Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RC objectives > Infectious diseases > Flashcards

Infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

size of enlarged lymph node for cervical and axillary nodes

A

> 1cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

size of enlarged lymph node for inguinal nodes

A

> 1.5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

tuberculous lymph nodes often described as _____

A

matted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

girl with viral illness who also has firm, fixed node. Should you be concerned?

A

yes. Firm fixed node should always raise question of malignancy even if there are other systemic symptoms or findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

adenopathy thought to be bacterial. what do antibiotics need to cover?

A

staph and strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what work up should you do if lymph node doesn’t decrease in size after 10-14 days?

A

CBC, Dif, EBV, CMV, toxoplasma, catch scratch diseases titers; ASOT or antiDNase B serologic tests, tuberculin skin test, chest radiograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when to consider biopsy of enlarged lymph node

A

B symptoms, supraclavicular location, mediastinal mass, hard nodes, fixed nodes, increase in size over baseline in 2 weeks, no decrease in size in 4-6 weeks, no regression to “normal” in 8-12 weeks, or if new signs and symptoms develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which imaging modality would you use to differentiate reactive vs malignant nodes?

A

ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

nonbullous impetigo predominantly caused by

A

staph aureus (different type tho than types of staph that cause SSS and toxic shock)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

bullous impetigo is always caused by this bacteria

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cellulitis more common in these 3 conditions

A

immunosuppression, lymphatic stasis, diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatment for staph scalded skin syndrome

A

clindamycin (thought to inhibit toxin synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

complications of staph scalded skin

A

fluid loss, electrolyte imbalance, temperature regulation, pneumonia, septicaemia, cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common serious bacterial infections in neonates and young infants in decreasing frequency

A

urinary tract infection (5-13%), bacteremia (1-2%), meningitis (0.2-0.5%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most common organisms causing SBIs in infants

A

e.coli then GBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when do infants with disseminated HSV typically present?

A

5-12 days of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when do infants with with CNS HSV typically present?

A

16-19 days of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When does perinatally acquired HSV usually present by?

A

28 days of life, occasionally later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what percent of infants with bacterial meningitis have a negative blood culture?

A

35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2 connective tissue disorders commonly associated with fever of unknown origin

A

JIA and SLE (others: IBD, kawasaki)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

name 5 live vaccines

A

MMR, Varicella, nasal influenza, oral polio, rotavirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

contraindications to vaccines

A

anaphylaxis, immunosuppression or pregnancy (live virus vaccine), moderate-severe illness with or without fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

list non-contraindications to getting a vaccine

A

mild acute illness with or without fever, convalescent phase of illness, recent exposure to infectious diseases, current antimicrobial therapy, breast feeding, mild to moderate local reaction, low-grade to moderate fever after previous vaccine, history of penicillin or other non-vaccine allergy, receiving allergen extract immunotherapy

24
Q

specific examples of immunosuppression which are contraindication to live vaccines

A

congenital immunodeficiency, HIV infection, leukemia, lymphoma, cancer therapy, prolonged course of high dose corticosteroids (2mg/kg/day for >2 weeks)

25
Q

difference between primary and secondary prophylaxis

A

primary–>used to prevent infection before first occurrence, secondary–>prevent recurrence after a first episode

26
Q

Chemoprophylaxis regimens for meningococcus

A

rifampin BID x 2 days & ceftriaxone once (all ages) and ciprofloxacin once for (18 and older) are recommended regimens. Azithro may be used for cases of resistant organisms

27
Q

Who should get meningococcus prophylaxis?

A

All close contacts, esp young children, childcare contacts in the 7 days before illness onset, ppl with direct contact to secretions. Not recommended for casual contacts with no history of direct exposure to patient’s oral secretions (ex. school or work)

28
Q

who should get Hib chemoprophylaxis?

A

all occupants of contact households with infants <12 months, children <4 yrs who are incompletely immunized, or immunocompromised children of any age . Any index case of Hib aged <2 yrs and not treated with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone should also receive chemoprophylaxis at the end of therapy. Contact public health about management of childcare and school contacts.

29
Q

Who should get tetanus immunoglobulin?

A

fewer than 3 doses or unknown number of tetanus toxoid vaccine AND contaminated wound (dirt, feces, saliva, puncture, avulsion, crush, burn, frostbite)

30
Q

who needs to get tetanus toxoid vaccine?

A

fewer than 3 doses or unknown number of tetanus toxoid vaccines and any wound, if >= 10 yrs since last dose and uncomplicated wound, >=5 since last vaccine dose and complicated wound

31
Q

when do most kids have 3 doses of tetanus containing vaccine?

A

by 6 months (get it at 2,4,6 months) and then again 15-18 months and 4-6 yrs

32
Q

Who should get rabies immune globulin?

A

rabid or suspected rabid animal, or if animal develops signs of rabies while under investigation. Captured wild animal should be killed and brain examined for rabies without period of observation. If animal is not captured and is wild, rabies should be presumed. Esp bats, racoons, skunks, foxes, coyotes, and bobcats. Exposure to bats when person isn’t able to say whether bat came in contact (ex. sleeping person, unattended baby).

33
Q

what should you do if a domestic animal (dog, cat) unprovoked bites a human and you’re worried about rabies?

A

observe animal for 10 days for symptoms of rabies without immediate treatment of victim

34
Q

what does rabies post exposure management entail?

A

cleanse wound, RIG at 20IU/kg full dose infiltrated subcutaneously into area around wound. Any remaining RIG injected IM. Inactivated rabies vaccine should be given simultaneously at site away from where RIG was administer with additional vaccine doses at 3,7,14 days.

35
Q

What is Ramsay hunt syndrome?

A

Varicella zoster (ie shingles) infection of cranial nerve VII causing facial paralysis and ear canal vesicles

36
Q

Who should receive antivirals for varicella infection?

A

immunocompromised, unvaccinated persons older than 12, chronic cutaneous or pulmonary disease, short course, intermittent or aerosolized corticosteroids, or long term salicylate therapy (routine treatment of varicella of otherwise healthy children not recommended)

37
Q

what is the most common complication of varicella?

A

secondary infection of skin lesions with strep or staph (can lead to nec fasc or toxic shock syndrome)

38
Q

is scarring more common with primary varicella or zoster?

A

zoster because involved of deeper layers of skin

39
Q

who is at risk of severe neonatal varicella?

A

newborns of mothers with primary varicella (not shingles) occurring 5 days before to 2 days after delivery. Fetus is exposed to large inoculum of virus but is born before maternal antibody response can cross the placenta. these infants should be treated with ASAP with VZIG or IVIG if VZIG not available.

40
Q

bacterial pathogen which causes the highest morbidity and mortality in meningitis

A

strep pneumo

41
Q

sequelae of meningitis

A

deafness, seizures, hydrocephalus, blindness, paresis, ataxia, learning disability, behavioural problems

42
Q

poor prognostic factors of meningitis

A

young age, long duration of illness before effective antibiotic therapy, seizures, coma at presentation, shock, low or absent CSF white blood cell count, visible bacteria on CSF gram stain, immunocompromised status

43
Q

risk factors for fungal infections

A

oropharyngeal and gastrointestinal mucositis (facilitating systemic fungal invasion), catheters, TPN, hyperglycaemia, extreme prematurity, broad-spectrum abx that promotes fungal colonization

44
Q

congenital toxoplasmosis infection: cause of infection, neonatal features, treatment

A

maternal exposure to cats or raw meat or immunosuppression.
HYDROCEPHALUS, abnormal spinal fluid, INTRACRANIAL CALCIFICATIONS, CHORIORETINITIS, jaundice, HSM, fever. Many infants asymptomatic.
Treatment: pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine

45
Q

Congenital rubella neonatal features

A

IUGR, microcephaly, micropthalmia, cataracts, glaucoma, “salt and pepper” chorioretinitis, HSM, jaundice, PDA, deafness, blueberry muffin rash, anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, metaphysical lucencies, B & T cell deficiencies. May be asymptomatic at birth

46
Q

Congenital CMV neonatal features

A

sepsis, IUGR, chorioretinitis, microcephaly, periventricular calcifications, blueberry muffin rash, anemia, thromboctyopenia, neutropenia, HSM, jaundice, deafness, pneumonia

47
Q

Congenital varicella features

A

micropthalmia, cataracts, chorioretinitis, cutaneous and bony aplasia/hypoplasia/atrophy, cutaneous scars

48
Q

Treponema pallidum (syphillis) symptoms at birth

A

non immune hydrops, prematurity, anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, pneumonia, HSM

49
Q

Syphillis late neonatal symptoms

A

snuffles, rash, HSM, condylomata lata, meaphysitis, CSF pleiocytosis, keratitis, periosteal new bone, lymphocytosis, hepatitis
teeth, eye, bone, skin, CNS, ear

50
Q

Treatment of congenital syphillis

A

penicillin

51
Q

congenital HIV symptoms

A

AIDs symptoms develop between 3-6 months of age in 10-25%, FTT, recurrent infection, HSM, neurologic abnormalities.

52
Q

Congenital hep B symptoms

A

neonatal hepatitis, asymptomatic carrier

53
Q

congenital gonorrhoea symptoms

A

gonococcal ophthalmia, sepsis, meningitis
prevention: erythromycin eye drops
tx: ceftriaxone

54
Q

congenital chlamydia symptoms

A

conjunctivitis, pneumonia
prevention: erythromycin eye drops
treatment: oral erythromycin

55
Q

congenital chagas disease

A

FTT, heart failure, achalasia

RC objectives (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions