Infectious Disease Flashcards

(82 cards)

1
Q

Gram positive cocci?

A

StaPhylococci

StrePtococci

(including enterococci)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gram negative cocci?

A

N for negative

  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
  • Also Maroxella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Gram +ve rods? (Bacilli)

A

ABCDL

  • Actinomyces
  • Bacillus antracis (anthrax)
  • Clostridium
  • Diphtheria
  • Listeria monocytogenes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Gram -ve rods?

A

Everything that is not the other three

  • Pseudomonas
  • E.coli
  • Enterobacter
  • Klebsiella
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella, Proteus
  • Bordatella pertussis
  • Haemophilus
  • H Pylori
  • Legionella
  • Camplyobacter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Miscellaneous/Poorly staining species?

A

Intracellular Bacteria

  • Chlamydia
  • Rickettsia
  • Borella

Poorly Staining

  • Mycoplasma
  • Legionella
  • Helicobacter

Acid Fast Strain

  • Mycobacteria
  • Nocardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Antibiotics with anti-anaerobic activity?

A
  • Penicillins
  • Cephalosporins (except ceftazidime)
  • Erythromycin
  • Metronidazole
  • Tetracycline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Antibiotics with no anti-anaerobic activity?

A
  • Gentamicin
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Ceftazidime
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Incubation periods?

A

Less than 1 week

  • Scarlet fever
  • Influenza
  • Diphtheria
  • Meningococcus

1 - 2 weeks

  • Malaria
  • Measles
  • Dengue fever
  • Typhoid

2 - 3 weeks

  • Mumps
  • Rubella
  • Chickenpox

Longer than 3 weeks

  • Infectious mononucleosis
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Viral hepatitis
  • HIV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Live vaccines?

A
  • BCG
  • measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
  • oral polio
  • oral typhoid
  • yellow fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Other vaccines (non-live)?

A

Whole killed organism/inactivated

  • Rabies
  • Influenza

Detoxified Exotoxins

  • Tetanus

Fragment/Extracts of Organism/Virus

  • Diphtheria
  • Pertussis
  • Hepatitis B
  • Meningococcus, Pneumococcus, Haemophilus

Other

  • Cholera - inactivated strains of vibrio cholerae along with recominant B-subunit of cholera toxin
  • Hep B - contains HBsAg absorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant, prepared from yeast cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis?

A

Hep A

  • Human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or hep A vaccine

Hep B

  • If from HBsAg +ve source
    • If exposed peron is a known responder to HBV vaccine then –> booster dose.
    • If in process of being vaccinaed or non-responder –> hep B immune globulin (HBIG) and the vaccine
  • If from unknown source
    • Consider booster dose of HBV vaccine. If non-responder give HBIG + vaccine
    • If in process of being vaccinated then accelerate course of HBV vaccine

Hep C

  • Monthly PCR - if seroconversion then interferon +/- ribavirin

HIV

  • PEP - Tenofovir, Emtricitabine, Lopinavir and Ritonavir - ASAP, up to 72 hours after, continue for 4 weeks
  • Serological testing at 12 weeks

Varicella Zoster

  • VZIG for IgG negative pregnant women/immunosuppressed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tetanus vaccine?

A
  • Given at: 2 months, 3 months, 4 months, 3-5 years, 13-18 years
  • High risk wounds –> give IM human tetanus immunoglobulin (irrespective of whether 5 doses of vaccine given)
  • High risk wounds = compound fractures, delayed surgical intervention, significant degree of devitalised tissue
  • If vaccination Hx unknown or incomplete - dose of tetanus vaccine along with IM human tetanus Ig for high risk wounds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tetanus?

A

Cause

  • Tetanospasmin endotoxin released by clostridium tetani
  • Teatnus spores in soil –> introduced by a wound
  • Prevents release of GABA

Features

  • Prodrome fever, lethargy, headache
  • Trismus (lockjaw)
  • Risus sardonicus
  • Opisthotonus (arched back, hyperextended neck)
  • Spasms (e.g. Dysphagia)

Management

  • Supportive therapy including ventilatory support and muscle relaxants
  • Intramuscular human tetanus Ig for high-risk wounds
  • Metronidazole cover
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Features of HIV seroconversion?

A
  • Sore throat
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Malaise, myalgia, arthralgia
  • Diarrhoea
  • Maculopapular rash
  • Mouth ulcers
  • Rarely meningoencephalitis

Man returns from trip abroad with maculopapular rash and flu-like illness - think HIV seroconversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Immunological changes in progressive HIV?

A
  • Reduction in CD4 count
    • Increase B2-Microglobulin (IBM)
    • Decrease IL-2 production (DIL=DELL) –> IBM & DELL
  • Polyclonal B-cell activation
  • Decreased NK cell function
  • Decreased delayed hypersensitivity responses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vaccines that can be used in HIV if CD4 >200, and contraindicated?

A

If CD4 >200

  • MMR
  • Varicella
  • Yellow fever

Contraindicated

  • Cholera (CVD103-HgR)
  • Influenza-intranasal
  • Poliomyelitis-oral (OPV)
  • Tuberculosis (BCG)

Everything else can be used in all HIV infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diarrhoea in HIV?

A

Can be due to the virus itself (HIV enteritis) or opportunistic infections

  • Cryptosporidium + other protozoa (most
    common)
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Mycobacterium avium intracellulare - CD4 <50, deranged LFTs
  • Giardia

Cryptosporidium - incubation 7 days. Acid fast stain (Ziehl-Neelsen) may reveal characteristic red cysts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Factors which reduce vertical HIV transmission?

A
  • Maternal antiretroviral therapy - should be commenced between 28-32 weeks and continue intrapartum
  • Mode of delivery (caesarean section) - zidovudine infusion commenced 4 hours prior to start of section
  • Neonatal antiretroviral therapy - zidovudine orally for 4-6 weeks
  • Infant feeding (bottle feeding)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A
  • Caused by HHV-8 (Human Herpes Virus 8)
  • Presents as purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa (e.g. Gastrointestinal and respiratory tract)
  • Skin lesions may later ulcerate
  • Respiratory involvement may cause massive hemoptysis and pleural effusion
  • Radiotherapy + resection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PCP pneumonia?

A
  • Pneumocystis jiroveci is an unicellular eukaryote, generally classified as a fungus but some authorities consider it a protozoa
  • PCP is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS
  • All patients with a CD4 count < 200/mm³ should receive PCP prophylaxis

Features

  • Dyspnoea, dry cough, fever
  • Very few chest signs
  • Extrapulmonary (rare) - hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, choroid lesions

Ix

  • CXR - bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates, may be normal
  • Exercise-induced desaturation
  • Sputum often fails to show PCP - BAL often needed for silver stain

Mx

  • Septrin
  • IV pentamidine in severe cases
  • Steroids if hypoxic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Biliary disease and pancreatitis in HIV?

A

Biliary Disease

  • Sclerosing cholangitis due to CMV, cryptosporidium and microsporidia

Pancreatitis

  • Secondary to anti-retroviral tx (didanosine)
  • Opportunistic infections (CMV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Meningitis CSF summary?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Summary of streptococci?

A

Alpha Haemolytic Streptococci

  • Strep pneumoniae - pneumonia, meningitis, otitis media
  • Strep viridans - endocarditis

Beta Haemolytic Streptococci

  • Group A
    • Strep pyogenes - impetigo, cellulitis, nec fascitis, pharyngitis/tonsillitis
    • Immunological reactions can cause rheumatic fever or post-strep glomerulonephritis
    • Erythrogenic toxins cause scarlet fever
    • Penicillin is abx of choice
  • Group B
    • Strep agalactiae - nenonatal meningitis and septicaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome?

A
  • Fever: temperature > 38.9ºc
  • Hypotension: systolic blood pressure < 90 mmHg
  • Diffuse erythematous rash
  • Desquamation of rash, especially of the palms and soles
  • Involvement of three or more organ systems: e.g. Gastrointestinal (diarrhoea and vomiting), mucous membrane erythema, renal failure, hepatitis, thrombocytopenia, CNS involvement (e.g. Confusion)

Severe systemic reaction to staphylococcal exotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Necrotising Fasciitis?
Type 1 = caused by mixed anaesrobes and aerobes (often occurs post-surgery in diabetics) Type 2 = caused by Strep pyogenes **_Features_** * Acute onset * Painful, erythematous lesion develops (cellulitis like) * Extremely tender over infected tissue **_Mx_** * Urgent surgical debridement * IV abx
26
Listeria monocytogenes?
Gram +ve bacillus Spreads via contaminated food - unpasteurised dairy products Can induce miscarriage **_Features_** * Diarrhoea, flu-like illness * Pneumonia, meningoencephalitis * Ataxia and seizures * CSF may show pleocytosis, with 'tumbling motility' on wet mounts Sensitive to amoxicillin/ampicillin
27
Anthrax?
* Bacillus anthracis, a Gram positive rod * Spread by infected carcasses **_Features_** * Painless black eschar (cutaneous 'malignant pustule', but no pus) * May cause marked oedema * Can cause GI bleeding Treat with ciprofloxacin
28
Legionella?
Legionella Pneumophilia Colonises water tanks - no person to person transmission **_Features_** * Flu-like symptoms * Dry cough * Lymphopenia * Hyponatremia * Deranged LFTs Diagnosed with urinary antigen Treat with macrolides (erythromycin)
29
Leptospirosis (Weil's disease)?
Questions refer to sewage works, farmers, vets or people who work in an abattoir Leptospira interrogans (Spirochaete) Spread classically by contact with infected rat urine **_Features_** * Fever * Flu-like symptoms --\> WITHOUT PRODUCTIVE COUGH * Renal failure (seen in 50% of patients) * Jaundice * Subconjunctival hemorrhage * Headache, may herald the onset of meningitis **_Mx_** * LP to confirm meningeal involvement * High dose ben pen or doxy
30
Cause of epiglottitis?
Haemophilus influenzae type B
31
Lyme disease?
**_Borreliosis_** Caused by 3x species of bacteria belonging to genus Borrelia * Borrelia burgdorefer - main cause in USA * Borrelia afzelii and Borrelia garinii - main cause in Europe **_Features_** * Erythema chronicum migrans (small papule at site of tick bite --\> develops into larger annular lesion with central clearing - bulls eye) * Systemic symptoms - malaise, fever, arthralgia **_Later features_** * CVS - heart block, myocarditis * Neurological - cranial nerve palsies, meningitis * Polyarthritis
32
Mantoux test?
* Immune mediated type IV hypersensitivity reaction * Ml of 1:1,000 purified protein derivative (PPD) injected intradermally * Result read 2-3 days later * Erythema & induration \> 10mm = positive result - this implies previous exposure including BCG
33
Heaf test?
Classically involves injection of PPD equivalent to 100,000 units per ml to the skin over the flexor surface of the left forearm. It is then read 3-10 days later * Negative - no induration, 6 minute puncture scars * Grade 1 - 4-6 puncture sites indurated * Grade 2 - Confluent puncture sites form indurated ring * Grade 3 - Extensive induration to form disc (5-10mm) * Grade 4 - Severe induration \>10mm with or without blistering Grades 1-2 = previous BCG or avian tuberculosis Grades 3-4 require CXR and follow up
34
Causes of false negatives for Mantoux/Heaf test?
* Miliary TB * Sarcoidosis * HIV * Lymphoma * Very young age (e.g. \< 6 months)
35
Treatment for active tuberculosis?
**_Initial Phase (2 months)_** * Rifampicin * Isoniazide * Pyrazinamide * Ethambutol **_Continuation Phase (4 months)_** * Rifampicin * Isoniazid
36
Mangement of latent TB/meningeal TB?
**_Latent_** * Isoniazid alone for 6 months **_Meningeal_** * Prolonged period of treatment (12 months) with addition of steroids
37
Side effects of TB treatment?
**_Rifampicin_** * Liver enzyme inducer * Hepatitis * Orange secretions * Flu like symptoms **_Isoniazid_** * Peripheral neuropathy - prevent with vitamin B6 * Optic neuritis (less common than ethambutol) * Hepatitis, agranulocytosis * Liver enzyme inhibitor **_Pyrazinamide_** * Hyperuricaemia causing gout * Hepatitis **_Ethambutol_** * Optic neuritis (visual acuity check before and during) * Dose adjustment in renal impairment **_Streptomycin (resistant TB)_** * Vestibular damage --\> vertigo and vomiting * Cochlear damage --\> deafness * Anigioedema * Nephrotoxicosis
38
Leprosy (Hansen's Disease)?
**_Cause_** * Mycobacterium leprae * Mycobacterium lepromatosis **_Features_** * Nodular skin lesions * Erythematous raised plaque like lesions in arms and legs Can be progressive, causing permanent damange to skin, nerves, limbs and eyes **_Mx_** * Skin biopsy and needle test * \<5 lesions --\> rifampicin and dapsone for 6 months * \>5 lesions --\> rifampicin, clofazimine and dapsone 12 months
39
Features of severe malaria? Complications?
**_Severe Malaria_** * Schizonts on a blood film * Parasitemia \> 2% * Hypoglycemia * Temperature \> 39 °c * Severe anemia * Complications as below **_Complications_** * Cerebral malaria: seizures, coma * ARF: blackwater fever, secondary to intravascular hemolysis, mechanism unknown * Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) * Hypoglycemia * Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
40
Management of uncomplicated falciparum malaria?
Strains resistant to chloroquine are prevalent in certain areas of Asia and Africa WHO 2010 guidelines: artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) as first-line therapy ***Examples*** * artemether plus lumefantrine * artesunate plus amodiaquine * artesunate plus mefloquine * artesunate plus sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine * dihydroartemisinin plus piperaquine
41
Management of severe falciparum malaria?
* A parasite counts \>2% will usually need parenteral treatment irrespective of clinical state * IV artesunate is now recommended by WHO in preference to intravenous quinine (2010 guidelines) * If parasite count \> 10% then exchange transfusion should be considered * Shock may indicate coexistent bacterial septicemia - malaria rarely causes hemodynamic collapse
42
Most common causes of non-falciparum malaria?
1. Plasmodium vivax - **most common**, Central America and Indian subcontinent 2. Plasmodium ovale - Africa 3. Plasmodium malariae Almost always chloroquine sensitive In vivax and ovale - use Primaquine to destory liver hypnozoites
43
Leishmaniasis?
Caused by protozoa Leishmania, spread by sand flies. Multiplies in monocyctes and macrophages Incubation period can extend to 10 years
44
3 types of Leishmaniasis?
1. **_Cutaneous Leishmaniasis_** * Caused by Leishmania tropica or Leishmania mexicana * Crusted lesion at site of bite * May be underlying ulcer 2. **_Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis_** * Caused by Leishmania brasiliensis * Skin lesions may spread to involve mucosae of nose, pharynx 3. **_Visceral Leishmaniasis_** * Mostly caused by Leishmania donovani * Occurs in Mediterranean, Asia, South America, Africa * Fever (typically twice in 24hours), sweats, rigors * Massive splenomegaly, hepatomegaly * Pancytopenia secondary to hypersplenism * Poor appetite\*, weight loss * Grey skin - 'kala-azar' means black sickness or black fever
45
Trypanosomiasis?
* Protozoal disease * Two main forms * American Trypanosomiasis (Chagas' disease) * African Trypanosomiasis (Sleeping sickness) * Trypanosoma gambinese - West Africa * Trypanosoma rhodesiense - East Africa * Both spread by the tsetse fly
46
Trypanosoma rhodesiense?
Acute clinical course * Trypanosoma chancre - tender subcutaneous nodule at site of infection * Enlargement of posterior cervical lymph nodes * Later: central nervous system involvement e.g. Meningoencephalitis **_Management_** * Early disease: IV pentamidine or suramin * Later disease or central nervous system involvement: IV melarsoprol
47
Chagas' disease?
**_Caused by Trypanosoma cruzi_** * 95% asymptomatic in aucte phase * Chagoma (erythematous nodule at site of infection) and periorbital oedema sometimes seen * Chronic chagas' --\> affects heart and GI tract **_Complications_** * Myocarditis --\> HF and arrhythmias * GI --\> megaoesophagus and megacolon --\> dysphagia and constipation **_Management_** * Treatment is most effective in the acute phase using azole or nitroderivatives such as benznidazole or nifurtimox * Chronic disease management involves treating the complications e.g. heart failure
48
Schistosomiasis?
Parasitic flatworm infection * Schistosoma mansoni and Schistosoma intercalatum: intestinal schistosomiasis * Schistosoma Hematobium: urinary schistosomiasis * Typically presents as a 'swimmer's itch' in patients who have recently returned from Africa. * Frequency, haematuria and bladder calcification * Schistosoma Hematobium is a risk factor for squamous cell bladder cancer * Mx = single dose of oral praziquantel
49
Rabies?
**_Features_** * Prodrome: headache, fever, agitation * Hydrophobia: water-provoking muscle spasms * Hypersalivation Following animal bite in at risk countries * If an individual is already immunised then 2 further doses of vaccine should be given * If not previously immunised then human rabies immunoglobulin (HRIG) should be given along with a full course of vaccination
50
Animal bite choice of abx if pen allergic?
Doxy and metronidazole
51
Cat scratch disease?
Caused by gram -ve rod *Bartonella henselae* * fever * history of a cat scratch * regional lymphadenopathy * headache, malaise
52
Chickenpox general stuff?
* Infectivity = 4 days before rash, until 5 days after the rash first appeared * Incubation period = 11-21 days * School exclusion - 5 days from start of skin eruption * Immunocompromised/newborns with peripartum exposure --\> varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) * If chickenpox develops then IV aciclovir
53
Complications of chickenpox?
Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions * Pneumonia: varicella pneumonia is the most common and serious complication of chickenpox infection in adults. Auscultation of the chest is often unremarkable --\> IV acyclovir * Encephalitis (cerebellar involvement may be seen) * Disseminated hemorrhagic chickenpox * Arthritis, nephritis and pancreatitis may very rarely be seen
54
Foetal varicella syndrome?
Risk of VFS following exposure if 1% if before 20 weeks Very small chance 20-28 weeks, no chance after 28 weeks **_Features_** * Skin scarring, eye defects (microphthalmia), limb hypoplasia, microcephaly and learning disabilities **_Management of Exposure_** * If there is any doubt about the mother previously having chickenpox maternal blood should be checked for varicella antibodies * If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella she should be given varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible. RCOG and Greenbook guidelines suggest VZIG is effective up to 10 days post exposure * Consensus guidelines suggest oral aciclovir should be given if pregnant women with chickenpox present within 24 hours of onset of the rash
55
Measles?
* RNA paramyxovirus * Spread by droplets * Infective from prodrome until 5 days after rash starts * Incubation period = 10-14 days Complications * Encephalitis: typically occurs 1-2 weeks after the onset of the illness. * Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis: very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness * Febrile convulsions * Pneumonia, tracheitis * Keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration * Diarrhoea * Increased incidence of appendicitis * Myocarditis
56
Gonorrhoea complications?
**_Local_** * urethral strictures * epididymitis and salpingitis (hence may lead to infertility) **_Disseminated Gonococcal Infection_** * Haematogenous spread from mucosal infection * Triad = tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis and dermatitis. * Later complications = septic arthritis, endocarditis and perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome)
57
Genital warts?
HPV 6 and 11 (16, 18 and 33 predispose to cervical cancer) **_Management_** * Podophyllum or cryotherapy * Multiple, non-keratinised warts are generally best treated with topical agents whereas solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy * Imiquimod = topical cream, 2nd line * Often resistant to treatment, recurrence common - most infections clear within 1-2 years
58
Genital herpes?
HSV 2 (cold sores are HSV 1) * Primary attacks often severe, associated with fever; subsequent attacks generally less severe and localised to one site * Features --\> severe gingivostomatitis, cold sores, painful genital ulceration * Management * Gingivostomatitis: oral aciclovir, chlorhexidine mouthwash * Cold sores: topical aciclovir although the evidence base for this is modest Genital herpes: oral aciclovir. Some patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer term aciclovir
59
Syphilis?
Spirochaete - Treponema pallidum **_Primary_** * Chancre - painless ulcer at site of sexual contact * Often not seen in women **_Secondary_** (4-10 weeks after initial infection) * Systemic symptoms: fevers, lymphadenopathy * Rash on trunk, palms and soles * Buccal 'snail track' ulcers (30%) * Condylomata lata **Latent period** **_Tertiary_** * Gummas * Aortic aneurysms * General paralysis of the insane * Tabes dorsalis (slow degeneration of the sensory neurons. The degenerating nerves are in the dorsal column; proprioception, vibration, and fine touch).
60
Diagnosis of syphilis?
Serological tests divided into 1. **_Cardiolipin tests_** * Syphilis infection leads to the production of non-specific antibodies that react to cardiolipin * Examples include VDRL (venereal disease research laboratory) & RPR (rapid plasma reagin) * Insensitive in late syphilis * Becomes negative after treatment * Causes of false positives = pregnancy, SLE, antiphospholipid, TB, leprosy, malaria, HIV 2. **_Treponemal specific antibody tests_** * Example: TPHA (Treponema pallidum hemagglutination test) * Remains positive after treatment
61
Lymphogranuloma venereum?
Chlamydia trachomatis Three stages 1. Small painless pustule which later forms an ulcer 2. Painful inguinal lymphadenopathy 3. Proctocolitis
62
Cause of BV? Criteria for diagnosis? Pregnancy?
Overgrowth of anaerobes such as Gardnerella vaginalis Fall in lactic acid producing aerobic lacobacilli resulting in raised vaginal pH 3 of the 4 following for diagnosis * Thin, white homogenous discharge * Clue cells on microscopy * Vaginal pH \> 4.5 * Positive whiff test (addition of potassium hydroxide results in fishy odour) Managmenet = 5-7 days oral metronidazole Pregnancy - increased risk of preterm labour, LBW, late miscarriage - oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy
63
Potential complications of chlamydia?
* Epididymitis * Pelvic inflammatory disease * Endometritis * Increased incidence of ectopic pregnancies * Infertility * Reactive arthritis * Perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome)
64
Chlamydia psittaci?
* Parrot disease, parrot fever * Characterized by malaise, fever, myalgias and pneumonia * Exposure to an ill bird and a rash (Horder’s spots) are pathognomonic. * Erythromycin or tetracyclines are the drugs of choice.
65
Congenital infections?
Most common = CMV
66
Toxoplasma Gondii?
* Protozoa which infects the body via the GI tract, lung or broken skin * Its oocysts release trophozoites which migrate widely around the body including to the eye, brain and muscle. * The usual animal reservoir is the cat, although other animals such as rats carry the disease. * Most infections asymptomatic - if symptomatic normally self-limiting infection, features resembling infectious mono --\> less commonly meningoencephalitis and myocarditis
67
Gastroenteritis organisms?
68
Cholera?
Vibro cholerae (gram -ve) **_Features_** * Profuse 'rice water' diarrhoea * Dehydration * Hypoglycemia **_Management_** * Oral rehydration therapy * Antibiotics: doxycycline, ciprofloxacin
69
Giardiasis?
Causes by flagellate protozoan Giardia lamblia Faecal oral route **_Features_** * Often asymptomatic * Lethargy, bloating, abdominal pain * Non-bloody diarrhoea * Chronic/prolonged diarrhoea, malabsorption and lactose intolerance can occur * Stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts are classically negative, therefore duodenal fluid aspirates or 'string tests' (fluid absorbed onto swallowed string) are sometimes needed
70
Salmonella?
Aerobic gram -ve rods (not normally present in gut) **_Features_** * Initially systemic upset as above * Relative bradycardia * Abdominal pain, distension * Constipation: although Salmonella is a recognised cause of diarrhoea, constipation is more common in typhoid * Rose spots: present on the trunk in 40% of patients, and are more common in paratyphoid **_Possible Complications_** * Osteomyelitis (especially in sickle cell disease where Salmonella is one of the most common pathogens) * GI bleed/perforation * Meningitis * Cholecystitis * Chronic carriage (1%, more likely if adult females)
71
Shigella?
* Causes bloody diarrhoea, abdo pain * Severity depends on type: S sonnei (e.g. from UK) may be mild, S flexneri or S dysenteriae from abroad may cause severe disease * Treat with ciprofloxacin
72
African tick typhus?
Caused by Rickettsiae * Black sopits on thigh * Hx of tick bites * Low grade fever * Faint macular rash
73
Rocky mountain spotted fever?
Spread by ticks, common in the USA * Fever * Rash on hands, feet which later --\> desequamte (peel) * Tachycardia with no hypotension (unlike Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome) Treat with doxycycline
74
Mediterranean spotted fever?
Caused by the Rickettsia conorii and transmitted by the dog tick Rhipicephalus sanguineus * Incubation period: 7 days. * Abrupt onset - chills, high fevers, myalgia and joints pain, severe headache, photophobia and diarrhea. * The location of the bite forms a black spots or ulcerous crust (tache noire). * Around the fourth day of the illness exanthem appears, first macular and then maculopapular and sometimes petechial Treat with Doxycycline
75
Dengue fever?
Type of viral haemorrhagic fever (yellow fever, Lassa fever, Ebola) **_Low platelet count and raised transaminase level is typical_** * Transmitted by the Aedes aegyti mosquito * Incubation period of 7 days * Africa, Central and South America, the Caribbean, the Eastern Mediterranean, South and Southeast Asia, and Oceania. * Form of DIC called dengue haemorrhagic fever (DHF) may develop --\> Dengue shock syndrome (DSS) **_Features_** * Causes headache (often retro-orbital) * Myalgia * Pleuritic pain * Facial flushing (dengue) * Maculopapular rash * Pyrexia Treatment is symptomatic - fluid resus, transfusions etc.
76
Infectious mononucleosis?
Caused by EBV * Sore throat * Lymphadenopathy * Pyrexia * Malaise, anorexia, headache * Palatal petechiae * Splenomegaly - occurs in around 50% of patients and may rarely predispose to splenic rupture * Hepatitis * Presence of 50% lymphocytes with at least 10% atypical lymphocytes * Hemolytic anaemia Management - rest, fluids, simple anaglesia. No contact sport for 8 weeks.
77
Malignancies associated with EBV infection?
* Burkitt's lymphoma * Hodgkin's lymphoma * Nasopharyngeal carcinoma * HIV-associated central nervous system lymphomas Hairy leukoplakia also associated with it (non-malignant)
78
Hepatitis E?
* RNA virus * Spread by the faecal-oral route, incubation period = 3-8 weeks * Common in Central and South-East Asia, North and West Africa, and in Mexico * Causes a similar disease to hepatitis A, **but carries a significant mortality (about 20%) during pregnancy** * Does not cause chronic disease
79
Parvovirus B19?
Erythema infectiosum (also known as fifth disease or 'slapped-cheek syndrome') * Systemic symptoms: lethargy, fever, headache * 'slapped-cheek' rash spreading to proximal arms and extensor surfaces **_Other presentations_** * Asymptomatic * Pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients * Aplastic crises e.g. in sickle-cell disease (parvovirus B19 suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia)
80
Orf?
* Condition found in sheep and goats although it can be transmitted to humans. * Caused by the parapox virus. **_In humans_** * Generally affects the hands and arms * Initially small, raised, red-blue papules * Later may increase in size to 2-3 cm and become flat-topped and hemorrhagic **_In animals_** * Scabby leisons around mouth and nose
81
Nematodes?
1. **_Ancylostoma braziliense_** * Most common cause of cutaneous larva migrans * Common in Central and Southern America 2. **_Strongyloides stercoralis_** * Acquired percutaneously (e.g. Walking barefoot) * Causes pruritus and larva currens - this has a similar appearance to cutaneous larva migrans but moves through the skin at a far greater rate * Abdo pain, diarrhoea, pneumonitis * May cause gram negative septicemia due to carrying of bacteria into bloodstream * Eosinophilia sometimes seen * **Management**: thiabendazole, albendazole. Ivermectin also used, particularly in chronic infections 3. **_Toxocara canis_** * Commonly acquired by ingesting eggs from soil contaminated by dog faeces * Commonest cause of visceral larva migrans * Other features: eye granulomas, liver/lung involvement
82
Tape worms?
**_Cysticercosis_** * Caused by Taenia solium (from pork) and Taenia saginata (from beef) * Management: niclosamide **_Hyatid disease_** * Caused by the dog tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus * Life-cycle involves dogs ingesting hydatid cysts from sheep liver * Often seen in farmers * May cause liver cysts * Management: albendazole