Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Medicine > Infectious diseases > Flashcards

Infectious diseases Flashcards

(42 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Amoebic dysentry

  • cause
  • features
  • diagnosis
  • treatment
A 
Entamoeba histolytica protozoan
Spread by faecal-oral route
Features: profuse bloody diarrhoea
May be a long incubation period
Diagnosis: Stool microscopy may show trophozoites if examined within 15mins or kept warm
Treat with metronidazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Amoebic liver abscess

  • what is it
  • features
  • diagnosis
  • treatment
A

Single mass in the right lobe of liver
Contents of abscess often described as ‘anchovy sauce’
Feature: fever, RUQ pain
Diagnosis: serology is positive in >90% of cases
Treatment: metronidazole followed by a luminal amoebicide. Abscess may require image-guided drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Resp antibiotics

  • exacerbations of chronic bronchitis
  • uncomplicated CAP
  • atypical pneumonia
  • HAP
A
  • COPD exacerbation: amoxicillin, doxycycline or clarithromycin
  • CAP: amoxicilline
  • Atypical pneumonia: clarithromycin

-HAP: co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime if within 5 days of admission
Tazocin if more than 5 days after admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Abx for:

  • lower UTI
  • pyelonephritis
A
  • lower UTI: trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin (or amoxicillin or cephalosporin)
  • Pyelonephritis: broad-spec cephalosporin (cefuroxime, ceftriaxone) or quinolone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Skin abx

  • impetigo
  • cellulitis
  • animal/human bite
  • mastitis
A
  • impetigo: topical fusidic acid or oral flucloxacillin
  • cellulitis: flucloxacillin (co-amoxiclav if near eyes or nose)
  • animal/human bite: co-amoxiclav (doxy+metro if pen allergic)
  • mastitis: flucloxacillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ENT abx

  • throat infections
  • sinusitis
  • otitis media
  • otitis externa
A
  • throat: phenoxymethylpenicillin
  • sinusitis: amoxicillin (or doxy)
  • otitis media: amoxicillin (erythromycin if pen allergic)
  • otitis externa: flucloxacillin (or erythromycin if pen allergic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Genital abx

  • gonorrhoea
  • chlamydia
  • PID
  • Syphillis
  • Trichomonas vaginalis
  • Bacterial vaginosis
A
  • Gonorrhoea: IM ceftriaxone
  • Chlamydia: azithromycin or doxycycline
  • PID: IM ceftriaxone + metronidazole PO + doxycycline PO
  • Syphilis: Benzathine benzylpenicillin IM
  • Trichomonas vaginalis: metronidazole PO
  • BV: Metronidazole PO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

GI abx-

  • Clostridium difficile
  • Campylobacter enteritis
  • Salmonella
  • Shigellosis
A
  • Clostridium difficile: first episode metronidazole, if second/multiple episodes then vancomycin
  • Campylobacter enteritis: clarithromycin
  • Salmonella: ciprofloxacin
  • Shigellosis: ciprofloxacin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Abx protein synthesis inhibitors

  • examples
  • Adverse features of each example
A

Aminoglyclosides (gentamicin, vancomicin): nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity

Tetracyclines (doxycycline): skin discolouration, photosensitivity

Chloramphenicol: aplastic anaemia

Clindamycin: common cause of C diff

Macrolides (azithromycin, clarithromycin): nausea, P450 inhibitor, prolonged QT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

BCG vaccine

  • what does it contain
  • how is it given
  • who is it given to
  • contraindications
A
  • Contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis
  • Given intradermally on lateral aspect of upper left arm. Tuberculin skin test must be done first
  • Given to: infants living in high risk UK areas, infants with high risk family members, children who have lived in a high risk country, healthcare workers, prison staff, those working with homeless people
  • CI: immunosuppression, previous BCG vaccine, a past hx of TB, pregnancy, positive tuberculin test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cellulitis

  • Causative organism
  • Features
  • Eron Classification
  • IV abx criteria
  • Management
A

Inflamm of skin and subcut tissues, typically due to Strep pyogenes or Staph aureus

Features: commonly occurs on the shins, erythema, pain, swelling, may have systemic illness (fever)

Eron Classification:

  1. No systemic toxicity, no uncontrolled co-morbidities
  2. Systemically unwell, or co-morbidities
  3. Significantly systemically unwell or unstable co-morbidities
  4. Sepsis or a severe life-threatening infection
IV abx required for:
Eron classification 3 or 4
Severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis
Very young or frail
Immunocompromised
Significant lymphoedema
Facial cellulitis

Management: Flucloxacillin for mild/moderate
Co-amoxiclav or ceftriaxone for severe cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cholera

  • cause
  • features
  • management
A

Cause: Vibro cholerae (gram neg bacteria)

Features: profuse ‘rice water’ diarrhoea, dehydration, hypoglycaemia

Management: oral rehydration therapy, antibiotics (doxycycline or ciprofloxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bacteria

  • gram positive cocci
  • gram negative cocci
  • gram positive rods/ bacilli
  • gram negative rods/ bacilli
A
  • gram pos cocci: Staphylococci, streptococci, enterococci
  • gram neg cocci: neisseria, moraxella
  • gram pos rod: clostridium, diphtheria, listeria
  • gram neg rod: E coli, Haem influenza, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Salmonella, shigella, campylobacter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cryptosporidiosis

  • what is it
  • who is at risk
  • features
  • diagnosis
  • management
A
  • Protozoa
  • More common in immunocompromised patients and young children
  • Features: watery diarrhoea, abdo cramps, fever
  • Diagnosis: modified Ziehl-Neelson stain (acid-fast) of the stool
  • Mx: supportive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dengue fever

  • what is it
  • features
  • treatment
A
  • Viral infection, can progress to viral haemorrhagic fever, 7 day incubation period
  • Features: headache (retro-orbital), fever, myalgia, pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash
  • treatment: entirely symptomatic (fluids, blood transfusion, etc)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Diphtheria features

A

Recent travel to eastern europe/russia/asia
Sore throat with a diphtheric membrane (necrotic mucosal cells on tonsils)
Bulky cervical lymphadenopathy
Neuritis
Heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Enteric fever (typhoid/ paratyphoid)

  • what is it caused by
  • transmission
  • features
  • complications
Study These Flashcards
A
  • Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi and paratyphoid is caused by Salmonella paratyphi
  • Transmitted via faecal-oral route
  • Features: systemic upset (headache, fever, arthralgia), relative bradycardia, abdo pain and distension, constipation, rose spots on the trunk
  • complications: osteomyelitis, GI bleed/ perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis
18
Q

Malignancies associated with Epstein-Barr virus

Study These Flashcards
A

Burkitts lymphoma, Hodgkins lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, HIV-associated CNS lymphomas

19
Q

E coli

  • what type of bacteria is it
  • what infections does it often cause
  • E coli O157:H7
Study These Flashcards
A
  • Gram neg rod
  • UTI, diarrhoeal illnesses, neonatal meningitis
  • E coli O157:H7 causes a severe, haemorrhagic watery diarrhoea with a high mortality rate. Can be complicated by HUS
20
Q

Causes of gastroenteritis

Study These Flashcards
A

Traveller’s diarrhoea: E coli most common. = At least 3 loose stools in 24hrs with or without abdo cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in stool

E Coli: common amongst travellers, watery stools, abdo cramps, nausea

Giardia Lamblia: prolonged, non-bloody diarrhoea

Cholera: profuse watery diarrhoea, severe dehydration, not common amongst travellers

Shigella: bloody diarrhoea, vomiting, abdo pain

Staph aureus: severe vomiting, short incubation

Campylobacter: flu-like prodrome, may mimic appendicitis, may cause guillain-barre syndrome

21
Q

Features of HIV seroconversion

Study These Flashcards
A 
Typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection
Sore throat
Lymphadenopathy
Malaise, myalgia, arthralgia
Diarrhoea
Maculopapular rash
Mouth ulcers
Rarely meningoencephalitis
22
Q

Diagnosis of HIV

Study These Flashcards
A

HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm diagnosis

HIV antibody test is most common and accurate test (ELISA and Western blot). Most patients develop HIV antibodies at 4-6 weeks.

p24 antigen test: usually positive from about 1 week to 3-4 weeks after infection

Testing HIV in an asymptomatic person should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, repeat test at 12 weeks if result is negative

23
Q

Treating HIV

Study These Flashcards
A

Highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART) involves a combination of at least 3 drugs: two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors and either a protease inhibitors or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Start HAART as soon as diagnosis is made

24
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma

Study These Flashcards
A

Occurs in HIV patients
Connective tissue cancer caused by Human Herpes Virus 8
Presents as purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa
Skin lesions may ulcerate
Resp involvement: massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion

Treat with radiotherapy and resection

25
Neurocomplications of HIV
``` Toxoplasmosis Primary CNS lymphoma TB Ecephalitis Cryptococcus Progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy AIDS dementia complex ```
26
HIV opportunistic infections and disorders
CD4 200-500: Oral thrush, shingles, hairy leukoplakia, kaposi sarcoma CD4 100-200: Pneumocystis jiroveci, HIV dementia, Cryptosporidiosis, cerebral toxoplasmosis CD4 50-100: Aspergillosis, Oesophageal candidiasis, cryptococcal meningitis, primary CNS lymphoma
27
Pneumocystis jiroveci (PCP) - what is it - prophylaxis - features - Ix - Mx
``` Unicellular eukaryote (fungus) All patients with CD4 count <200 should receive PCP prophylaxis ``` Features: dyspnoea, dry cough, fever, very few chest signs Pneumothorax is a common complications Extrapulmonary features: hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, choroid lesions Ix: CXR (bilateral interstitial pulm infiltrate), exercise-induced desaturation, bronchoalveolar lavage Mx: Co-trimoxazole, steroids if hypoxic
28
Gram positive vs gram negative staining
Gram positive will turn purple/blue Gram negative will be red/pink
29
Infectious mononucleosis - what is it - features - diagnosis - management
Glandular fever, caused by Epstein Barr virus Features: Classic triad of sore throat, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy Other features: malaise, anorexia, headache, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia Maculopapular pruritic rash develops if amoxicillin is given Symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks Diagnosis: monospot test and FBC in the 2nd week of illness to confirm diagnosis Management: rest, fluid, simple analgesia, avoid contact sport for 8 weeks due to risk of splenic rupture
30
Lyme disease features
Spread by ticks Bulls eye rash, fever, arthralgia, heart block, myocarditis, facial nerve palsy, meningitis
31
Investigations and management of Lymes disease
Ix: clinical diagnosis if bulls eye rash is seen, otherwise ELISA antibodies to Borrelia Burgdorferi are first line test Mx: doxycycline
32
Features and complications of malaria
Features: schizonts on a blood film, parasitaemia, hypoglycaemia, acidosis, temp >39, severe anaemia Plasmodium vivax/ovale causes a cyclical fever every 48 hours, Plasmodium malariae causes a cyclical fever every 72 hours Complications: cerebral malaria (Seizure, coma), AKI, ARDS, hypoglycaemia, DIC
33
Management of malaria
Plasmodium falciparum: Uncomplicated: combination therapy is first line (eg. artesunate plus mefloquine, or aertesunate plus sulfadoxine-prtimethamine) Severe: IV artesunate Non-falciparum malaria: Chloroquine or artesunate-based combination therapy like above
34
Interpreting mantoux test (Tuberculin Skin Test)
Intradermal injection -> result read 48-72 hours later Positive result: erythema and induration >10mm. Implies previous exposure including BCG (if strongly positive, ?TB) False negative Mantoux test: immunosuppression, sarcoidosis, lymphoma, extremes of age, fever, hypoalbuminaemia, anaemia
35
Necrotising fasciitis - what is it - two types - features - management
Medical emergency, difficult to recognise in early stages Type 1: caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes (often post-op in diabetics), most common type Type 2: Strep pyogenes Features: acute onset, painful erythematous lesion, often presents as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain out of keeping with physical features, extremely tender over infected tissue Management: urgent surgical debridement, IV abx
36
Norovirus - features - transmission - limiting transmission - diagnosis - management
- Features: symptoms develop within 15-50 hours of infection, N+V, diarrhoea, headache, low grade fever, myalgia - Transmission: faecal-oral - Limiting transmission: isolation, good hand hygiene with soap and water - Diagnosis: clinical history and stool culture viral PCR - Mx: self-limiting (72hrs), rehydration and electrolyte supplementation
37
Post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV
Combination of oral antiretrovirals as soon as possible, ideally within 1-2 hours but may be started up to 72 hours following exposure, for 4 weeks
38
Which vaccinations should be given to hyposplenic patients?
``` Pneumococcal (every 5 years) Haemophilus type B Meningococcal type C Annual influenza vaccine Penicillin V prophylaxis (at least 2 years but often for life) ```
39
Tetanus - organism - transmission - features - management
- Clostridium tetani - Tetanus spores are present in soil and may be introduced into the body from a wound - prodrome fever, lethargy, headache, trismus (lockjaw), risus sardonicus, opisthotonus (arched back, hyperextended neck), spasms (eg. dysphagia) - Management: supportive (ventilatary support, muscle relaxants), IM human tetanus immunoglobulin for high risk wounds, metronidazole abx
40
Indications for annual influenza vaccination
``` 65yrs+ Chronic resp disease Chronic heart disease Chronic kidney disease Chronic liver disease Chronic neuro disease DM Immunosuppression Hyposplenism Pregnancy ``` Health and social care staff Those in long term residential homes Carers
41
Indications for pneumococcal vaccine
``` 65yrs+ Hyposplenism Chronic resp disease Chronic heart disease CKD Chronic liver disease Immunosuppression DM Cochlear implants Cerebrospinal fluid leaks ```
42
Yellow fever - what is it - features
Viral haemorrhagic fever Zoonotic infection Incubation period 2-14 days Features: - may cause mild flu-like illness lasting less than one week - Sudden onset high fever, rigors, N+V, bradycardia. Brief remission followed by jaundice, haematemesis, oliguria - Councilman bodies (inclusion bodies) may be seen in the hepatocytes

Medicine (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions