Infectious Disease Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

What causes scarlet fever?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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2
Q

You are a surgical house officer and have been bleeped to see a 34 year old man who is post op day 1 following abdominal surgery. He complains of intense pain around his leg. On examination it is erythematous. His temperature is 38.3, HR 160, BP 135/96. He is a known diabetic and heavy drinker. What is the most appropriate management?

A

IV morphine and urgent referral for surgical debridement

This patient has necrotising fasciitis

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3
Q

What are risk factors for necrotising fasciitis?

A

Abdominal surgery
Diabetes
Alcoholism
Malignancy

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4
Q

What 4 drugs are used to treat TB?

A

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

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5
Q

What is a main side effect of ethambutol? What should be done before commencing treatment?

A

Toxic optic neuropathy

Test visual acuity and colour vision before treatment

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6
Q

What test should be performed prior to commencing rifampicin, isoniazid and pyrazinamide treatment?

A

LFTs as they can cause hepatitis

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7
Q

What type of bacteria is E.coli?

A

Gram negative bacilli

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8
Q

What is infectious mononucleosis?

A

Glandular fever
Self limiting infection due to Epstein Barr virus
Low grade fever, sore throat, lethargy

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9
Q

How do you diagnose glandular fever?

A

Monospot test

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10
Q

What happens if you prescribe amoxicillin to patients with glandular fever?

A

Severe rash

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11
Q

What is leptospirosis?

A

Weils disease
Infection caused by spirochaetes
Due to contact with infected urine, usually from rats
Mild flu like symptoms, jaundice, meningitis and renal failure in severe cases

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12
Q

How long after HIV exposure is post exposure prophylaxis effective for?

A

Most effective within an hour of infection

After 72 hours, effectiveness is very limited

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13
Q

What are the 3 most common chase of lung infection in people with cystic fibrosis?

A

Staph aureus
Haemophillus influenza
Pseudomonas aeruginosa: rusty coloured sputum

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14
Q

What sort of infections are people with a splenectomy susceptible to? And why

A

Encapsulated organisms for example h. Influenza and strep pneumoniae
Because spleen provides environment where encapsulated organisms are opsonised

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15
Q

What is antimicrobial stewardship?

A

Organisational approach to promoting and monitoring judicious use of antimicrobials to preserve their future effectiveness

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16
Q

What are the principles of antimicrobial stewardship?

A

How: Prescribe only when needed, Review need for abx in accordance with local formularies and guidelines
Why: Optimise therapy for individual patients, Prevent overuse, misuse, abuse, Minimise development of resistance at patient and
community levels

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17
Q

Who has responsibility for antimicrobial stewardship?

A

Clinicians
Society: Demand and supply
Politicians
Corporations

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18
Q

Why is antimicrobial stewardship important?

A

Optimise therapy for individual patients
Minimise side effects
Microbiome: all antibiotics, limit with narrower spectrum
Allergy and intolerance, specific contraindications and interactions
Prevent overuse, misuse, abuse
Minimise development of resistance at patient and community levels

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19
Q

How can we limit the need for antimicrobials?

A

Prevention and control of infection: No infection means no antibiotic needed, No multi-resistant organism means narrower spectrum antibiotic can be used

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20
Q

List resources available to aid optimal antimicrobial prescribing

A

TARGET antibiotics toolkit: treat antibiotics responsibly guidance, education and tools
NICE guidelines
Department of health antimicrobial stewardship guide
Local primary and secondary care guidance

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21
Q

What is contained in the TARGET toolkit?

A
Commissioner resources
Information for patients
Audit tools
Training resources
Self assessment
National antibiotic management guidance
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22
Q

List the principal considerations required before commencing antibiotic therapy

A

Absorption (How can I get it into my patient?)
Distribution (does it get where I want it to?)
Predictably sensitive? (is resistance likely to be a problem before or after treatment?)
Adverse effects (common, particular patient group?)
Interaction with other drugs (prescribed or otherwise)
Metabolism and excretion (how does the drug get out? Is that a problem in my patient?)

23
Q

What are beta lactam antibiotics?

A

Penicillins and their derivatives
Cephalosporins (ceph/ cef….)
Carbapenems (-penems)
Monobactams (aztreonam)

24
Q

Describe the absorption profiles of the beta lactam antibiotics

A

Penicillins: Penicillin V/ phenoxymethylpenicillin low absorption from GI tract, Amoxicillin better, Penicillin G/ benzylpenicillin no absorption so given IV
Cephalosporins: Limited number available orally, generally good absorption for those that are (cefalexin), Most IV only e.g. ceftriaxone
Carbapenems: No oral formulation
Aztreonam: Also IV only

25
Describe the distribution profile of beta lactam antibiotics
Generally good penetration to body tissues Penicillins don’t cross the blood-brain barrier well unless the meninges are inflamed Do not get inside individual host cells Poor activity against bacteria that live intracellularly, Legionella is classic example
26
Describe the mechanism of action of beta lactam antibiotics. What implication does this have?
Interruption of cell wall synthesis | So NO activity against bacteria without a cell wall (Mycoplasma, Chlamydia)
27
What is the difference between a bacteriostatic and bacteriocidal antibiotics?
Bacteriostatic: inhibiting the growth of a bacterium Bactericidal: killing the bacterium
28
What is the minimum inhibitory concentration?
Lowest concentration of an antibiotic which inhibits visible growth of bacteria
29
What is minimum Bactericidal concentration?
Lowest Concentration of an antibiotic that kills 99.9% of a population of bacteria
30
What is the breakpoint in terms of antibiotic sensitivity?
Minimum inhibitory concentration cut-off which separates strains where there is a high likelihood of treatment succeeding from those where treatment is more likely to fail
31
How does resistance to beta lactams occur?
Intrinsic: No cell wall, Strictly intracellular bacteria, No target for the specific drug Acquired: Stop the drug getting in, Break it down, Change the target, Pump it out
32
Describe the forms of acquired antibiotic resistance that occurs with beta lactams and what can be done about this
Enzyme which breaks the antibiotic down (e.g. Staphylococcal penicillinase), use an enzyme inhibitor to restore susceptibility (co-amoxiclav) Alteration in target site (e.g. MRSA), need to find a new target for a different antimicrobial
33
What are some adverse effects of beta lactam antibiotics?
Generally safe and well-tolerated: low rates renal of hepatotoxicity, neurotoxicity, Jaundice with flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav Diarrhoea with any, especially broad spectrum (C difficile particular association with cephalosporins) IgE-mediated allergy in 5-10% patients
34
Are beta lactam antibiotics teratogenic?
No
35
Which drugs might interact with beta lactams?
Anticoagulants Oral contraceptive (not contraindicated) Anti-epileptics
36
How are beta lactams excreted?
In urine Excretion rates very rapid for older penicillins, so need to be given frequently 4-hourly for benzylpenicillin in severe infection Pencillin V given qds
37
At what level of renal function do you need to adjust the dose of beta lactams?
Only in very poor renal function | GFR less than 10
38
What are potential complications of meningococcal disease?
``` Septic shock Hypotension Acidosis DIC Hearing loss Motor and cognitive disability Blindness Ischaemic injury to skin/extremities ```
39
What is Waterhouse friderichsens syndrome?
Bilateral adrenal haemorrhage typically caused by fulminant meningococcal infection
40
What are risk factors for the development of meningococcal disease?
``` Young age Complement deficiency Asplenia or hyposplenia Residence in dormitory Globulin deficiency Close contact with invasive meningococcal infection Household crowding Travel to endemic area Lab worker ```
41
What are risk factors for toxic shock syndrome?
``` Diabetes mellitus Alcoholism Trauma Surgical procedures, particularly vaginal delivery, c section, hysterectomy Single tampon use for consecutive days Highly absorbent tampons ```
42
What are potential complications of toxic shock syndrome?
``` Bacteraemia Acute respiratory distress syndrome DIC Renal failure Waterhouse friderichsen syndrome Wound sequelae requiring major surgery ```
43
How many days pen V should be prescribed for streptococcal sore throat?
10 days
44
A 23 year old with fever sore throat and swollen neck and groin nodes, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Glandular fever
45
What is the test for glandular fever?
Monospot | Paul Bunnell
46
A mum brings a 4 year old boy to GP with right earache and fever for 24 hours. This morning it has started to discharge pus, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Otitis media with perforation
47
What tests can be done for streptococcal infection?
ASOT - antistreptolysin O titre | Anti DNAase B titre
48
What can cause laryngitis?
Complication of URTI Parainfluenza Measles
49
What should be done to treat acute laryngotracheobronchitis?
Nebulised adrenaline Oral/IM corticosteroids Oxygen Fluids
50
What should be done to treat acute epiglottitis?
Endotracheal intubation | IV ceftazidime
51
In which patients is an inflenza vaccine recommended?
``` Over 65s CHD Lung disease CKD Diabetes Immunosuppressed ```
52
How do you treat sinusitis?
Nasal decongestant Co amoxiclav Fluticasone proprionate (corticosteroid) nasal spray Steam inhalation
53
What do you do to manage recurrent sinusitis or if there is an orbital cellulitis complication?
Refer to ENT for CT of paranasal sinuses