INFECTIOUS DISEASE 1 Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

Which 2 clinical parameters may indicate septic shock rather than sepsis alone, and what treatment does it require:

A

Vasopressor requirement for MAP to be maintained >65

Serum lactate of >2 in absence of hypovolaemia

Requires aggressive HDU/ITU fluid resuscitation and noradrenaline, which increases SVR and MAP/

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Patients with ‘red flag’ symptoms in sepsis are at high risk of severe illness and mortality. What are these red flags?

A

Responding only to V and P
Acute confusion
Mottled, cyanotic
No urine in last 18 hrs
SBP <90
Heart rate >130
RR >25
Recent chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does a SOFA score of 2 reflect?

A

(Sequential Sepsis-Related Organ Failure Assessment score)

Overall mortality risk of 10% in the general hospital population wit suspected infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

qSOFA score criteria?

A

RR >22
Altered mental status
SBP <100

Used to predict mortality NOT diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hyposplenism due to e.g. splenectomy increases the risk of sepsis, especially from encapsulated organisms. Vaccination and abx prophylaxis are crucial for prevention. Give the recommended vaccinations and abx prophylaxis:

A

If possible, most should be given 2 weeks prior e.g. if elective splenectomy. If can’t, then as soon as possible afterwards.

Pneum, and PCV13 at 8 weeks later + 5 yearly booster
HiB + MenC
MenB, ACWY 2 weeks after

Prophylaxis is penicillin V , for at least 2 years

Seek medical attention for ANY febrile illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does neutropenic sepsis most commonly occur, and how is it diagnosed, + most common organisms:

A

7-14 days post chemo
Neutrophils <0.5 , fever >38 or other sepsis clinical signs
CONS g+ve most common e.g. Staph epidermis.

?indwelling lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment of neutropenic sepsis:

A

Pip/taz first line, do not wait for blood results.

If not improving after 48 hours give meropenem or vancomycin.

If not responding after 4-6 days, do fungal investigations.
Consider G-CSF

If at high risk of neutropenic sepsis, consider fluoroquinolone prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Malaria is caused by Plasmodium protozoan parasites; which is the most common type, and how is it spread?

A

Falciparum

Female Anopheles mosquito

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

5 types of malaria:

A

Falciparum
Vivax
Ovale
Malariae
Knowlesi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is malaria spread / reproduced / life cycle:

A

Female mosquito sucks up blood from infected person.
Parasite reproduces in the gut producing SPOROZOITES.
Mosquito bites and uninfected person, the sporozoites travel to the liver.
They mature in the liver to merozoites and enter circulation and infect rbcs.
RBC rupture = haemolytic anaemia and further spread.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe difference in fever spikes between the types of malaria:

A

Vivax and ovale rupture every 48 hours.
Falciparum ruptures more irregularly ~ 48 hours.

Malariae ruptures every 72 hours.

Vivax and ovale can lie dormant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Many of the symptoms of malaria are non-specific, including extremely high fever, fatigue, myalgia, headache, n&v. What signs may you see on examination, and what is the normal incubation period (if not dormant):

A

Hepatosplenomegaly

Pallor due to anaemia

Jaundice due to bilirubin release from rbc rupture

Inc = 1-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Diagnosis of malaria:

A

Malaria blood film sent, in EDTA bottle.
Will show parasites and concentration in % and type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is required to exclude a diagnosis of malaria and why?

A

3 negative blood films taken on 3 consecutive days, due to the cyclical rupturing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Management of uncomplicated falciparum malaria:

A

ACTs first line:
Artemether and lumefantrine oral

*Increasing rates of chloroquine resistance in Asia and Africa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Management of severe falciparum malaria:

A

> 2% parasites

IV artesunate (side effect is haemolysis)

If >10% consider n exchange transfusion

Severity; shock may indicate an overlying bacterial infection as malaria does not often cause haemodynamic collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Complications of P.falciparum malaria:

A

Cerebral malaria
Acute renal failure (dark red/black urine)
ARDS
Hypoglycaemia
DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Features of severe malaria:

A

Schizonts on blood film
>2% parasitaemia
Hypoglycaemia
Acidosis
Temp >39
Severe anaemia
+ other complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most common cause of non-falciparum malaria:

A

Vivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where are vivax, ovale and knowlesi most commonly found?

A

Vivax: central america and indian subcontinent

Ovale: Africa

Knowelsi = south east asia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which two types have a hyponozoite / latent phase (malaria):

A

Vivax

Ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Patients diagnosed with ovale or vivax malaria should be given what following acute treatment, and why?

A

Primaquine, to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse

23
Q

Discuss malaria treatment in pregnancy:

A

IV artesunate first line in severe, in all trimesters.

ACTs are avoided in pregnancy ideally.

Uncomplicated malaria;
1st trimester: Quinine and Clindamycin
2/3rd: ACT

Non-falciparum; chloroquine (but cannot give primaquine, as this can cause neonatal haemolysis), deferred until post partum.

24
Q

Antimalarial medications are not 100% effective and come with side effects. Give the options and state some of the side effects

A

Proguanil / ato (Malaron) = less side effects. Take 2 days prior and 7 days after travel.

Doxycycline - diarrhoea and thrush + skin sensitivity to light. 2 days prior and 4 weeks after.

Mefloquine has psychiatric side effects/ Taken weekly, 2 weeks before and 4 weeks after.

25
?Quinine toxicity cinchonism
Fatality due to cardiac arrhythmia or flash pulmonary oedema. + hypoglycaemia Difficult to distinguish from aspirin poisoning, so serum salicylate is needed.
26
What kind of cells does the HIV RNA retrovirus destroy?
CD4 t helper cells
27
Infections / disorders that may be associated with a CD4 count of 200-500:
200-500 Oral thrush (candida albicans) Shingles (VZV) Hairy leukoplakia (EBV) Kaposi sarcoma (HHV-8)
28
Infections / disorders that may be associated with a CD4 count of 100-200:
Cryptosporidium Cerebral toxoplasma PML PJP HIV dementia
29
Infections / disorders that may be associated with a CD4 count of 50-100:
Aspergillosis Oesophageal candidiasis Cryptococcal meningitis Primary CNS lymphoma, secondary to EBV
30
Infections / disorders that may be associated with a CD4 count of <50:
CMV retinitis Myocbacterium
31
Discuss the differences between focal neurological lesions caused by HIV:
Toxoplasmosis - confusion, drowsy headache. Ring enhancing lesions, ?mass effect. Multiple > single Primary CNS lymphoma; EBV. Single homogenous enhancing lesion.
32
Management of toxoplasmosis vs primary CNS lymphoma:
Toxoplasmosis: sulfadiazine and pyramethrine Primary CNS lymphoma; steroids, chemo e.g. MTX +/- whole brain irradiation
33
What is the most common fungal infection of the CNS, and give some clinical features, including CSF features and CT results.
Cryptococcus is the most common fungal infection of the CNS, associated with CD4 levels of 50-100. Headache, fever, malaise, n&v, focal neurological deficit. CSF has a high opening pressure, high protein and low glucose. WCC is high, but in HIV patients may be normal. CT shows meningeal enhancement and cerebral oedema.
34
Features of PML vs AIDS dementia complex:
PML: Widespread demyelination due to oligodendrocyte infection of the JC virus. PML has a subacute onset, with behavioural changes, speech, motor and visual impairment. CT will how single or multiple lesions, non-enhancing. MRI is better for PML (high signal lesions of demyelination) Dementia: Corticol and subcortical atrophy on CT scan. Caused by HIV virus itself, presents similarly with behavioural changes, motor impairment. More insidious onset though?
35
Factors reducing vertical transmission of HIV in pregnancy:
CT section No breastfeeding Neonatal antiretroviral therapy, given orally Maternal antiretroviral therapy These measures reduce the risk of transmission from 25-30% to 2%
36
Delivery type advice for woman with HIV + breast-feeding:
If viral load: <50, can have normal vaginal delivery >50 = consider CS >400 = recommended CS Cell counts are measured at 36 weeks.
37
Discuss neonatal antiretroviral therapy:
Oral zidovudine if viral load <50, 2-4 weeks >50, Triple ART continuing for 4-6 weeks. Zidovuridine, lomiduiven, nevirapine
38
When is IV zidovudine given in the context of labour / delivery?
IV zidovudine is given if viral load is >1000 or unknown. Infusion should be started 4 hours prior to a CS.
39
What is the window of time that PEP can be given in, and give the options for PEP and PrEP:
<72 hours, but the earlier the better + serological testing at 12 weeks. PEP = Truvada + raltegravir. Take for 4 weeks. PrEP = Truvada, must be taken 7 days prior. Low risk e.g. human bites don't require PEP.
40
Who gets prophylactic co-trimoxazole and why?
Cell counts <200 PJP prophylaxis
41
Normal CD4 count:
500-1500
42
Management of HIV:
Start treatment straight away. Highly active ART: 2x NRTI + protease or NNRTI E.g. tenofovir, emtricitabine + indinavir / nevirapine Integrase inhibitor e.g. raltegravir, used in PEP
43
Treatment aims, and why is combination of 2 different types of drugs recommended in HIV?
Noraml cd4 count and undetectable viral load Combination of drugs decreases viral replication and also reduced risk of viral resistance
44
HIV and HPV:
Yearly smears are required for HIV increases the risk of HPV infection and cervical cancer.
45
Toxic shock syndrome describes a severe systemic reaction to staphylococcal exotoxins. What specific toxin is this, and what are the clinical features? Management is remove source, IV fluids and IV antibiotics.
TSST-1 superantigen High fever >38.9 Hypotension <90 Diffuse erythematous rash Desquamation 3 or more organ systems involved
46
What investigation should be done in all patients with confirmed S.aureus bacteraemia?
TTE - ?endocarditis
47
Collection and monitoring of blood cultures in S.aureus bacteraemia:
Collect BCx and then repeat 48 hours after starting IV antibiotics, and at 48 hour intervals until negative cultures are obtained. Reassess if they are positive, ongoing fever etc. DISCUSS ALL SAB WITH INFECTION SPECIALIST
48
MRSA accounts for <4% of SAB infections in Scotland. What is the first line abx of choice in MSSA and MRSA respectively:
MSSA = IV flucloxacillin, 2g 6 hrly. Consider dose reduction if creatinine clearance is <10ml/min MRSA = IV vancomycin If current or prev documented. Can also add fluclox if awaiting sensitivity
49
OPAT referral points for SAB:
Consider OPAT if clinically improving Repeat BCx are negative and no other indication for hospital stay IV antibiotics are required for a minimum of 14 days from evidence of bacteria clearance SA endocarditis though = 14 days minimum inpatient
50
Who should be screened for MRSA, and how are they screened for MRSA?
All elective admissions , minus TOP and ophthalmic surgery + all emergency admissions Nasal swab / skin lesions / wounds, must label them as MRSA screen
51
Suppression of MRSA in a) nasal and b) skin
a) nasal mupirocin 2% for 5 days b) skin chlorhexadine gluconate OD 5 days (especially in axilla, groin and perineum)
52
Examples of encapsulated organisms:
Strep pneum H. inf Neisseria meningitidis Salmonella
53
Clinical features inc pulm and extra pulm, and a complication of PCP/PJP:
SOB, dry cough, fever. Hepatosplenomegaly Lymphadenopathy Choroid lesions Exercise desaturation! Pneumothorax is a common complication!
54
Investigation and management of PJP:
CXR ?bilateral interstitial infiltrates Sputum - often doesn't show Bronchoalveolar lavage often needed to demonstrate PCP (silver staining = cysts) 1. Co-trimoxazole If severe, IV pentamidine Give steroids if hypoxic to reduce risk of resp failure and death