Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Yr 5 - paeds > infections/resp/allergy/derm > Flashcards

infections/resp/allergy/derm Flashcards

(110 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

croup AKA

A

laryngotracheobronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ix for croup

A

diagnosis is clinical
-FBC, CRP, U+E, viral PCR on throat swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when to admit with croup

A

if mod/severe, <6 months, immunocompromised, poor response to Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Advice for parents at home with croup

A

symptoms should start to get better 48-72 hours, no abx needed (virus), keep child calm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

if NEB adrenaline is given in croup - what do you need to do

A

monitor the child for 4 hours for rebound symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

discharge criteria for croup

A

no stridor at rest, normal colour, normal activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what kind of bacteria is bordetella pertussis

A

gram negative bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

three phases of whooping cough

A

catarrhal - 1-2 weeks (prodrome)
paroxysmal - cough, inspiratory whoop, periods of apnoea
convalescent - lasts 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dx of whooping cough

A

PCR on nasopharyngeal swab!!!

-can do serology for pertussis IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how long does child need to be off school for with whooping cough

A

48 hrs after macrolides or for 21 days with no abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

apart from abx, what are other mx points for whooping cough

A

notifiable disease, pregnant mum needs vaccine, can take 3 months to resolve, abx prophylaxis for contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is kartagener syndrome

A

type of PCD - situs inverses, recurrent sinusitis, bronchiectasis and sub fertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

IX for PCD (affect ciliary clearance in the lungs, paranasal sinus and middle ears

A

biopsy from bronchoscopy / nasal brush biopsy

+ look for consanguinity of the parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

apart from the sweat test, what other IX would you do for cystic fibrosis

A

sputum culture to see if colonised, genetic test, LFTs as can get obstruction due to thick pancreatic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is tested for on the newborn heal prick test for CF

A

immunoreactive trypsinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what do people with CF become colonised with

A

staph aureus and pseudomonas (may start them on prophylactic Abx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when can asthma subjective tests be done

A

before age 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

RF for asthma

A

genetic influence
LBW
prematurity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

a saturation of what indicates a severe asthma attack IN CHILDREN

A

(<92%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

when does an asthma attack require admission

A

in pregnancy, previous near fatal, severe and not responding, life threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

discharge criteria for asthma

A

PEFR >75%, inhaler technique checked, stable on discharge meds for 12-24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is uncontrolled asthma

A

any exacerbation which requires steroids, frequent regular symptoms (needing reliever 3 times a week/night time wakening more than 1 day a week)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what should you do if asthma is not controlled by a moderate dose MART + trials of a LTRA or LAMA

A

refer people to a specialist in asthma care when asthma is not controlled despite treatment with moderate-dose MART, and trials of an LTRA and a LAMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

RF for viral wheeze

A

maternal smoking, prematurity, male gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
causes of chronic cough in children
CF, PCD, asthma, aspiration (GORD), post nasal drip, TOF
26
what organisms colonise in bronchiectasis
Haemophilus influenza and pseudomonas aeruginosa
27
viral vs bacterial pneumonia in children
bacterial --> commonly affect the over 2s, have localised chest/neck/abdo pain due to pleuritic irritation, absence of rhinorrhoea or wheeze viral --> under 2s, coryzal symptoms, lower temp, no localised pain
28
most common cause of pneumonia in children
strep pneumoniae
29
mx of pneumonia in children
1) amoxicillin 2) add a macrolide to cover atypical organisms
30
when does laryngomalacia peak
6-8 months
31
what would an FNE show of laryngomalacia
short aryepiglottic folds and omega shapped epiglottis
32
what causes laryngomalacia
the larynx cartilage is softer, meaning get a collapse of the supraglottic structures into the airway
33
Mx of laryngomalacia
should resolve by 18 months -medical Mx --> feed thickener to stop aspiration and antirelfux meds to stop inflammation of the supra glottis
34
complications of laryngomalacia
life threatening airway obstruction, failure to thrive and failure to gain weight
35
sign of epiglottis on laternal neck xray
thumb sign
36
what is typical about the symptoms of epiglottis (dysphagia, dysphonia, drooling, dyspnoea)
acute onset!
37
complications of epiglottis
airway obstruction, meningitis, DNSI, pneumonia
38
pathophysiology of bronchiolitis
inflame of the bronchioles, excess mucous, causes increased airway resistance
39
RF of bronchiolitis
siblings that attend nursery, smoke exposure, chronic lung disease of prematurity, bottle fed
40
what Ix are done for bronchiolitis
pulse oximetry, nasopharyngeal aspirate or throat swab for RSV
41
when is a child with bronchiolitis admitted to hospital by 999
if apnoea, grunting, cyanosis, sats<92%, CHD
42
supportive MX for bronchiolitis in hospital
O2, NG feed, upper airway suctioning
43
when is discharge considered for bronchiolitis
when baby has adequate oral input, when they maintain sats >92% for > 4 hours
44
what can be used as prophylaxis for bronchiolitis
palivizumab
45
when should a baby recover from bronchiolitis
7-10 days
46
what causes roseolar infantum
HSV6 (maculopapular rash which occurs when fever has subsided, associated with febrile seizures)
47
when can child go back to school after scarlet fever
after 24 hours of abx
48
what strep species causes scarlet fever
group A Strep (progenies)
49
other names for fifth disease
slapped cheek, erythema infectious, parvovirus B19
50
complication of parvenus B19
aplastic crisis (can also cross the placenta, cause severe anaemia in the foetus and hydrops fetalis)
51
IX for measles
measles specific IgM or IgG
52
Mx for measles
if not vaccinated and presented in 72 hours --> can have MMR
53
how long do children with measles need to stay off school
4 days
54
virus causing hand foot and mouth
coxsackie A16
55
symptoms of rubella
posterior lymphadenopathy, fever then a rash which starts on the head and then spreads down the trunk
56
Ix for rubella
rubella specific IgM
57
if supportive measures of cradle cap (seborrhoea dermatitis) are not effective, what can be used?
topical clotrimazole
58
in which population is Kawasaki more common
Asian
59
for Dx of Kawasaki, how many symptoms are needed
fever >39 for 5 days + 4/5 of the other symptoms
60
what do bloods of Kawasaki show
anaemia, leukocytosis and thrombocytosis, elevated LFT
61
how long is aspirin continued in Kawasaki
high dose in the acute phase and then low dose until a FU echo has been done to rule out a coronary artery aneurysm
62
how much is petechial vs purpura
<3mm vs >3mm
63
what is HSP
systemic IgA small vessel vasculitis
64
Mx of HSP
self limiting, monitor urinanalysis and BP
65
signs of HUS (thrombocytopenia, AKI, MAHA)
about 5 days after diarrhoea, reduced urine output, haematuria, abdo pain, confusion, bruising
66
MX of HUS
fluid rehydration, haemofiltration, steroids plasmapharesis, antihypertensives
67
Mx options for warts
1) leave them alone 2) cryotherapy 3) topical salicylic acid -
68
firstline tx for impetigo
1% hydrogen peroxide -then fusidic acid -stay off school / no sharing of towels or clothes, no picking or scratching -flucloxacillin if more severe
69
MX for psoriasis
1) potent steroid and Vit D preparation applied at different times of day 2) if after 8 weeks no improvement try vit D twice a day (and stop steroid) 3) if no improvement after another8 weeks - then can use the steroid twice a day 4) then phototherapy UVB preferred 5) methotrexate 6) ciclosporin 7) biologics
70
although tonsillitis is normally caused by virus, what can cause it?
GAS (strep progenies) hence which is high score on fever pain needs 10 days of phenoxymethylpenicillin
71
Mx of oral candidiasis for babies
miconazole gel
72
what is ophthalmia neonatorum
conjunctivitis which occurs in the first 4 weeks of life (gonorrhoea - more acutely, lots of purulent discharge), (chalmydia presents a bit later)
73
what's it called when HSV-1 causes cold sores / ulcers + redness in mouth
gingivostomatitis
74
what's the incubation period for influenza
2 days
75
complicated signs of influenza
CNS symptoms, hypoxaemia, any signs or symptoms that require hospital admission
76
in children under 6 months, with flu, what are they prescribed
zanamivir (within 36 hours of symptom onset)
77
MOA of oseltamivir/zanamivir
neuraminidase inhibitor
78
vaccination of the flu in children
nasal spray from 2 - year 11 of secondary school (takes 2 weeks to work)
79
contraindications to the nasal flu vaccine
blocked nose, high fever, egg allergy, immunocompromised
80
lifecycle of malaria
protozoa gets injected as a sporozoite which travels to the liver, can lay dormant as a hypnozoite or can mature into a merozoite and leave. Merozoites become trophozoites in RBC -the rings in RBC = TROPHOZOITES!!!!
81
signs of severe malaria
acidosis, hypoglycaemia, fever >39 degrees
82
what is the most common cause of periorbital cellulitis
ethmoidal sinusitis
83
Dx of orbital cellulitis
culture the purulent nasal discharge + need CT!
84
what abx do you use to treat orbital cellulitis
ceftriaxone
85
what is brudzinski sign
lie patient on their back, flex their neck and get spontaneous flexion of their knee
86
what are the LP results for TB
high lymphocytes, high protein - even though it is a bacteria not a virus
87
how do you Tx meningitis in < 3months
Iv amoxicillin + cefotaxime
88
do you have to retreat after giving mebendazole?
no only retreat after 2 weeks if infection reoccurs
89
90
give examples of warning signs which suggest a primary immunodeficiency
4 or more ear infections in one year, 2 or more serious sinus infections in one year or a recurrent deep skin or abscess infection
91
what is X linked agammaglobinaemia
absence of B cells --> get recurrent bacterial infections
92
Di George genetics
22q11 deletion
93
how might a neutrophil disorder present
chronic granulomatous disease
94
although Dx of mumps is clinical, how can diagnosis by confirmed
salivary IgM
95
apart from tampons, what else can cause toxic shock
post op infections, cellulite, HIV, burns
96
features of toxic shock syndrome
fever >38.9 degrees, hypotension, diffuse erythematous rash, desquamation of rash especially on palms, altered mental state
97
toxin causing toxic shock
staph aureus (TSST-1 superantigen)
98
Mx of toxic shock syndrome
-remove infection focus -IV fluids -IV antibiotics -IVIG
99
most common cause of viral gastroenteritis
rota virus
100
which children are at risk of dehydration
-under 6 months -children who pass >5 stools or vomit > twice in a 24 hour period -children who stop breastfeeding in illness
101
compilation of rotavirus
toxic megacolon
102
symptoms of IGE mediated CPA
urticaria, itch, hoarseness
103
what is gold standard for allergy testing
oral food challenge
104
in a SPT, what do the sizes of the wheels indicate
not the severity of the allergy but instead the likelihood of having one
105
what is a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
IgG / IgM mediated reaction against cell surface of the extracellular matrix antigen
106
what is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
IgG/IgM mediated --> soluble antigen gets bound to by antibodies forming immune complexes which then deposit out in tissues and cause damage
107
mneumonic for an allergy history
Exposure Allergen Timing Environment Reproducibility Symptoms
108
causes for chronic urticaria (>6 weeks)
autoimmune, idiopathic, inducible
109
what investigations do you do for urticaria
LFTs, TFTs (autoimmune urticaria), CRP, FBC, allergy testing
110
what is the centor criteria
fever purulent tonsils absence of cough tender anterior cevrical lymphadenopathy 0/1/2 = not bacteria 3/4 = needs antibiotics

Yr 5 - paeds (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions