the only oral antibiotic agaisndt P..aeruginosa
Ciprofloxacin
91
What drug in conjunction to a quininole can increae the risk of convulsions
NSAIDS
92
What is the MHRA alert regarding quinolones
Tendon ruptue and damage - CI if history of tendon disorders following quinolone use
93
Concomittant therapy with what drug increases the risk of quinolone induced tendon rupture?
Corticosteroids
94
what antibiotic class is associated with an MHRA alert regarding increased risk of Aortic anerusym and dissection?
Quinolones
95
What conditions are quinolones cautioned in
QT prolongation, arthropathy in children, epilepsy, G6DP deficiency, excessive exposure to sunlight
96
What medication interacts with Trimethoprim / co-trimz>
Methotrexate
97
Dose of trimethoprim for UTIS
200mg BD (occassionally 100mg ON for UTI prophylaxis)
98
What is the name for trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole
Co-trimoxazole
99
What antibiotic is used ofr PCP infection
Co-trimox 120mg/kg/day for treatment and 960mg for propylaxis dose (noramally M/W/Fri)
100
What must you monitor for with trimethoprim/co-trimox?
Blood disorders (leucopenia, thrombocytopenia, aneamia)
101
How should tetracyclines be taken?
Swallow whole, avoid exposure to sunlight, indigestion remedies/zin iron 2 hours before or after
102
Which tetracycline holds the greatest risk of SLE?
Minocycline
103
Why should chloramphenicol be avoided in babies?
Grey baby syndrome risk
104
What needs to be monitored during daptomycin therapy
Creatine phosphokinase - before and then at least weekly during treatment + renal function
105
What are the mhra warnings associated wiht Linezolid?
1. Optic neuropathy | 2. Blood disorders
106
What is the risk of using linezolid in combination wiht SSRIS
Serotonin syndrome
107
What is Rifaximin used for?
Travellers diarhorrea and recurrence of hepatic encepthalopathy
108
Nitrofurantoin has the risk of what neuropathy?
Peripheral neuropathy
109
When is antiviral treatment needed for children with chickenpox?
If <1 month i.e. neonate
110
What is herpes Zooster more commonly known as
Shingles
111
What drug is used for herpes zooster (systemically) and herpes simplex (topically)
Aciclovir
112
Valaciclovir can be used for what form of herpes?
Genital herpes
113
What is Ganciclovir used to treat?
CMV
114
What is Oseltamivir licensed for use for?
flu - start within 48 hours