Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Leprosy, caused by Mycobacterium leprae features Sensory loss and hypopigmented skin lesions. What are commonest sites of the skin lesions?

A

typically affecting the buttocks, face, and extensor surfaces of limbs

The organism grows best at 27-30°C; therefore, skin lesions tend to develop in the cooler areas of the body, with sparing of the groin, axilla, and scalp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pathophysiology of paucibacillary versus multibacillary leprosy pathophysiology:

A

Low degree of cell mediated immunity → lepromatous leprosy (‘multibacillary’)

High degree of cell mediated immunity → tuberculoid leprosy (‘paucibacillary’)

Pathophysiology (medscape)

Leprosy can manifest in different forms, depending on the host response to the organism.

Individuals who have a vigorous cellular immune response to M leprae have the tuberculoid form of the disease that usually involves the skin and peripheral nerves. The number of skin lesions is limited, and they tend to be dry and hypoesthetic. Nerve involvement is usually asymmetric. This form of the disease is also referred to as paucibacillary leprosy because of the low number of bacteria in the skin lesions (ie, < 5 skin lesions, with absence of organisms on smear). Results of skin tests with antigen from killed organisms are positive in these individuals.

Individuals with minimal cellular immune response have the lepromatous form of the disease, which is characterized by extensive skin involvement. Skin lesions are often described as infiltrated nodules and plaques, and nerve involvement tends to be symmetric in distribution. The organism grows best at 27-30°C; therefore, skin lesions tend to develop in the cooler areas of the body, with sparing of the groin, axilla, and scalp. This form of the disease is also referred to as multibacillary leprosy because of the large number of bacteria found in the lesions (ie, >6 lesions, with possible visualization of bacilli on smear).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1) Features of paucibacillary leprosy and
2) treatment

A

1) Low degree of cell mediated immunity → lepromatous leprosy (‘multibacillary’)

extensive skin involvement

symmetrical nerve involvement

2) rifampicin and dapsone for 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

1) Features of multibacillary leprosy and
2) treatment

A

1) High degree of cell mediated immunity → tuberculoid leprosy (‘paucibacillary’)

limited skin disease

asymmetric nerve involvement

2) triple therapy with rifampicin, dapsone and clofazimine for 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Shigella infection is usually self-limiting and does not require antibiotic treatment antibiotics (e.g. ciprofloxacin) except for…….

A

1) people with severe disease,
2) immunocompromised
3) bloody diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

higella infection is usually self-limiting and does not require antibiotic treatment

antibiotics are indicated for people with severe disease, who are immunocompromised or with bloody diarrhoea. What is appropriate antibiotic?

A

Cirpofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Clinical features of Trypanosoma rhodesiense

A

Trypanosoma chancre - painless subcutaneous nodule at site of infection

intermittent fever

enlargement of posterior cervical lymph nodes

later: central nervous system involvement e.g. somnolence, headaches, mood changes, meningoencephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment of Trypanosoma rhodesiense

A

Management Trypanosoma rhodesiense

early disease: IV pentamidine or suramin

later disease or central nervous system involvement: IV melarsoprol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the vector for trypansoaoma Cruzi

A

Triatomine bugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is treatment for Trypanosoma Cruzi?

A

Management

treatment is most effective in the acute phase using azole or nitroderivatives such as benznidazole or nifurtimox

chronic disease management involves treating the complications e.g., heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clinical features of Chaga’s disease (Trypanosoma Cruzi)

A

mainly affects the heart and gastrointestinal tract

  • myocarditis may lead to dilated cardiomyopathy (with apical atophy) and arrhythmias
  • gastrointestinal features includes megaoesophagus and megacolon causing dysphagia and constipation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most common cause of immune reconstitution syndrome (IRIS) in HIV

A

tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can IRIS can be distinguished from ARV failure

A

by monitoring response to treatment- typically patients with IRIS will have low viral loads and higher CD4 counts whereas in treatment failure high viral load and low CD4 count would be typical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Syphillis Incubation Period?

How long to second phase?

How long to third phase?

A

1) Incubation period: 9-90 days
2) 6-10 weeks after primary infection
3) Years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Features of Primary Syphillis

A

chancre - painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact

local non-tender lymphadenopathy

often not seen in women (the lesion may be on the cervix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Features of secondary Syphillis

A

Secondary features - occurs 6-10 weeks after primary infection

systemic symptoms: fevers, lymphadenopathy

rash on trunk, palms and soles

buccal ‘snail track’ ulcers (30%)

condylomata lata (painless, warty lesions on the genitalia )

17
Q

Features of tertiary Syphillis

A

Tertiary features

gummas (granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones)

ascending aortic aneurysms

general paralysis of the insane

tabes dorsalis

Argyll-Robertson pupil

18
Q

How to test for syphillis?

A

Cardiolipin tests

Syphilitic infection leads to the production of non-specific antibodies that react to cardiolipin. This reaction is the basis of traditional nontreponemal tests such as the VDRL test and rapid plasma reagin test.

examples include VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) & RPR (rapid plasma reagin)

insensitive in late syphilis

becomes negative after treatment

Treponemal specific antibody tests

example: TPHA (Treponema pallidum HaemAgglutination test)

remains positive after treatment

19
Q

Causes of 6 false positive cardiolipin (VRDL & RPR) tests

A

pregnancy

SLE, anti-phospholipid syndrome

TB

leprosy

malaria

HIV

20
Q

Features of congenital syphilis

A

blunted upper incisor teeth (Hutchinson’s teeth), ‘mulberry’ molars

rhagades (linear scars at the angle of the mouth)

keratitis

saber shins

saddle nose

deafness

21
Q

Treatment of syphillis

A

intramuscular benzathine penicillin is the first-line management

alternatives: doxycycline

the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is sometimes seen following treatment

fever, rash, tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic

in contrast to anaphylaxis, there is no wheeze or hypotension

it is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment

No treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required

22
Q

What is Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Within 24 hours after antibiotic treatment of the spirochetal infections syphilis, Lyme disease, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever (RF), patients experience shaking chills, a rise in temperature, and intensification of skin rashes known as the Jarisch–Herxheimer reaction (JHR) with symptoms resolving a few hours later.

Symptoms

fever, rash, tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic

in contrast to anaphylaxis, there is no wheeze or hypotension

it is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment

No treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required

23
Q
A