Infections of the urinary Tract Flashcards

1
Q

Nitrofurantoin is effective against most common uropathogens. It is____excreted from the urine but does ____. Therefore it is not useful for upper tract, complicated infections, or blood-borne infections It has minimal/maximal effects on the resident bowel and vaginal flora

A

Nitrofurantoin is effective against most common uropathogens. It is rapidly excreted from the urine but does not obtain therapeutic levels in most body tissues, including the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. Therefore it is not useful for upper tract, complicated infections, or blood-borne infections. It has minimal effects on the resident bowel and vaginal flora

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2
Q

___ the presence of white blood cells (WBCs) in the urine, is generally indicative of infection and/or an inflammatory response of the urothelium to __,__,___, or other conditions that can contribute to pyuria. Bacteriuria without pyuria is generally indicative of bacterial colonization without overt infection of the urinary tract. Pyuria without bacteriuria, or sterile pyuria, warrants further evaluation

A

Pyuria, the presence of white blood cells (WBCs) in the urine, is generally indicative of infection and/or an inflammatory response of the urothelium to bacteria, stones, an indwelling foreign body, or other conditions that can contribute to pyuria. Bacteriuria without pyuria is generally indicative of bacterial colonization without overt infection of the urinary tract. Pyuria without bacteriuria, or sterile pyuria, warrants further evaluation

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3
Q

Acute pyelonephritis is a clinical syndrome of __,__ and ___ that is accompanied by__ and __, a combination that is reasonably specific for an acute bacterial infection of the kidney.

A

Acute pyelonephritis is a clinical syndrome of chills, fever, and flank pain that is accompanied by bacteriuria and pyuria, a combination that is reasonably specific for an acute bacterial infection of the kidney.

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4
Q

Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis (XGP) is a rare form of ____ often associated with _____ and characterized by destructive replacement of normal renal parenchyma with ___; it is associated with____of renal function

A

Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis (XGP) is a rare form of chronic pyelonephritis often associated with stone disease and characterized by destructive replacement of normal renal parenchyma with granulomatous inflammation; it is associated with ipsilateral loss of renal function

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5
Q

factors of complicated UTI

A
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6
Q

UTIs may also be defined by their relationship to other UTIs:

  1. A first or isolated infection is one that occurs in an individual who has___ or has one ___ from a
    previous UTI.
  2. An unresolved infection is one that __ and is documented to be the __ with a similar ___.
  3. A recurrent infection is one that occurs after documented, successful resolution of an antecedent infection. Consider these two different types of recurrent infection:

a. Reinfection describes a ___ associated with ___ of bacteria into the urinary tract.
b. Bacterial persistence refers to a recurrent UTI caused by the same bacteria ___ within the urinary tract, such as an __ or the ___.

A

• A first or isolated infection is one that occurs in an individual who has never had a UTI or has one remote infection from a
previous UTI.
• An unresolved infection is one that has not responded to antimicrobial therapy and is documented to be the same organism with a similar resistance profile.
• A recurrent infection is one that occurs after documented, successful resolution of an antecedent infection. Consider these two different types of recurrent infection:

  1. Reinfection describes a new event associated with reintroduction of bacteria into the urinary tract.
  2. Bacterial persistence refers to a recurrent UTI caused by the same bacteria reemerging from a focus within the urinary tract, such as an infectious stone or the prostate.
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7
Q

The long-term effects of uncomplicated recurrent UTIs are not completely known, but, so far, there is no/there is association between recurrent infections and renal scarring, hypertension, or progressive renal azotemia has been established

A

The long-term effects of uncomplicated recurrent UTIs are not completely known, but, so far, no association between recurrent infections and renal scarring, hypertension, or progressive renal azotemia has been established

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8
Q

UTIs occur as a result of interactions between the uropathogen and the host. Successful infection of the urinary tract is determined in part by the virulence factors of the__, __ and___

A

UTIs occur as a result of interactions between the uropathogen and the host. Successful infection of the urinary tract is determined in part by the virulence factors of the bacteria, the inoculum size, and the inadequacy of host defense mechanisms

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9
Q

Gram-negative bacteria and their endotoxins, pregnancy, ureteral obstruction, and high lower tract pressures have a significant ____

A

Gram-negative bacteria and their endotoxins, as well as pregnancy, ureteral obstruction, and high lower tract pressures have a significant antiperistaltic effect

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10
Q

hematogenous spread: kidney is occasionally secondarily infected in patients with___ originating from oral sites or with ___

A

kidney is occasionally secondarily infected in patients with Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia originating from oral sites or with Candida fungemia

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11
Q

Direct extension of bacteria from the adjacent organs via lymphatics may occur in unusual circumstances, such as a __ or ___

A

Direct extension of bacteria from the adjacent organs via lymphatics may occur in unusual circumstances, such as a severe bowel infection or retroperitoneal abscesses.

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12
Q

___ is by far the most common cause of UTIs, accounting for 85% of community-acquired and 50% of hospital-acquired infections. Other gram-negative Enterobacteriaceae, including ___ and ____, and gram-positive ___ and __ are responsible for the remainder of most community-acquired infections.

A

E. coli is by far the most common cause of UTIs, accounting for 85% of community-acquired and 50% of hospital-acquired infections. Other gram-negative Enterobacteriaceae, including Proteus and Klebsiella, and gram-positive Enterococcus faecalis and Staphylococcus saprophyticus are responsible for the remainder of most community-acquired infections.

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13
Q

___ is a rare pathogen that causes UTIs in older adults with significant comorbidities, including some urologic malignancies

A

Aerococcus urinae is a rare pathogen that causes UTIs in older adults with significant comorbidities, including some urologic malignancies

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14
Q

_____, is a gram-negative rod that has been associated with UTIs in immunocompromised patients

____ a gram-negative rod commonly found in environmental sources such as soil, has been identified as the causative agent in UTIs in immunocompromised patients and is particularly dangerous because of its extensive drug resistance

A

Raoultella planticola, is a gram-negative rod that has been associated with UTIs in immunocompromised patients (Skelton et al., 2017).

Myroides odoratimimus, a gram-negative rod commonly found in environmental sources such as soil, has been identified as the causative agent in UTIs in immunocompromised patients and is particularly dangerous because of its extensive drug resistance

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15
Q

____ merits special attention as a rapidly emerging cause of multidrug-resistant infections, including UTI

A

E. coli sequence type ST131 (serotype O25b:H4) merits special attention as a rapidly emerging cause of multidrug-resistant infections, including UTI

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16
Q

Urinary tuberculosis (UTB) most commonly occurs with __,, __, ___ and ___ with or without systemic symptoms such as __ and ___. Diagnosis and subsequent treatment are often delayed because of nonspecific symptoms, potentially contributing to impaired renal function and eventual renal failure. _____for M. tuberculosis has replaced acid-fast staining as the ideal method of diagnos

A

Urinary tuberculosis (UTB) most commonly occurs with hematuria (either gross hematuria, microhematuria, and/or sterile pyuria), storage symptoms, and/or dysuria, with or without systemic symptoms such as fever and weakness. Diagnosis and subsequent treatment are often delayed because of nonspecific symptoms, potentially contributing to impaired renal function and eventual renal failure. Polymerase chain reaction for M. tuberculosis has replaced acid-fast staining as the ideal method of diagnos

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17
Q

The steps of UPEC pathogenesis include (6)

A

The steps of UPEC pathogenesis include (1) UPEC colonization of the periurethral and vaginal tissue as well as the urethra; (2) ascending infection into the bladder lumen and within the urine; (3) adherence to the surface urothelium and interaction with the bladder epithelial cell defense mechanism; (4) biofilm elaboration; (5) invasion and replication by forming bladder Intracellular Bacterial Communities (IBCs), in which quiescent intracellular reservoirs (QIRs) can form and stay dormant in the underlying urothelium; (6) and, in some cases, renal colonization and host tissue damage with high risk for sepsis

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18
Q

___ are commonly expressed on nonpathogenic and pathogenic E. coli

A

Type 1 pili are commonly expressed on nonpathogenic and pathogenic E. coli

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19
Q

some bacteria grown in a broth medium express pili, whereas the same strain grown on the same medium in a solid state will cease production of pili. This is called

A

phase variation

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20
Q

Natural Defenses of the Urinary Tract (3)

A

Periurethral and Urethral Region

Urine

Bladder

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21
Q

Uromodulin (Tamm-Horsfall protein), a kidney-derived mannosylated protein that is present in an extraordinarily high concentration in the urine (>100 mg/mL), may play a defensive role by saturating all the mannose-binding sites of the type 1 pili, thus potentially blocking bacterial binding to the uroplakin receptors of the urothelium

A

___, a kidney-derived mannosylated protein that is present in an extraordinarily high concentration in the urine (>100 mg/mL), may play a defensive role by saturating all the mannose-binding sites of the type 1 pili, thus potentially blocking bacterial binding to the uroplakin receptors of the urothelium

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22
Q

The early diagnosis of RPN is important to improve prognosis and reduce morbidity. In addition to chronic infection, patients with ___ may have an increased incidence of urothelial tumors; routine urinary cytologic examinations may be helpful to diagnose these tumors early

A

The early diagnosis of RPN is important to improve prognosis and reduce morbidity. In addition to chronic infection, patients with analgesic abuse–associated papillary necrosis may have an increased incidence of urothelial tumors; routine urinary cytologic examinations may be helpful to diagnose these tumors early

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23
Q

Renal PAPILLARY NECROSIS: __ and ___ can minimize a decline in renal function. A patient who suffers from an acute ureteral obstruction caused by a sloughed papilla and who has a concomitant UTI has a urologic emergency. In this case, immediate removal of the obstructing papilla by ___ or____ of the kidney by ureteral catheter or percutaneous nephrostomy is necessary

A

adequate antimicrobial therapy to control infection and early recognition and treatment of ureteral obstruction caused by sloughed necrotic tissue can minimize a decline in renal function. A patient who suffers from an acute ureteral obstruction caused by a sloughed papilla and who has a concomitant UTI has a urologic emergency. In this case, immediate removal of the obstructing papilla by stone basket or acute drainage of the kidney by ureteral catheter or percutaneous nephrostomy is necessary

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24
Q

UTIs are fivefold more prevalent in ___than in control subjects The pathologic bacteria include higher rates of ___ and ___ in HIV positive patients.

A

UTIs are fivefold more prevalent in HIV-positive individuals than in control subjects (Schonwald et al., 1999). The pathologic bacteria include higher rates of Acinetobacter and Salmonella species in HIVpositive patients.

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25
Q

Of all patients with bacteriuria, no group compares in severity and morbidity with those who have ___

A

Of all patients with bacteriuria, no group compares in severity and morbidity with those who have SCI.

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26
Q

painless gross hematuria, or microhematuria
in the absence of a positive culture, should always raise the suspicion for___ , and a ___ must be initiated.

A

painless gross hematuria, or microhematuria
in the absence of a positive culture, should always raise the suspicion for urologic malignancy, and a hematuria evaluation must be initiated.

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27
Q

Before sample collection in circumcised men, the glans should
be cleansed with a ___. For those uncircumcised, the foreskin should be ___ and the glans cleansed with the ___ before specimen collection. A ___specimen should be obtained by collecting it in a sterile cup.

A

Before sample collection in circumcised men, the glans should
be cleansed with a 2% castile soap towelette. For those uncircumcised, the foreskin should be retracted and the glans cleansed with the towelette before specimen collection. A midstream specimen should be obtained by collecting it in a sterile cup.

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28
Q

Situations in which a catheterized sample should be considered include when the voided sample shows clear evidence of ___ (i.e., many ___), a patient has a___, the patient is unable to provide an adequate clean-catch sample, or the patient cannot provide any sample at all.

A

Situations in which a catheterized sample should be considered include when the voided sample shows clear evidence of contamination (i.e., many squamous epithelial cells), a patient has a pessary, the patient is unable to provide an adequate clean-catch sample, or the patient cannot provide any sample at all. Although

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29
Q

Leukocyte esterase is produced by the ____. Its presence is an indication of ___, but not ___specifically. the presence of WBCs and therefore leukocyte esterase is uncommon/not uncommon in women with vaginal contamination. Nitrites are present when bacteria reduce ___, via ___ activity. ALL /NOT ALL bacteria produce nitrites.

A

Leukocyte esterase is produced by the breakdown of WBCs in the urine. Its presence is an indication of pyuria, but not bacteria specifically. As mentioned previously, the presence of WBCs and therefore leukocyte esterase is not uncommon in women with vaginal contamination. Nitrites are present when bacteria reduce dietary nitrates, via bacterial nitrate reductase activity. Not all bacteria produce nitrites, though, so the absence of nitrites does not mean bacteria are not present

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30
Q

Other conditions known to cause pyuria include aside from UTI: (4)

A

GU tuberculosis, urolithiasis, injury to the urothelium (including chlamydial urethritis), and interstitial nephriti

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31
Q

a standard urine culture may be negative. In this scenario a culture should be sent specifically looking for ___ organisms such as__ or __

A

a standard urine culture may be negative. In this scenario a culture should be sent specifically looking for atypical organisms such as Ureaplasma urealyticum or Mycoplasma hominis.

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32
Q

The term asymptomatic bacteriuria is appropriately used when
a person has no signs or symptoms of a UTI, yet bacteria are identified in a noncontaminated urine sample. In women, the term asymptomatic bacteriuria is used when the ___ is identified in quantitative counts of greater than or equal to ____ in ___ voided samples that are obtained in a fashion that ___.

In men, ___ voided sample that identifies one bacterial species in quantitative counts greater than or equal to___ CFUs is necessary to use the term asymptomatic bacteriuria appropriately

A

The term asymptomatic bacteriuria is appropriately used when
a person has no signs or symptoms of a UTI, yet bacteria are identified in a noncontaminated urine sample. In women, the term asymptomatic bacteriuria is used when the same bacteria is identified in quantitative counts of greater than or equal to 100,000 CFUs in two consecutive voided samples that are obtained in a fashion that minimizes contamination. In men, only one cleancatch voided sample that identifies one bacterial species in quantitative counts greater than or equal to 100,000 CFUs is necessary to use the term asymptomatic bacteriuria appropriately

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33
Q

guidelines clearly stipulate that, in the majority of patients, asymptomatic bacteriuria SHOULD/ should not be treated. it should always be treated in __ and in patients who are undergoing procedures in which ___ is anticipated

A

Should not, pregnant, transmucosal bleeding

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34
Q

Nitrofurantoin can cause___and ___, such as pulmonary fibrosis, when used chronically. Nitrofurantoin should also be avoided in patients with suspicion of or known ___ deficiency because it can lead to hemolytic anemia. It had always been recommended that nitrofurantoin be avoided in patients with chronic renal insufficiency, defined as a CrCl less than 30 mL/min, because of lack of efficacy from poor renal concentrating ability

A

Nitrofurantoin can cause GI upset and rare pulmonary issues, such as pulmonary fibrosis, when used chronically. Nitrofurantoin should also be avoided in patients with suspicion of or known glucose6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency because it can lead to hemolytic anemia. It had always been recommended that nitrofurantoin be avoided in patients with chronic renal insufficiency, defined as a CrCl less than 30 mL/min, because of lack of efficacy from poor renal concentrating ability

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35
Q

Fosfomycin, an oral bactericidal antimicrobial agent similar to phosphonic acid in chemical structure, is active against most uropathogens. Its major benefit is ___, as well as its efficacy against the majority of __ and ___. Further, it has been shown to be effective as a single-dose agent when used as an empirical treatment for __-. It is an excellent oral option for MDR bacteria that would otherwise necessitate treatment with intravenous antibiotics

A

Fosfomycin, an oral bactericidal antimicrobial agent similar to phosphonic acid in chemical structure, is active against most uropathogens. Its major benefit is its limited cross-resistance between most other common antibacterial agents, as well as its efficacy against the majority of gram-negative organisms and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE). Further, it has been shown to be effective as a single-dose agent when used as an empirical treatment for uncomplicated cystitis. It is an excellent oral option for MDR bacteria that would otherwise necessitate treatment with intravenous antibiotics

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36
Q

Woman with acute uncomplicated cystitis • Absence of fever, flank pain, or other suspicion for pyelonephritis • Able to take oral medication, next step in management

A
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37
Q

Approximately 90% of women are asymptomatic ___ after initiating antimicrobial therapy A follow-up visit or culture is required/not required in women who are asymptomatic after therapy. Further urologic evaluation is unnecessary in women who respond to therapy . However, UTIs in most men should be considered complicated until proven otherwise

A

Approximately 90% of women are asymptomatic within 72 hours after initiating antimicrobial therapy (Fihn et al., 1985). A follow-up visit or culture is not required in women who are asymptomatic after therapy. Further urologic evaluation is unnecessary in women who respond to therapy (Abarbanel et al., 2003; Lipsky, 1989). However, UTIs in most men should be considered complicated until proven otherwise

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38
Q

unresolved urinary tract infection causes: (4)

A

SUMMARIZED ANSWER: ANTIMICROBIALS ARE NOT EFFECTIVE TO BEGIN WITH

DEVELOPMENT OF RESISTANCE IN PREVIOUSLY SUSCEPTIBLE SPECIES

PRESENCE OF UNSUSPECTED PATHOGEN

REINTRODUCTION OF NEW SPECIES WHILE UNDERGOING THERAPY for the 1st speceis being treated

Most commonly, the bacteria are resistant to the antimicrobial agent selected to treat the infection. Typically, the patient has received the antimicrobial therapy in the recent past and developed bowel colonization with resistant bacteria.

The second most common cause is development of resistance in a previously susceptible population of bacteria during the course of treatment of UTIs. This problem occurs in approximately 5% of the patients receiving antimicrobial therapy. It is easy to recognize clinically because the culture on therapy shows that the previous susceptible population has been replaced by resistant bacteria of the same species. It can be shown that resistant organisms were actually present before contact with the initial antimicrobial agent, but they were present in such low numbers that it was impossible to detect by in vitro susceptibility studies before therapy. When the antimicrobial concentration in the urine is insufficient to kill all the bacteria present, the more resistant forms will emerge. This characteristically is seen in patients who are underdosed or who are poorly compliant and hence have inadequate dose regimens. The third cause is the presence of an unsuspected, second pathogen that was present initially and is resistant to the antimicrobial therapy chosen. Treatment of the dominant organism unmasks the presence of the second strain.

The fourth cause is rapid reintroduction of a new resistant species while the patient is undergoing initial therapy. Rapid reinfection that mimics unresolved bacteriuria should alert the clinician to the possibility of an enterovesical fistula.

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39
Q

A recurrent UTI is defined as ___or
___

A

A recurrent UTI is defined as two UTIs in a 6-month period or
three or more UTIs in a 12-month period

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40
Q

risk factors for recurrent UTI

A
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41
Q

Significant risk factors for recurrence in women (6)

A

Significant risk factors for recurrence in women include sexual activity, a new sexual partner within the past year, menopause, spermicidal use, family history of UTI in a first-degree female relative, and recent antimicrobial use

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42
Q

In patients with emptying symptoms or a distended bladder on physical examination, documentation of a ___

A

In patients with emptying symptoms or a distended bladder on physical examination, documentation of a postvoid residual is critical

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43
Q

Cranberry products for UTI prophylaxis have been investigated for years in the scientific and lay press. One of the active ingredients in cranberry is the ___, which prevents the ___ from adhering to uroepithelial cells

A

Cranberry products for UTI prophylaxis have been investigated for years in the scientific and lay press. One of the active ingredients in cranberry is the polyphenol type A proanthocyanidin (PAC), which prevents the P fimbriae of E. coli from adhering to uroepithelial cells

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44
Q

decreased estrogen levels contribute to the transformation to __ and __, which creates a more hospitable environment for bacteria to thrive.

A

decreased estrogen levels contribute to the transformation to atrophic vaginal epithelium and increased vaginal pH, which creates a more hospitable environment for bacteria to thrive. Indeed, the lack of estrogen causes marked changes in the vaginal microflora, including a loss of lactobacilli and increased colonization by E. coli

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45
Q

vaginal estrogen is effective in preventing recurrent UTIs in postmenopausal women. The beneficial effect from vaginal estrogen use can take at ___ weeks to manifest

A

vaginal estrogen is effective in preventing recurrent UTIs in postmenopausal women. The beneficial effect from vaginal estrogen use can take at least 12 weeks to manifest

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46
Q

the relationship between laboratory findings
and the presence of ___ often is poor. Bacteriuria and pyuria, the hallmarks of UTI, are/are not predictive of renal infection.

patients with significant renal infection may have sterile urine if the _ or __.

A

the relationship between laboratory findings
and the presence of renal infection often is poor. Bacteriuria and pyuria, the hallmarks of UTI, are not predictive of renal infection. Conversely, patients with significant renal infection may have sterile urine if the ureter draining the kidney is obstructed or the infection is outside of the collecting system

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47
Q

UA of acute pyelenophritis.

the relationship between laboratory findings
and the presence of renal infection is __. Bacteriuria and pyuria, the hallmarks of UTI, are not/are predictive of renal infection. Conversely, patients with significant renal infection may have sterile urine if the ureter draining the kidney is __ or __

A

the relationship between laboratory findings
and the presence of renal infection often is poor. Bacteriuria and pyuria, the hallmarks of UTI, are not predictive of renal infection. Conversely, patients with significant renal infection may have sterile urine if the ureter draining the kidney is obstructed or the infection is outside of the collecting system

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48
Q

opd pyeloneph tx: __ is an appropriate first-line therapy in patients not requiring hospitalization where the prevalence of uropathogen resistance to quinolones in the community does not exceed __

A

Oral ciprofloxacin (500 mg twice daily) for 7 days is an appropriate first-line therapy in patients not requiring hospitalization where the prevalence of uropathogen resistance to quinolones in the community does not exceed 10%

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49
Q

pyelonephritis: solitary obstructed kidney causes acute renal failure; antimicrobial agents are dosed based on the GFR. Any substantial obstruction must be relieved expediently by the safest and simplest means, such as __ or __

A

solitary obstructed kidney causes acute renal failure; antimicrobial agents are dosed based on the GFR. Any substantial obstruction must be relieved expediently by the safest and simplest means, such as ureteral stent or percutaneous nephrostomy tube placement

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50
Q

Emphysematous pyelonephritis is a urologic emergency characterized by an ___l and __ infection caused by ___ uropathogens.

usually occurs in patients with __,

A

Emphysematous pyelonephritis is a urologic emergency characterized by an acute necrotizing parenchymal and perirenal infection caused by gas-forming uropathogens. The pathogenesis is poorly understood. Because the condition usually occurs in patients with diabetes, it has been postulated that the high tissue glucose levels provide the substrate for microorganisms such as E. coli, which are able to produce carbon dioxide by the fermentation of sugar

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51
Q

diagnosis of emphysematous pyelonephritis is established radiographically. ____ that is distributed in the parenchyma may appear on ___ as __ over the involved kidney

A

he diagnosis is established radiographically. Tissue gas that is distributed in the parenchyma may appear on abdominal radiographs as mottled gas shadows over the involved kidney

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52
Q

Empmysetous pyelonephritis: Obstruction is demonstrated in approximately ___. A ___ should be performed to assess the degree of renal function impairment in the involved kidney and the status of the contralateral kidney.

A

Obstruction is demonstrated in approximately 25% of the cases. A nuclear renal scan should be performed to assess the degree of renal function impairment in the involved kidney and the status of the contralateral kidney.

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53
Q

renal abscess: A thorough history may reveal a ___ before the onset of urinary tract symptoms or symptoms consistent with UTI or pyelonephritis in the weeks prior The infection may have occurred ___

A

A thorough history may reveal a gram-positive source of infection 1 to 8 weeks before the onset of urinary tract symptoms or symptoms consistent with UTI or pyelonephritis in the weeks prior (Hung et al., 2007). The infection may have occurred in any area of the body. Multiple skin carbuncles and IV drug abuse introduce grampositive organisms into the bloodstream. Other common sites are the mouth, lungs, and bladder

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54
Q

although the classic treatment for an abscess has been ___, there is good evidence that use of IV antimicrobial agents and careful observation of a small abscess less than ___ in a clinically stable patient is appropriate.

Antibiotics, if begun early enough in the course of the process, may obviate surgical procedures

A

lthough the classic treatment for an abscess has been percutaneous or open incision and drainage, there is good evidence that use of IV antimicrobial agents and careful observation of a small abscess less than 3 cm or even 5 cm in a clinically stable patient is appropriate. Antibiotics, if begun early enough in the course of the process, may obviate surgical procedures

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55
Q

_____ is bacterial infection in a hydronephrotic kidney. The term ___ refers to infected hydronephrosis associated with ___ of the parenchyma of the kidney, in which there is ___

Tx:

Once the diagnosis of pyonephrosis is made, the treatment is initiated with appropriate__ and __

A

Infected hydronephrosis is bacterial infection in a hydronephrotic kidney. The term pyonephrosis refers to infected hydronephrosis associated with suppurative destruction of the parenchyma of the kidney, in which there is total or nearly total loss of renal function

Once the diagnosis of pyonephrosis is made, the treatment is initiated with appropriate antimicrobial drugs and drainage of the infected pelvis

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56
Q

__ extends beyond the renal capsule but is contained by Gerota fascia and usually results from rupture of an acute cortical abscess into the perinephric space, extravasated infected urine from obstruction, or from hematogenous seeding from sites of infection

A

A perinephric abscess extends beyond the renal capsule but is contained by Gerota fascia and usually results from rupture of an acute cortical abscess into the perinephric space, extravasated infected urine from obstruction, or from hematogenous seeding from sites of infection

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57
Q
Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis (XGP) is a rare, severe, chronic renal infection typically resulting in diffuse renal destruction. Most cases are \_\_\_ and result in a \_\_
associated with \_\_\_\_ secondary to \_\_\_. XGP is characterized by accumulation of \_\_\_\_ . It begins within the pelvis and calyces and subsequently extends into and destroys renal parenchymal and adjacent tissues. It has been known to imitate almost every other inflammatory disease of the kidney, as well as renal cell carcinoma, on radiographic examination
A
Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis (XGP) is a rare, severe, chronic renal infection typically resulting in diffuse renal destruction. Most cases are **unilateral** and result in a **nonfunctioning,
enlarged kidney**associated with**obstructive uropathy secondary to nephrolithiasis**. XGP is characterized by**=---** It begins within the pelvis and calyces and subsequently extends into and destroys renal parenchymal and adjacent tissues. It has been known to imitate almost every other inflammatory disease of the kidney, as well as renal cell carcinoma, on radiographic examination
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58
Q

The primary factors involved in the pathogenesis of XGP are:

A

he primary factors involved in the pathogenesis of XGP are nephrolithiasis, obstruction, and infection

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59
Q

_ to be the most common organism involved with XGP

A

Proteus to be the most common organism involved with XGP (

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60
Q

XGP has been associated with:

A

XGP has been associated with renal cell carcinoma, papillary transitional cell carcinoma of the pelvis or bladder, and infiltrating squamous cell carcinoma of the pelvis

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61
Q

Malacoplakia, from the Greek word meaning “soft plaque,” is an unusual inflammatory disease originally described to affect the bladder but has been found to affect the GU and GI tracts, skin, lungs, bones, and mesenteric lymph nodes

It is hypothesized that bacteria or bacterial fragments form
the nidus for the calcium phosphate crystals that laminate the ___. Most investigations into the pathogenesis of this disease support theories that a defect in intraphagosomal bacterial digestion accounts for the unusual immunologic response that causes malacoplakia.

A

___ from the Greek word meaning “soft plaque,” is an unusual inflammatory disease originally described to affect the bladder but has been found to affect the GU and GI tracts, skin, lungs, bones, and mesenteric lymph nodes

It is hypothesized that bacteria or bacterial fragments form
the nidus for the calcium phosphate crystals that laminate the Michaelis-Gutmann bodies. Most investigations into the pathogenesis of this disease support theories that a defect in intraphagosomal bacterial digestion accounts for the unusual immunologic response that causes malacoplakia.

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62
Q

identift A, B, C

A

(A) Cut surface demonstrates extensive cortical and upper medullary replacement by multifocal, confluent, tumorlike masses.

(B) Cortical surface exhibits multiple, firm, plaquelike lesions.

(C) Hallmark of malacoplakia is demonstration of the Michaelis-Gutmann body (arrows), which represents incompletely destroyed bacteria surrounded by lipoprotein membrane (hematoxylin)

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63
Q

Multifocal malacoplakia on excretory urography typically is seen as ___

A

Multifocal malacoplakia on excretory urography typically is seen as enlarged kidneys with multiple filling defects

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64
Q

fournier’s gangrene: Predisposing factors include diabetes mellitus, local trauma, paraphimosis, periurethral extravasation of urine, perirectal or perianal infections, and surgery such as circumcision or herniorrhaphy. In cases originating in the genitalia, specifically as a result of urethral obstruction, the infecting bacteria probably pass through___ and spread along the ____ of the scrotum and penis, ____of the perineum, and ___ of the anterior abdominal wall

A

Predisposing factors include diabetes mellitus, local trauma, paraphimosis, periurethral extravasation of urine, perirectal or perianal infections, and surgery such as circumcision or herniorrhaphy. In cases originating in the genitalia, specifically as a result of urethral obstruction, the infecting bacteria probably pass through Buck fascia of the penis and spread along the Dartos fascia of the scrotum and penis, Colles fascia of the perineum, and Scarpa fascia of the anterior abdominal wall

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65
Q

fournier’s gangrene: Because __ is often an early finding, a plain film of the abdomen may be helpful in identifying air. Scrotal ultrasonography is also useful in this regard

A

Because crepitus (subcutaneous gas) is often an early finding, a plain film of the abdomen may be helpful in identifying air. Scrotal ultrasonography is also useful in this regard

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66
Q

Periurethral abscess is frequently a sequela of __, __ and ___ ___ is also associated with periurethral abscess formation

A

Periurethral abscess is frequently a sequela of gonorrhea, urethral stricture disease, or urethral catheterization. Frequent instrumentation is also associated with periurethral abscess formation

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67
Q

characteristics of sepsis spectrum

A
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68
Q

It is not surprising that untreated bacteriuria in the __- is accompanied by a substantial increase in the incidence of acute pyelonephritis because half of these women have upper tract bacteriuria

A

It is not surprising that untreated bacteriuria in the first trimester is accompanied by a substantial increase in the incidence of acute pyelonephritis because half of these women have upper tract bacteriuria

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69
Q

pregnancy:

This hydroureter has been attributed to the muscle-relaxing effects of ___ during pregnancy and to ___ by the enlarging uterus at the pelvic brim

A

This hydroureter has been attributed to the muscle-relaxing effects of increased progesterone during pregnancy and to mechanical obstruction of the ureters by the enlarging uterus at the pelvic brim

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70
Q

Cunnington’s review suggests that ascending GU tract infections may contribute to up to 50% of premature deliveries, especially when they occur before ___

A

Cunnington’s review suggests that ascending GU tract infections may contribute to up to 50% of premature deliveries, especially when they occur before 30 weeks’ gestation

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71
Q

oral antibiotic for pregnant women, what to avoid

A
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72
Q

CDC define a CAUTI as a ____To be diagnosed with a CAUTI, patients must have one symptom of a UTI (5) and a ___.

A

CDC define a CAUTI as a UTI after placement of an indwelling urinary catheter for more than 2 days (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention: Urinary Tract Infection, 2015). To be diagnosed with a CAUTI, patients must have one symptom of a UTI (suprapubic tenderness, CVA tenderness, urinary frequency/ urgency/dysuria, or fever >100.4°F) and a urine culture with a single organism more than 100,000 CFU/mL.

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73
Q

The development of bacteriuria in the presence of an indwelling catheter is inevitable and occurs at an incidence of approximately ___ per day of catheterization. Sterile and clean intermittent catheterization has been associated with rates of bacteriuria ranging from ___ per catheterization

A

The development of bacteriuria in the presence of an indwelling catheter is inevitable and occurs at an incidence of approximately 10% per day of catheterization. Sterile and clean intermittent catheterization has been associated with rates of bacteriuria ranging from 1% to 3% per catheterization

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74
Q

CAUTI: The catheter-meatal junction should be cleaned daily with ___, but antimicrobial agents should be avoided because they lead to colonization with resistant pathogens, such as___

A

The catheter-meatal junction should be cleaned daily with water, but antimicrobial agents should be avoided because they lead to colonization with resistant pathogens, such as Pseudomonas.

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75
Q

UTI and SCI: Although never rigorously compared with indwelling urethral catheterization, CIC has been shown to decrease lower urinary tract complications by maintaining __ and by reducing the ___ (Stover et al., 1989). CIC also appears to reduce complications associated with an indwelling catheter, such as (5)

A

Although never rigorously compared with indwelling urethral catheterization, CIC has been shown to decrease lower urinary tract complications by maintaining low intravesical pressure and by reducing the incidence of stones (Stover et al., 1989). CIC also appears to reduce complications associated with an indwelling catheter, such as UTI, fever, bacteremia, and local infections such as epididymitis and prostatitis

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76
Q

cauti: Urinalysis will show bacteriuria and pyuria. Pyuria is not diagnostic of infections because it may occur from the __

A

Urinalysis will show bacteriuria and pyuria. Pyuria is not diagnostic of infections because it may occur from the irritative effects of the catheter.

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77
Q

SCI px on catheters: Chronic infection and inflammation of the bladder mucosa could be the __ in these patient, __ produced in infected urine have also been implicated

A

Chronic infection and inflammation of the bladder mucosa could be the carcinogenic stimulus in these patients (Pyrah et al., 1955). Nitrosamines produced in infected urine have also been implicated

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78
Q

When used as Antimicrobial Prophylaxis, vancomycin and fluoroquinolones should be initiated within ___ the procedure. Single-dose AP is most appropriate in the majority of uncomplicated urologic surgery.

A

When used as AP, vancomycin and fluoroquinolones should be initiated within 120 minutes of the procedure. Single-dose AP is most appropriate in the majority of uncomplicated urologic surgery.

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79
Q

The most common cause for infection after transrectal prostate biopsy is __

A

The most common cause for infection after transrectal prostate biopsy is fluoroquinolone-resistant E. coli

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80
Q

screening before TRUS-Bx and targeted prophylaxis should be considered as a thoughtful, predictable___ to empirical prophylaxis. That being said, there are a number of issues related to the actual process of targeted prophylaxis including: (5)

A

Thus screening before TRUS-Bx and targeted prophylaxis should be considered as a thoughtful, predictable alternative to empirical prophylaxis. That being said, there are a number of issues related to the actual process of targeted prophylaxis including costs, time of extra visits, special culture media, and lab requirements

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81
Q

The EAU guideline recommends the use of AP in men before transrectal prostate biopsy as well as ___ with ___ in men before transrectal prostate biopsy.

A

The EAU guideline recommends the use of AP in men before transrectal prostate biopsy as well as rectal cleansing with povidone-iodine in men before transrectal prostate biopsy.

82
Q

wound classfication of 1. Opening into urinary tract, as in nephrectomy, cystectomy, prostatectomy, endoscopic procedures.

  1. PCNL
A
  1. Clean-contaminated ( class 2)
  2. contaminated (class 3)
83
Q

Patients With Indwelling Orthopedic Hardware

when to give AP?

A

The commission did not advise AP for urologic patients with joint replacements, pins, plates, or screws that were at least 2 years old. However, if the prosthetic joint or implant was inserted within 2 years, prophylaxis was recommended with either an oral quinolone or 2 g of ampicillin intravenously and 1.5 mg/ kg of gentamicin (vancomycin if ampicillin allergy) intravenously 30 to 60 minutes before the procedure.

84
Q
  1. Most recurrent infections in female patients are: a. complicated. b. reinfections. c. due to bacterial resistance. d. due to hereditary susceptibility factors. e. composed of multiple organisms.
A

Reinfections. Recurrent infections are hypothesized to be secondary to either bacterial persistence within the urinary tract or, more commonly, novel reinfection. Persistence, caused by the same bacterial strain, usually leads to recurrent infections in a short time frame, whereas reinfections generally occur over a more remote period. Reinfection is likely secondary to ascent of uropathogens from fecal flora into the urinary tract or from reemergence of bacteria from uroepithelial intracellular colonies.

85
Q

Rates of reinfection (i.e., time to recurrence) are influenced by: a. bladder dysfunction. b. renal scarring. c. vesicoureteral reflux. d. antimicrobial treatment. e. age.

A

d. Antimicrobial treatment. Whether a patient receives no treatment or short-term, long-term, or prophylactic antimicrobial treatment, the risk of recurrent bacteriuria remains the same; antimicrobial treatment appears to alter only the time until recurrence.

86
Q

The long-term effect of uncomplicated recurrent UTIs is: a. renal scarring. b. hypertension. c. azotemia. d. ureteral vesical reflux. e. minimal.

A

e. Minimal. The long-term effects of uncomplicated recurrent UTIs are not completely known, but so far, no association between recurrent infections and renal scarring, hypertension, or progressive renal azotemia has been established.

87
Q

The ascending route of infection is least enhanced by: a. catheterization. b. spermicidal agents. c. indwelling catheter. d. fecal soilage of perineum. e. frequent voiding.

A

e. Frequent voiding. This route is further enhanced in individuals with significant soilage of the perineum with feces, women using spermicidal agents, and patients with intermittent or indwelling catheters.

88
Q

Approximately 10% of symptomatic lower UTIs in young, sexually active female patients are caused by: a. Escherichia coli (E. coli). b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. c. Pseudomonas. d. Proteus mirabilis. e. Staphylococcus epidermidis.

A

b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. S. saprophyticus is recognized as causing frequent symptomatic UTIs in young, sexually active females, whereas it rarely causes infection in males and elderly individuals.

89
Q

The virulence factor that is most important for adherence is: a. hemolysin. b. K antigen. c. pili. d. colicin production. e. O serogroup

A

c. Pili. Studies have demonstrated that interactions between FimH and receptors expressed on the luminal surface of the bladder epithelium are critical to the ability of many uropathogenic E. coli strains to colonize the bladder and cause disease.

90
Q

Phase variation of bacterial pili: a. occurs only in vitro. b. affects bacterial virulence. c. is characteristic of pyelonephritic E. coli. d. is irreversible. e. refers to change in pilus length.

A

Affects bacterial virulence. This process is called phase variation and has obvious biologic and clinical implications. For example, the presence of type 1 pili may be advantageous to the bacteria for adhering to and colonizing the bladder mucosa but disadvantageous because the pili enhance phagocytosis and killing by neutrophils.

91
Q

The finding that first suggested a biologic difference in women susceptible to UTIs is: a. increased adherence of bacteria to vaginal cells. b. decreased estrogen concentration in vaginal cells. c. elevated vaginal pH. d. nonsecretor status. e. postmenopausal status.

A

a. Increased adherence of bacteria to vaginal cells. These studies established increased adherence of pathogenic bacteria to vaginal epithelial cells as the first demonstrable biologic difference that could be shown in women susceptible to UTI

92
Q

The primary bladder defense is: a. low urine pH. b. low urine osmolarity. c. voiding. d. Tamm-Horsfall protein (uromucoid). e. vaginal mucus

A

c. Voiding. Bacteria presumably make their way into the bladder fairly often. Whether small inocula of bacteria persist, multiply, and infect the host depends in part on the ability of the bladder to empty.

93
Q

The validity of a midstream urine specimen should be questioned if microscopy reveals: a. squamous epithelial cells. b. red blood cells. c. bacteria. d. white blood cells. e. casts

A

Squamous epithelial cells. The validation of the midstream urine specimen can be questioned if numerous squamous epithelial cells (indicative of preputial, vaginal, or urethral contaminants) are present.

94
Q

Urinary tract imaging is NOT usually indicated for recurrent UTIs in:

a. women. b. girls. c. men. d. boys. e. spinal cord–injured patients

A

a. Women. Imaging and cystoscopic evaluation are not warranted in all women with recurrent UTIs. Indeed, the yield of imaging in women without suspected complicated UTI is low and is not recommended by the American College of Radiology, the Canadian Urological Association Guidelines, or the European Association of Urology Guidelines. However, in women with risk factors for a complicated UTI the evaluation should include imaging and cystoscopy

95
Q

The most sensitive imaging modality for diagnosing renal abscess is: a. ultrasonography. b. indium scanning. c. gallium scanning. d. excretory urography. e. CT.

A

e. CT. CT and magnetic resonance imaging are more sensitive than excretory urography or ultrasonography in the diagnosis of acute focal bacterial nephritis, renal and perirenal abscesses, and radiolucent calculi

96
Q

Treatment of UTIs depends most on an antimicrobial agent’s: a. serum half-life. b. serum level. c. urine level. d. duration of therapy. e. frequency of therapy.

A

c. Urine level. Efficacy of the antimicrobial therapy is critically dependent on the antimicrobial levels in the urine and the length of time that this level remains above the minimum inhibitory concentration of the infecting organism. Thus resolution of infection is closely associated with the susceptibility of the bacteria to the concentration of the antimicrobial agent achieved in the urine.

97
Q

An ideal class of drugs for the treatment of uncomplicated symptomatic UTIs in women is: a. aminopenicillins. b. aminoglycosides. c. fluoroquinolones. d. cephalosporins. e. nitrofurantoin.

A

e. Nitrofurantoin. According to the Infectious Diseases Society of America 2010 update, nitrofurantoin 100 mg twice daily for 5 days or Bactrim DS twice daily for 3 days should be preferential regimens for the treatment of uncomplicated UTIs in women. Sensitivity to these agents should be confirmed on urine culture, especially if the patient does not report a resolution of symptoms at the end of their course.

98
Q

The host factor least likely to be associated with an increased risk of infection is: a. advanced age. b. a history of previous infection in the site/organ of interest. c. residence in a chronic care facility. d. indwelling orthopedic pins. e. coexistent infection.

A

d

99
Q

Treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria is most indicated in patients who are: a. elderly. b. catheterized. c. pregnant. d. confused. e. incontinent.

A

a. Pregnant women. In populations other than those for whom treatment has been documented to be beneficial (e.g., pregnant women and patients undergoing urologic interventions), screening for or treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not appropriate and should be discouraged.

100
Q

Screening for bacteriuria is beneficial in: a. pregnant women. b. elderly patients. c. men. d. children. e. spinal cord–injured patients

A

Screening for bacteriuria is beneficial in: a. pregnant women. b. elderly patients. c. men. d. children. e. spinal cord–injured patients

101
Q

The most common cause of unresolved bacteriuria during antimicrobial therapy is: a. development of bacterial resistance. b. rapid reinfections. c. azotemia. d. staghorn calculi. e. initial bacterial resistance.

A

. e. Initial bacterial resistance. Most commonly, the bacteria are resistant to the antimicrobial agent selected to treat the infection.

102
Q

Nitrofurantoin is effective because of the concentration of the drug in the: a. urine. b. vaginal mucus. c. bowel. d. serum

A

a. Urine. Nitrofurantoin, which does not alter the bowel flora, is present for brief periods at high concentrations in the urine and leads to repeated elimination of bacteria from the urine, presumably by interfering with bacterial initiation of infection

103
Q

The most common cause of acute pyelonephritis in young women is: a. vesicoureteral reflux. b. P-piliated bacteria. c. type 1 piliated bacteria. d. recurrent UTIs. e. bacterial endotoxin.

A

b. P-piliated bacteria. If vesicourethral reflux is absent, a patient bearing the P blood group phenotype may have special susceptibility to recurrent pyelonephritis caused by E. coli that have P pili and bind to the P blood group antigen receptors.

104
Q

An optimal oral antibiotic agent for the treatment of acute uncomplicated pyelonephritis in a pregnant women is: a. TMP-SMX b. Cephalexin c. Amoxicillin d. Levofloxacin e. Macrobid

A

b. Cephalexin. Macrobid is concentrated in the urine and cannot treat blood-borne infections. Amoxicillin has been used to treat cystitis in pregnancy but does not have broad enough gramnegative coverage for the treatment of pyelonephritis. Levofloxacin is contraindicated in pregnancy due to possible damage to fetal cartilage, and trimethoprim should be avoided in pregnancy because it may cause fetal megaloblastic anemia, and, in the first trimester, neural tube and cardiovascular defects by inhibiting folic acid metabolism.

105
Q

A patient with acute pyelonephritis, persistent fever, and flank pain for 24 hours warrants: a. observation. b. CT. c. change in antimicrobial therapy. d. ultrasonography. e. blood cultures

A

a. Observation. Even though the urine usually becomes sterile within a few hours of starting antimicrobial therapy, patients with acute uncomplicated pyelonephritis may continue to have fever, chills, and flank pain for several more days after initiation of successful antimicrobial therapy. They should be observed.

106
Q

Emphysematous pyelonephritis usually occurs in: a. children b. adults with a history of renal transplant c. women with a history of recurrent uncomplicated UTIs d. diabetic adults e. adults on clean intermittent catheterization

A

d. Diabetic adults. Emphysematous pyelonephritis predominantly affects female diabetics and can occur in insulin-dependent and non-insulin-dependent patients in the absence of ureteral obstruction. Nondiabetic patients can also develop this form of pyelonephritis but often have ureteric obstruction and do not seem to develop extensive disease

107
Q
  1. The primary treatment for a small perirenal abscess in a functioning kidney is: a. nephrectomy. b. partial nephrectomy. c. open surgical drainage. d. percutaneous drainage. e. retrograde ureteral drainage.
A

d. Percutaneous drainage. Although surgical drainage, or nephrectomy if the kidney is nonfunctioning or severely infected, is the classic treatment for perinephric abscesses, renal ultrasonography and CT make percutaneous aspiration and drainage of small perirenal collections possible.

108
Q

Most patients with chronic pyelonephritis present with: a. hypertension. b. renal failure. c. chronic infection. d. flank pain. e. no symptoms.

A

e. No symptoms. There are no symptoms of chronic pyelonephritis until it produces renal insufficiency, and then the symptoms are similar to those of any other form of chronic renal failure

109
Q

The most common bacterial cause of xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is: a. E. coli. b. Pseudomonas. c. Klebsiella. d. Proteus mirabilis. e. Staphylococcus

A

d. Proteus mirabilis. Although review of the literature shows Proteus to be the most common organism involved with xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis, E. coli is also common.

110
Q

Michaelis-Gutmann bodies are associated with the following disease process: a. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis b. Malacoplakia c. Renal echinococcosis d. Chronic pyelonephritis e. Acute focal bacterial nephritis

A

b. Malacoplakia. Malacoplakia, from the Greek word meaning “soft plaque,” is an unusual inflammatory disease that was originally described to affect the bladder. It is an inflammatory lesion described originally by Michaelis and Gutmann 1902. It was characterized by von Hansemann 1903 as soft, yellow-brown plaques with granulomatous lesions in which the histiocytes contain distinct basophilic lysosomal inclusion bodies or Michaelis-Gutmann bodies. Although its exact pathogenesis is unknown, malacoplakia probably results from abnormal macrophage function in response to a bacterial infection, which is most often E. coli.

111
Q

Treatment of renal echinococcosis involves which of the following: a. treatment with antibiotics and follow-up imaging to confirm regression of the hydatid cyst b. observation c. aspiration of cyst contents d. surgical removal of the hydatid cyst e. injection of the hydatid cyst with targeted antibiotics

A

d. Surgical removal of the hydatid cyst. Surgery remains the mainstay of treatment of renal echinococcosis. The cyst should be removed without rupture to reduce the chance of seeding, antigen reaction, and recurrence. If the cyst ruptures or cannot be removed and marsupialization is required, the contents of the cyst initially should be aspirated and filled with a scolicidal agent.

112
Q

The most reliable early clinical indicator of septicemia is: a. chills. b. fever. c. hyperventilation. d. lethargy. e. change in mental status.

A

c. Hyperventilation. Even before temperature extremes and the onset of chills, bacteremic patients often begin to hyperventilate. Thus the earliest metabolic change in septicemia is a resultant respiratory alkalosis.

113
Q

Compared with non-pregnant women, pregnant women have a higher prevalence of: a. asymptomatic bacteriuria. b. acute cystitis. c. acute pyelonephritis. d. recurrent cystitis. e. bacterial persistence

A

c

114
Q

Clinical pyelonephritis during pregnancy is most commonly linked to: a. maternal sepsis. b. maternal anemia. c. maternal hypertension. d. eclampsia. e. congenital malformations.

A

a. Maternal sepsis. Pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria are at higher risk for developing a symptomatic UTI that results in adverse fetal sequelae, complications associated with bacteriuria during pregnancy, and pyelonephritis and its possible sequelae, such as sepsis in the mother. Therefore all women with asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated

115
Q

The drug thought to be safe in any phase of pregnancy is: a. a fluoroquinolone. b. nitrofurantoin. c. a sulfonamide. d. penicillin. e. tetracycline.

A

d. Penicillin. The aminopenicillins and cephalosporins are considered safe and generally effective throughout pregnancy. In patients with penicillin allergy, nitrofurantoin is a reasonable alternative.

116
Q

The majority of elderly patients with bacteriuria are: a. asymptomatic. b. febrile. c. incontinent. d. confused. e. dysuric

A

a

117
Q

The most effective measure for reducing catheter-associated UTI is: a. closed drainage. b. antimicrobial prophylaxis. c. catheter irrigation. d. intermittent catheterization. e. daily meatal care.

A

a. Closed drainage. Careful aseptic insertion of the catheter and maintenance of a closed dependent drainage system are essential to minimize development of bacteriuria

118
Q

All of the following conditions are predisposing factors to the development of Fournier gangrene EXCEPT: a. obesity b. paraphimosis c. diabetes mellitus d. perirectal infections e. urethral strictures

A

a. Obesity. An association between Fournier gangrene and urethral obstruction associated with strictures and extravasation and instrumentation has been well documented. Predisposing factors include diabetes mellitus, local trauma, paraphimosis, periurethral extravasation of urine, perirectal or perianal infections, and surgery such as circumcision or herniorrhaphy.

119
Q

Which of the following is not a risk factor for UTI in a renal transplant recipient? a. Cadaveric graft b. Diabetes c. Prolonged hemodialysis prior to transplant d. Female gender e. Polycystic native kidneys

A

e. Polycystic native kidneys. Transplant recipients are at higher risk for vesicoureteral reflux. Risk factors for infection include cadaveric graft, diabetes, prolonged hemodialysis prior to transplantation, two episodes of asymptomatic bacteriuria, and female gender.

120
Q

Administration of an antimicrobial agent within___ of the initiation of a procedure and for a period of time that ____. Surgical antimicrobial prophylaxis entails treatment with an antimicrobial agent before and for a limited time after a procedure to prevent local or systemic postprocedural infections.

A

Administration of an antimicrobial agent within 60 to 120 minutes of the initiation of a procedure and for a period of time that covers the duration of the procedure. Surgical antimicrobial prophylaxis entails treatment with an antimicrobial agent before and for a limited time after a procedure to prevent local or systemic postprocedural infections.

121
Q

Which of the following organisms is NOT associated with positive nitrites on urine analysis? a. Enterococcus b. E. coli c. Proteus mirabilis d. Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

a. Enterococcus. Most gram-negative bacteria are capable of producing positive results on a nitrite test. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and most gram-positive organisms do not produce nitrites. 51. c. History of human papilloma virus (HPV). HPV history

122
Q

A 45-year-old woman is found to have a raised bladder lesion on cystoscopy. The biopsy shown in Fig. 55.3 reveals malakoplakia. The next step in management is: a. intravesical bacille Calmette-Guérin. b. fulguration of the lesions. c. intravesical mitomycin C. d. treat with a sulfonamide for several months. e. a 3-day course of ciprofloxacin.

A

d. Treat with a sulfonamide for several months. Fig. 55.3A shows von Hansemann histiocytes, and Fig. 55.3B demonstrates the Michaelis-Gutmann bodies, both of which are characteristic of malakoplakia. It is thought to be infectious in origin, and therefore the treatment is an extended course of an antibiotic that achieves a high intracellular concentration.

123
Q

A 68-year-old diabetic woman presents to the emergency room with the chief complaint of abdominal pain. CT scan findings of her pelvis are shown in Fig. 55.7. The next step in her management is:

a. inpatient antibiotics, Foley catheter placement, and glucose management b. collection of a urine sample and discharge home with empiric antibiotic coverage c. emergent exploration and surgical debridement with placement of a suprapubic tube d. obtain an ultrasound to assess the upper urinary tract e. reassurance

A

a. Inpatient antibiotics, Foley catheter placement, and glucose management. The figure is an example of emphysematous pyelonephritis. The majority (90%) of these patients are treated with medical therapy alone, which consists of antibiotics (often parenteral), bladder drainage, and treatment of comorbid conditions such as poorly controlled diabetes. The need for surgical intervention is rare and is reserved for those cases that respond poorly to initial medical management or severe necrotizing infections.

124
Q

Empiric UTI treatment

A

3 days of TMP/SMX
5 days of Nitrofurantoin 100 mg po bid
1 time dose of 3 grams Fosfomycin

125
Q

Recurrent UTI definition

___ in 6 months

___ in 12 months

A

2 in 6

3 in 12

126
Q

Multiple infections caused by the same bacteria (bacterial persistence) is often due to ____

A

GU tract issue - BPH, stones, UI

127
Q

Cystoscopy and upper tract imaging should not be routinely obtained in the ___ patient with r UTI

A

index pt = young healthy female

128
Q

Imaging for rUTI - ____

A

U/S or CT for stones

129
Q

Surgery to reduce rUTI - ____

A

stone surgery (50-80% effective)

130
Q

Screening for asymptomatic bacteriuria in 2 patients only - ___ & ____

A

pregnant

pre-op endoscopic procedure

131
Q

Prophylactic antibiotics to reduce rUTI are effective during the course of antibiotics; ____ than placebo once stopped

A

no different

132
Q

Proanthocyanins in ____ prevent adhesion of bacteria to urothelium

A

cranberry

133
Q

Estrogen for rUTI

A

Clinicians should recommend vaginal estrogen to peri-and post- menopausal women with rUTI

Patients on systemic estrogen should still be placed on vaginal estrogen

134
Q

Repeat urine culture if UTI symptoms persist on treatment beyond ____ days

A

7

135
Q

Treatment of nephrogenic adenoma

A

complete surgical resection

136
Q

Pyelonephritis workup

A

Urine & blood cultures
CBC, BUN, Creatinine
Imaging: CT scan

137
Q

Empiric pyelonephritis treatment

A

Ciprofloxacin 500 bid or 1000 mg ER for 7 days

TMP/SMX DS bid for 14 days

138
Q

Treatment for renal abscess <5 cm

A

IV antibiotics

139
Q

Treatment for renal abscess >5 cm

A

Percutaneous IR drainage

140
Q

Treatment for perinephric abscess <3 cm

A

IV antibiotics

141
Q

Treatment for perinephric abscess >3 cm

A

IR drainage

142
Q

Dx of air in collecting system

A

emphysematous pyelitis

143
Q

Treatment of emphysematous pyelitis

A

PCN or stent

144
Q

Dx of air in renal parenchyma

A

emphysematous pyelonephritis

145
Q

Treatment of emphysematous pyelonephritis

A

IR drainage or emergent nephrectomy

146
Q

Dx with infected, unilateral enlarged kidney, poor function and stone

A

xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis (XGP)

147
Q

XGP treatment

A

IV antibiotics –> nephrectomy

148
Q

In 20-40% of pregnant women, bacteruria can progress to _____

A

pyelonephritis

149
Q

Antibiotics safe for UTI in pregnancy

A

Amoxicillin, Keflex, Ceftriaxone

150
Q

1 antibiotic to avoid during pregnancy

A

Bactrim

151
Q

Treatment of febrile UTI after transrectal procedure

A

Carbapenem, Amikacin

152
Q

Treatment of febrile UTI after transrectal procedure

A

Carbapenem, Amikacin

153
Q

Next step in men with prostatitis not responsive to antibiotic therapy

A

CT/MRI looking for abscess

154
Q

Wait ____ after febrile UTI in men to collect screening PSA

A

6 months

155
Q

Suspect ____ in men with recurrent UTI

A

chronic bacterial prostatis

156
Q

Treatment for chronic bacterial prostatis

A
  1. Ciprofloxacin x4 weeks

2. Bactrim x6-12 weeks

157
Q

Treatment for Asymptomatic candiduria

A

None, change catheter

158
Q

Candida glabarata is commonly resistant to ___

A

Fluconazole

159
Q

Indications for treating asymptomatic funguria

A

Neutropenic patients
Infants with low birth weight
Patients with renal allografts
Patients who are to undergo GU tract procedure

160
Q

Peri-op treatment for Asymptomatic candiduria

A

Fluconazole 400mg daily

161
Q

Treatment for symptomatic fungal UTI

A

Fluconazole 200mg x2 weeks

162
Q

____ antimicrobial prophylaxis is appropriate in the majority of uncomplicated urologic cases.

A

Single dose

163
Q

Parenteral antimicrobial prophylaxis agents should be administered within ___ of an incision

A

1 hour

164
Q

____ prophylaxis is not recommended for routine cystoscopy or for urodynamic studies in healthy adults

A

Antibiotic

165
Q

Antimicrobial prophylaxis solely for the prevention of infectious endocarditis is ___ for genitourinary procedures

A

NOT required

166
Q

Antimicrobial prophylaxis for the prevention of prosthetic hip or knee prostheses is recommended within ___ years of prosthetic joint placement

A

2

167
Q

Single-dose antifungal prophylaxis is recommended for patients with _____ undergoing endoscopic, robotic, or open surgery on the urinary tract.

A

asymptomatic funguria

168
Q

New Sepsis Definitions quick SOFA criteria:

A

Respiratory rate ≥ 22/min
Altered mentation
Systolic blood pressure ≤ 100 mmHg

169
Q

What is SIRS and what are the criteria?

A

Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome

Hypo- (<36) or hyperthermia (>38,3)
Tachycardia (>90/min)
Tachypnoea (>20/min) and/or pCO2 <33mmHg
Leucocytosis (>12/nl) or leukopenia (<4/nl)

170
Q

What is a Urosepsis?

A

SIRS + UTI

171
Q

How many women will have a UTI in their lifetime?

A

50%

172
Q

What is the risk for another UTI after a woman has had one?

A

~20%

173
Q

What is the risk for another UTI after a woman has had two?

A

30%

174
Q

How many women who have had 3 UTI:s will have very frequent UTI:s?

A

80%

175
Q

When should you treat asymptomatic bacteriuria?

A

Pregnant women

Before urological procedures

176
Q

When can you use ciprofloxacin when treating a complicated UTI?

A

Local rexsistance <10% and

The entire treatment is given orally
Patients do not require hospitalization
Patient has an anyphylaxis for beta-lactam antimicrobials

177
Q

How should an uncomplicated UTI be treated:

A

Use a combination of:

amoxicillin + aminoglycoside or
second generation cephalosporin + aminoglycoside or
third generationcephalosporin iv as empirical treatment of complicatied UTI with systmeic symptoms

178
Q

What is the definition of antibiotic prophylaxis

A

Short, usually, single dose, administration of an antibiotik substance in normal dosage prior to start of operation

179
Q

In what urological procedure should antibiotic profylaxis be given regardless the culture?

A
Ureteroscopy
PNL
Tur P
Tur B (high risk patients)
Prostate biopsy (also use rectal cleansing)
180
Q

Imaging findings in pyelo

A

Enlarged kidney
Delayed nephrogram
Wedge-shaped non-enhancing region

181
Q

Specific finding on UA in pyelonephritis

A

white blood cell casts

182
Q

Outpatient antibiotic tx for pyelo

A

Levofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin
Bactrim

10-14 days

183
Q

Antibiotics for pregnant pt with pyelo

A

IV Ceftriaxone
IV Amp + Gent

Transition to oral Keflex

184
Q

If persistent fevers 3-5 days after appropriate abx for pyelo, ____ to rule out____

A

CT A/P with IV contrast

Renal abscess

185
Q

E Coli is pathogenic due to ____ that bind to P group

A

Fimbriae

186
Q

Treatment of <3cm renal abscess

A

IV antibiotics

187
Q

Treatment of 3-5cm renal abscess

A

PCN drain + IV abx

188
Q

Treatment of >5cm renal abscess

A

PCN or open drainage or nephrectomy

189
Q

Chronically inflamed kidney with loss of parenchyma & renal function

A

Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis (XGP)

190
Q

XGP is associated with ___ and ___ co-morbidity

A

infections

DM

191
Q

Gas-producing infection of renal parenchyma

A

Emphysematous Pyelonephritis

192
Q

Treatment of Emphysematous Pyelonephritis

A

Broad spectrum abx + PCN drainage

193
Q

Antibiotics for infected renal cyst

A

Ciprofloxacin
Bactrim
Clindamycin
Chloramphenicol

194
Q

Gas producing bacterial infection in collecting system

A

Emphysematous Pyelitis

195
Q

Most common organisms in Emphysematous Pyelitis

A

E Coli

Klebsiella

196
Q

Infected hydronephrosis with parenchyma destruction

A

Pyonephrosis

197
Q

Tx of pyonephrosis

A

Abx + PCN drainage

198
Q

Recurrent UTIs

> ___ in 6 months
___ in 1 year

A

> 2 in 6 months

> 3 in 1 year

199
Q

1st line antibiotic therapies for cystitis

____ x1 day
____ x3 days
____ x5 days

A

Fosfomycin x1 day

Bactrim x 3 days

Macrobid (Nitrofurantoin) x5 days

200
Q

Tx for rUTIs with vaginal atrophy

A

intravaginal estrogen

201
Q

In complicated or recurrent UTIs, next work-up is ____ & ____

A

cystoscopy & upper tract imaging