Infective Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 4 koch postulates. and why they aren’t true

A
  1. microbe must be present in all cases of disease but not in healthy people (BUT people can be asymptomatic)
  2. organisms must be isolated from a diseased and host and grown in pure culture (BUT some viruses and prions impossible to culture. And some infections are polymicrobial)
  3. Isolated organisms must cause disease when introduced in a suitable animal (BUT animal models may not be available or representative of human disease)
  4. the organism must be re-isolated from said infected animal
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2
Q

Modern Koch postulates

A

1-DNA sequence of a pathogen should be present in most cases of disease
2-Few/ no copies should be found in the host or tissues with no pathology
3-As the disease resolves, it should decrease & be undetectable
4-Sequence copy number should increase with severity of the disease
5-Proof of filterability (eg. viruses filtered out as smaller than bacteria)
6-Detection by immune system

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3
Q

is tonsillitis and cellulitis caused by primary or opportunistic pathogens. which are they caused by

A

-opportunisitve, causing infection in damaged host
Tonsilitis = streptococci =strep throat
Cellulitis=strep or staph

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4
Q

Give examples of disease transmitted via respiratory, sexual, blood, bites, feacal to oral, environmental and vector borne routes

A

-respiratory [HSV1, Influenza, measles, rhinovirus, TB]
-Sexually [HIV, syphilis, chlamydia, HPV, herpes, hep B & C]
-Blood [HIV, Hep B & C]
-Bites [anaerobic infection, Rabies, heb B]
-Feacal - oral [salmonella, norovirus]
-Environmental [C.difficile, enterovirus]
-Vector bourne through lice, ticks, fleas, sandfly, mosquitos & tsetse fly.

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5
Q

what are exotoxins and endotoxins

A

endotoxins = membrane compounds of gram negative. LPS released by gram negative when they die and activate inflammatory response
exotoxins = secreted locally by gram negative and positive

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6
Q

what is a virulence factors of leishmaniasis. what type of organisms are they

A

hides within macrophages, very motile,
Leishmania is a parasitic protozoan, a single-celled organism that are responsible for the disease leishmaniasis

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7
Q

difference between gram positive and negative (colour of microscopy, chemicals used to dye, membranes)

A

gram positive = purple, retain crystal violet, thick peptidoglycan cell wall, no outer lipid membrane
gram negative = pink, safranin stain, thinner peptidoglycan, LPS

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8
Q

how prokaryotes differ to eukaryotes

A

no internal membrane-bound organelles, single DNA strand, single chromosome, no histones, can transfer DNA, replicate by binary fusion, smaller, DNA in cytoplasm (not nucleus), peptidoglycan cell wall, appendages,

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9
Q

How viruses replicate. and their general structure

A

only replicate within the cytoplasm of cells of host organisms. Need host cells to survive - obligate intracellular parasites
-Attaches to the cell, enters it, synthesises its viral nucleic acids & proteins, and assembles new viruses.
-The host cell is destroyed and the new viruses are released via budding where it acquires a portion of the host’s virus-encoded glycoproteins to create an envelope
-RNA or DNA, double or single stranded
-capsid surrounds the DNA or RNA, some have envelopes too

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10
Q

fungus: are they eukaryotes or prokaryotes, what is in their cell walls, how do yeasts and moulds replicate

A

eukaryotes
cell walls contain chitin
yeast - mitosis (sexual)
moulds - meiosis (asexual)

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11
Q

name viruses that cause oral lesions. which viruses cause oral hairy leukoplakia and koplik’s spots

A

Herpes simplex = herpetic gingivostomatitis, herpetic ulcers
Herpangina (coxsackie virus) = white vesicles on soft palate
Epstein Barr virus (HHV4) = oral hairy leukoplakia
HIV= oral hairy leukoplakia, increased infections, Kaposi’s sarcoma
HPV = benign oral warts - cauliflower
Hand foot and mouth disease (coxsackie)
HHV3 reactivation = shingles and oral lesions
Measles virus= koplik’s spots (white surrounded by red patches on buccal mucosa)
HHV5 cytomegalovirus - palate ulceration

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12
Q

what surface proteins does influenza virus have

A

haemaglutinin (entry) and neurominidase (release). these allow attachment to respiratory tract of host

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13
Q

Name double stranded DNA, single RNA, single DNA, double RNA viruses

A

double DNA = herpes viruses, hep B, HPV
single RNA = influenza, measles, mumps, rubella, rhinovirus, hep C, HIV
single DNA - parvovirus
double RNA - rota virus

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14
Q

what is latency. examples of latent viruses

A

-Viruses can adopt a latent state where they are dormant. They are not replicating so cannot generate peptide for MHC class 1 and antigen presentation, so cannot be killed
-Hide from immunosurveillance
eg. Human herpes viruses and HIV
-reactivation causes by stress, fever, menstruation, cold, UV radiation, bacterial infection

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15
Q

what cells herpes simplex virus infects. and where it can become latent. how long cold sore vesicles last

A

-active viral replication in mucosal tissue and affects epithelial cells usually around the lips
-Virus spreads to sensory neurons of trigeminal ganglion and persists in a latent state so protected from immune system. no replication
-At times of stress or altered immune status the virus re-infects epithelial cells usually around the mouth causing cold sores, where vesicles last 5-12 days

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16
Q

Which HHV number is Epstein Barr virus. What disease it causes. what cells it infects and what cancer it is associated with

A

HHV4
-causes glandular fever (infectious mononucleosis), swollen glands, sore throat, headache, lots of little red spots on palate, cervical lymphadenopathy
-infects B cells, becoming latent in memory B cells. waits for them to be activated to reinfect.
-B cells can become malignant (Burkitt’s lymphoma) in immunocompromised
-can cause oral hairy leukoplakia - benign white striped lesion on tongue associated with HIV or immunosuppression
-tranmsision via saliva or sexual contact. Transfusions, transplants

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17
Q

symptoms of HSV 1 and 2

A

HSV1: disease above waist. Primary infection causes herpetic gingivostomatits, herpetic whitlow on fingers, meningitis, dermatitis, conjunctivitis. Later reactivation causes cold sores (herpes labialis), corneal ulcers, encephalitis.

-HSV2: disease below waist. mainly causes genital lesions, meningitis. Reactivation often symptomatic or can cause cold sores

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18
Q

Which HHV is varicella zoster virus. where it infects and what infection it causes. which ganglion it goes to. transmission

A

HHV3
-transmission via oral, sexual and respiratory route via aerosol droplets or through direct contact
-Primary infection - infects blood then liver and spleen, causing chicken pox (red raised spots and pus filled vesicles. Last 5 days in children until full crusting, more severe in adults)
- gains access to trigeminal and dorsal root ganglions and establishes latency.
-Reinfection causes shingles in the area depending on the nerve it infects. unilateral neuralgic pain and tingling then rash. it never crosses midline if in trigeminal nerve

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19
Q

Which viruses are associate with Kaposi’s carcinoma, cervical cancer and Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

kaposi’s = HHV8, HIV
cervical = HPV
Burkitt’s = HHV4

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20
Q

what is HHV5 virus called. what it causes

A

Human Cytomegalovirus (HHV5)
-infects WBCs
- glandular fever (infectious mononucleosis), palate ulceration
-severe disease in immunocompromised

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21
Q

how herpes viruses are transmitted. DNA or RNA? double or single stranded?

A

HSV1&2= oral or sexual
HHV3= respiratory, oral, sexual
HHV4=sexual, oral, transfusions, transplants, congenital
HHV5=saliva, urine, blood, breast milk

Enveloped
double stranded DNA

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22
Q

what is neonatal herpes simplex and how it is caused

A

life threatening. - HSV2 from the mothers birth canal is given to a baby. Babies have very poor immunity so prone to infection. Caesarian section avoids this, but neonatal disease does not outweigh risks of section
Or newborns can sometimes get HSV-1 from close contact with someone who is shedding HSV-1 virus in their saliva

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23
Q

how HHV is diagnosed

A

PCR for direct viral detection. do a lesion swab or cerebrospinal fluid sample. - molecular diagnostics
or clinical diagnosis

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24
Q

How acyclovir is used to treat human herpes virus. What is the topical drug called and the prodrug of it

A

it is activated/ phosphorylated by thymidine kinase (specific in infected patients) to the active triphosphate form. It inhibits DNA polymerase and causes DNA chain termination. It is a nucleoside analogue
-5x daily as poor oral bioavailability
-valaciclovir =prodrug (metabolised into acyclovir)
-Zovirax =topical form

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25
Q

Who can be given vaccines and post-exposure prophylaxis for the varicella zoster virus (HHV3)

A

-post-exposure prophylaxis: treatment only for those at increased risk - pregnant or immunocompromised. concentrated antibodies against HHV3 given intramuscular. Only effective if given within 10 days of contact

-vaccine: live attenuated vaccine given at childhood or healthcare workers who haven’t had chicken pox.
-shingles vaccine for 70+ year olds

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26
Q

what samples are sent to the lab to make a diagnosis. what coloured tubes are used for viral swabs and clotted blood

A

-specimens, not a swab as they hold tiny samples and anaerobes die
-submit tissue, fluid or aspirate
-viral = green
-blood for serology= yellow

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27
Q

what info is required when sending a specimen to the lab

A

-patient name, MRN, NHS no.DOB
-date/time/location of sample
-specimen type
-requestor name and contact details
-investigation required
-presenting complaint
-comorbitites
-allergies
-current and past treatment

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28
Q

how HIV and hep B is diagnosed. how long it takes

A

serology - antibody and antigen reactions
-antibodies take a long time to be produced by body so takes a few weeks for results, compared to PCR technique where you get results in 2-3 days

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29
Q

explain methicillin resistant staph aureus (MRSA) what antibiotics treat MRSA

A

methicillin is a narrow-spectrum Beta lactam antibiotic of the penicillin family. It targets the transpeptidase protein that is involved in the cross linking in peptidoglycan formation.
- S. aureus has mecA gene that encodes PBP2a (a transpeptidase involved in peptidoglycan formation and a protein that antibiotics bind to)
- Modification of the mecA gene and this protein reduces binding to B lactams, makes them resistant to methicillin.
- PBP2a has lower affinity for methicillin so is less sensitive to the action of methicillin.
-MRSA treated by vancomycin, teicoplanin, linezolid

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30
Q

strategies to improve effectiveness of antibiotics

A

-reduce infection and therefore need for antibiotics (immunisation, better infection control)
-change incentives that encourage antibiotic misuse and overuse
-finish a full course, correct dose and duration
-avoid over prescribing, only used when absolutely necessary to prevent resistance
-avoid use in agriculture
-educate public and healthcare workers on use
-no over the counter
-develop new antibiotics

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31
Q

antibiotic resistance mechanism. examples of natural and acquired resistance

A

-ability of a microbe to resist the effects of medication that could perviously eradicate it
- bacteria in biofilms mutate constantly and these mutant cells are more resistant than others. Biofilms also contain slow growing resistant persister cells that are also resistant.
- After a course of antibiotics, susceptible cells die, while these resistant cells can survive and continue to grow with less competition. Shift in population causes infection
- more microbials= increased chance of these resistant cells remaining and replicating, causing resistance and infection.

-Acquired: produce enzymes that degrade the drug, efflux pumps, alters drug’s metabolic pathway, alters drug target to affect binding,
-Natural: Have larger membranes, lack permeability so drug cannot enter, thick peptidoglycan so less affected by B lactam antibiotics

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32
Q

how pencillin work. how bacteria can become resistant, and how this can be combated. examples of other beta lactams

A
  • Contains a beta lactam ring that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis of gram positive bacteria which weakens the cell wall and causes it to swell and rupture.
  • It inhibits transpeptidase enzyme, which is involved in the cross linking of NAG and NAM amino sugars into glycol chains
    -bacterocidal
  • Bacteria can produce B lactamase which hydrolyses the Beta lactam ring in penicillin. Therefore the penicillin is ineffective at destroying peptidoglycan
  • Beta lactamase can be inhibited by clavulanic acid. This can be given along side amoxicillin, in order to prevent resistance. (co-amoxiclav)

-carbapenems, cephalosporins, vancomycin

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33
Q

how macrolide and tetracycline work . examples of drugs

A

they target ribosomes and therefore inhibit protein synthesis
Tetracycline binds to 30S subunit which stops initiation of synthesis and elongation. (eg. doxycline)
-Macrolides bind to 50S to block translocation
(clarithromycin, erythromycin, clindamycin, chloramphenicol, rifampicin)
-bacterostatic
-useful in resp tract infections and skin’ soft tissue infections

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34
Q

how fluroquinolones work

A

DNA gyrase (a topoisomerase for preventing supercoiling) is inhibited by fluoroquinolone, so DNA replication is inhibited as knots are created
rarely used due to hypersensitivity and GI disturbances
-bacterocidal

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35
Q

how sulphonamides and trimethoprim work

A

inhibit folate metabolism so inhibit DNA synthesis. Sulphonamides: inhibit dihydropteroate synthetase
Trimethoprim: inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
-bacterostatic

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36
Q

cephalosporin action. when to give them

A

B lactam antibiotics, preventing cell wall synthesis
avoid if pt has penicillin allergy ad 3-9% patients are cross allergic to it

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37
Q

what are nitromidazoles. give an example

A

used if a pt has an anaerobic bacterial infection
eg. metranizadole
* Target imidazole ring to disrupt DNA, causing DNA to fragment and mutations
-prescribe if spreading infection with systemic signs

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38
Q

what are the 3 first line antibiotics for dental abscesses. what is 3rd line

A

-amoxicillin [500mg for 5days]
-metranidazole [400mg for 3 days] - if penicillin allergy
-erythromycin [500mg for 5 days]

-clindamycin [150-300mg for 5 days]

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39
Q

how to treat OAC, causing sinusiits

A

-immediate primary closure. consider Essex retainer if not possible
-antibiotics: 1st line amoxicillin and ephedrine hydrochloride nasal drops.
-2nd line doxycycline and nasal drops.
-3rd line co-amoxiclav

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40
Q

list the dental uses for amoxicillin and metronidazole

A

-amoxicillin: 1st line abscess, OAC. 2nd line for pericoronitis and ANUG
-metranidazole: 1st line abscess for those with penicillin allergy, 1st line for pericoronitis, ANUG

41
Q

what antibiotic is avoided with alcohol and why

A

metranidazole inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase in alcohol metabolism so prolonged action of alcohol. causes nausea, vomitting, flushing of the skin, tachycardia, shortness of breath

42
Q

why co-amoxiclav prevents bacterial resistance

A

contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which inhibits B lactase producing bacteria to prevent resistance

43
Q

How HIV infections causes AIDs. symptoms

A

-Caused by HIV 1 and 2 RNA retrovirus virus. Transmitted via sexual contact and via blood

-RNA virus binds to CD4 receptor vis gp120 protein (on T cells, macrophages, dendritic) Enters the cell and the RNA virus is reverse transcribed into cDNA
-DNA integrated into host genome
-Virus originally infects macrophages and dendritic cells but because they are short lived, they then go on to infect CD4 T cells.
-If HIV has high mutation rate, it can evade host immunity. Persistent viral replication in CD4 T cells so CD8 kill these infected T cells.
-Rate of T cell depletion overtakes replacement and HIV infection progresses into AIDs.
-Memory T cells lie dormant and harbor the viral genome so cannot be eradicated. Virus only replicates when the cells become activated.

-Severe depletion in CD4 T cells, (helper cells for fighting off infection)
-HIV infection causes a secondary immunodeficiency

44
Q

What does Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) do and Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)

A

-HAART: combination drug therapy for HIV
Targets many different components of the virus to reduce viral load. Very successful at reducing mortality. stabilises viral infection. [inhibitis CCRs on T cells to block entry, inhibits viral fusion, inhibits integrase, reverse transcriptase, protease]
-but doesn’t clear the virus, expensive, some serious side effects

-PrEP uses 2 drugs for preventing HIV, given to groups at risk. It coats CD4 so the virus cannot infect them.

45
Q

what viral load number of HIV means it is untransmissible. And below what value for CD4 cells means the patient is very immunosuppressed

A
  1. viral load - measured by PCR
  2. CD4 cells
    When viral load <50, virus is untransmissible
    when CD4 levels <300/200/50 they are very immunocompromised
46
Q

explain the changes in HIV and CD4 levels in infected patients, including time frames

A

4-8 weeks: CD4 will be its highest at the start and suddenly drop. then increase at the end of 8 weeks. Plasma RNA copies with suddenly increase to its peak then drop
Up to 12 years, CD4 very gradually decrease. virus level stays constant
Then CD4 cells start to decrease at a quicker rate with RNA copies increasing. Reaches a level where it is classed as AIDs and it can cause death

47
Q

symptoms of HIV - the 4 stages

A
  1. Infection: making antibodies. flu symptoms, rash, fatigue
  2. Asymptomatic: lasts 8-10 years
  3. Symptomatic: fatigue, weight loss, mouth ulcers, thrush and severe diarrhoea, opportunistic infection
  4. AIDs: diagnosed looking at viral load, CD4 count, symptoms, infection

General signs – lymphadenopathy/ wasting/ oral candida/ oral hairy leukoplakia/ perianal herpes/ splenomegaly / Kaposi sarcoma/ skin rash

48
Q

type of Candidiasis common in HIV patients. symptoms. issues with treating it

A

Due to suppressed immunity, it allows opportunistic infections
-oropharyngeal candidiases -Burning pain, Altered taste sensation, Difficulty swallowing liquids & solids
-fluconazole resistant candidiasis in HIV due to advanced immunosuppression or recurrent infections or long duration of exposure to antifungals.
-Do higher doses

49
Q

what causes angular chelitis. treatment options for the bacterial and fungal cause

A

-Caused by candida or strep/ staph (s.aureas)
-common for those with dentures, where decreased OVD causes folding at corners
- Seen in Crohn’s, down’s syndrome, immunosuppression (eg. HIV)
-iron deficiency, xerostomia

  • if it appears in a denture wearer, them the likely cause is candida, so treat with 2% Miconazole cream
  • If bacterial, treat with 2% sodium fusidate ointment (fusidic acid)
50
Q

What viral infections can lead to oral hairy leukoplakia

A

HIV, HHV4
can also be caused by steroid inhaler

51
Q

Explain alpha, beta and gamma hameolysis and its appearance on blood agar. name examples of bacteria

A

alpha = partial haemolysis. bleached green due to H2O2. streptococci, s. pneumonia, virididans. moist areas of lips
beta = complete haemolysis. clear agar. Group A, B, C, G, F. s. pyogenes, streptococci
gama = non-haemolytic. enterococcus species, staph [dry areas of lips]

52
Q

what is pharyngitis. most common cause. what bacteria causes severe forms. what bacteria is most likely to cause it in children

A

Inflammation of the pharynx, resulting in a sore throat
-most caused by viruses (influenza, rhinovirus) and doesn’t require treatment
-strep pharyngitis less common but causes more severe forms
-Group A streptococci (beta haemolytic) causes 20-30% cases in children. - s.pyogenes

53
Q

If pharyngitis caused by Group A strep is left untreated with systemic antibiotics, what 4 conditions can it progress to

A
  1. Quinsy - peritonsillar abscess
  2. Scarlet fever - sandpaper like skin rash, strawberry tongue
  3. Rheumatic fever - scarlet fever can progress to this. immune system overreacts and causes swelling of heart/ joints. vessels. Increases risk of Infective endocarditis
  4. Glomerulonephritis - inflamed glomerulus
54
Q

What is sepsis. bacteria involved. signs, treatment. and measurements.

A

-infection in blood stream with endotoxin-producing gram negative bacteria, causing overreactive systemic inflammation and potential death.
-Infection plus any of the following: breathing rapidly, purpuric rash, tachycardia, systolic BP<90, confused

-treated with O2, fluids, IV antibiotics
-Vasopressors. Vasopressors narrow blood vessels and help increase blood pressure
-measured by lactate (>2 is normal), urine output, blood cultures

55
Q

symptoms of gonorrhoea. diagnosis

A

STI, and pregnant can pass it onto child during birth
-can get it in anus, eyes, mouth, throat, urinaey tract, uterus/penus. Symptoms depending on what body part is infected
-vaginal bleeding, burning when peeing, discharge, rectum pain, sore throat, burning pharynx, oral lesions
-hard to diagnose due to fasidious (hard to grow bacteria) and similar to other organisms. culture on sepcial media
-impossible to distinguish from other bacterial causes of pharyngitis

56
Q

syphilis cause, diagnosis, symptoms, what happens if left untreated

A

-caused by T palladium, a spirochete
-STI
-diagnosed with swab lesions for PCR, or blood for serology
-genital ulcer. can progress to patches on mucosa, widespread rash, snail track ulcers, rubbery cervical lymphadenopathy, chronic gum inflammation, glossitis, syphilitic leukoplakia

57
Q

Tuberculosis - cause, transmission, symptoms,

A

-mycobacterium tuberculosis
-spread by inhalation
-lung infection. can cause painful mucosal lesions, mainly in posterior of tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, abscesses

58
Q

3 routes of infection for dentoalvolar abscesses

A
  1. Carious cavity, necrotic pulp, apical foramen
  2. via PDL
  3. periodical blood vessels
59
Q

what is sialadentitis. common cause. Difference between sialosis

A

-salivary gland infection causing bilateral swelling of glands. causes reduced salivary flow
-mumps virus a common cause. also caused by staph aureus, strep viridian’s, haemophiliac influenza, HIV

sialosis= enlargement of salivary glands (not an infection, it is metabolic)

60
Q

what is osteomyelitis. Bacteria that causes it. treatment. what it can progress to

A

infection within the bone
-staph aureus
-due to tooth infection (extract it) or open fracture (antibiotics)
-doxycycline (tetracycline) can treat it
-if untreated can cause, cutaneous abscesses, fistulae, cellulitis, sequestrum

61
Q

explain what a sequestrum is, involucrum and cloaca

A

Sequestrum – necrotic bone that is embedded within the pus/ infected granulation tissue (if infection persists after antibiotic therapy it needs removed).
Involucrum – new bone laid down by the periosteum that surrounds the sequestra
Cloaca – opening in the involucrum through which pus and sequestra to make their way out

62
Q

what is cellulitis and Ludwig’s angina

A

-Cellulitis= abscess cannot establish drainage so spreads through fascial planes
-Ludwig’s= Life-threatening cellulitis of the soft tissue involving the floor of the mouth and neck. It involves the sublingual, submental, and submandibular spaces. The infection is rapidly progressive, leading to dysphagia and potential airway obstruction

63
Q

what is actinomycosis infection

A

Actinomycosis is usually caused by the bacterium called Actinomyces israelii, located in nose and throat. It normally does not cause disease, but is opportunistic. causes abscess over the angle of the jaw

64
Q

explain bactericidal, bacteriostatic, bacteriolytic MIC, MBC

A
  • Bactericidal - kill the viable bacteria
  • Bacteriostatic - inhibit bacterial growth and multiplication
    -bacteriolytic = kills viable cells and removes dead ones
  • MIC - minimum inhibitory concentration = lowest concentration of an antimicrobial that will inhibit the visible growth of a microorganism after incubation
  • MBC - minimum bacteriocidal concentration = lowest concentration of an antimicrobial required to kill a microorganism
65
Q

what amino acids make up the peptidoglycan cell wall. Is it gram positive or negative that have thick peptidoglycan

A

N-ACETYLGLUCOSAMINE and N-ACTETYLMURAMIC ACID which form a disaccharide unit, which together these make a glycan unit.
-thick = gram positive - purple

66
Q

which antibiotics binds to DNA-dependant RNA polymerase inhibiting initiation of RNA synthesis

A

Rifampin

67
Q

Explain vertical, conjugation, transformation and transduction for acquiring resistance

A
  1. Vertical gene transfer: spontaneous mutation, from parent to offspring
  2. Horizontal: conjugation, tranformation, transduction
    -conjugation= direct cell to cell contact and transfer plasmid
    -transformation = DNA from dead bacteria then up from the environment
    -transduction =bacteriophage viruses transfer DNA between bacteria
68
Q

what bacterial infection is associated with diarrhoea with antibiotic use. what antibiotics to avoid in those with pre-existing diarrhoea

A

clostridium difficile - spore-forming rod, anaerobic, produces enterotoxins and cytotoxins. causes diarrhoea and even toxic megacolon
-oppoortunistic, due to dysbiosis

-avoid clindamycin and co-amoxiclav as likely to cause c.difficile infection and make pre-existing gut issues worse

69
Q

why take care with antibiotics if have liver disease. which to avoid. which is more liver friendly

A

most drugs are primarily metabolized and excreted by hepatobiliary system, so poor liver function =impaired drug handling, detoxification function is compromised, accumulating in the liver or bloodstream – can become toxic to the body
- Avoid tetracycline’s, erythromycin and clindamycin
- Reduce metronidazole dose
- Penicillin’s preferred– most ‘liver friendly’. Safe for chronic hepatitis patients

70
Q

which antibiotics to avoid if kidney disease and which to reduce the dose

A
  • Avoid tetracyclines
  • Reduce amoxicillin and erythromycin dose
    -major route of elimination after liver breakdown is via the urine = dose adjustment in patients with renal dysfunction is not necessary until the creatinine clearance is less that 10 mL/min
71
Q

what antibiotics should be avoided in HIV, lymphocytic leukaemia and glandular fever

A

-HIV- avoid all if possible
-Leukaemia and glandular fever- avoid ampicillin and amoxicillin as causes irritating rashes unrelated to penicillin allergy.

72
Q

what are the potential concerns for antibiotics and pregnancy. which is the safest option. which to avoid, which to use with caution

A

-developmental and toxic effects on foetus
-blood volume doubles so metabolism of drug is different
-due to lactation, drug can be lost through breast milk and alter is effectiveness

-amoxicillin safest
-metranizadole and co-amoxiclav avoid in those at risk of preterm delivery
-tetracycline avoid in pregnant women due to developmental effects. Reduce metranidazole

73
Q

what are potential side effects of antibiotics

A

-hypersensitivity - rash, swelling, potential anaphylaxis
-GI issues, candida, tongue dislocation, diarrhoea, stomach pain

74
Q

which antibiotics can cause pseudogemembranous colitis. what is it. [rare]

A

-Aka mega colon. Inflammation of the colon that occurs in some people who have taken antibiotics – almost always associated with C. diff
o Clindamycin

75
Q

Which antibiotics can cause liver damage [rare]

A

o Amoxicillin = Rare instances of idiosyncratic liver injury. can occur after the antibiotic is stopped. Symptoms of hypersensitivity.
o Co-Amoxiclav = most common cause of idiosyncratic acute liver injury. Hypersensitivity or allergy. Recurrence is highly likely

76
Q

which antibiotics can cause hypokalaemia [rare] and symptoms

A

o may be asymptomatic, weakness, constipation, leg cramps, respiratory difficulties, ECG changes, cardiac arrhythmias
o Penicillin’s

77
Q

which antibiotics to avoid with warfarin. which increase and decrease its effects

A

-penicillins, metranizadole, erythromycin - increase warfarin effect, increased risk of bleeding
-Rifampin may decrease INR by inducing warfarin’s metabolism, decreasing its activity

78
Q

which immunsupresant drug interacts with penicillin and tetracycline and how

A

Methotrexate
o Penicillin and tetracycline reduces its excretion so increases its toxicity

79
Q

what drug is used for gout. and what antibiotic does it react with an cause a rash

A

-allopurinol
amoxicillin

80
Q

which antibiotic is avoided with oral contraceptives and why

A

rifampicin or rifabutin
- oral contraceptives are broken down by gut bacteria then absorbed into blood stream but these antibiotics reduce gut bacteria, so less contraceptive pill absorbed=less effective

81
Q

what antibiotic is first and second line for pericoronitis and ANUG. how long to prescribe it for these infections

A

-metronidazole [400mg for 3 days]

-amoxicillin [500mg for 5 days]

82
Q

why it is difficult to interfere with viral activity

A

difficult to interfere with viral activity due to:
- few drug targets and less cellular properties for drugs to act on than bacteria
-drugs need to be selective enough for the virus without damaging host
-viruses have the ability to be latent, and antiviral only work on actively replicating viruses
-high rate of replication so hard to disrupt

83
Q

is there a vaccine for hep B or C. Can hep B or C be treated with drugs

A

only vaccine for hep B, not C
- there are only immunmodulator drugs for hep B which enhance the immune’s response to infection but cannot eliminate the virus, only manage it
-drugs are able to target multiple steps in hep C’s life cycle to eradicate it

84
Q

treatment for influenza

A

-neuraminidase inhibitors, preventing release of virus
-amantadine, inhibit its uncoating

85
Q

explain how azoles work. drug examples

A

target ergostorol (human cells have cholesterol instead) in fungal cell wall by blocking 1,4 alpha demethylase on CYP450. Membrane lipid synthesis and replication is inhibited
-ketoconazole, miconazole, clotrimazole, fluconazole

86
Q

How polyenes work. Drug examples

A

Bind to ergosterol which forms an ion channel, increasing permeability, forcing membrane apart causing it to die. disrupts the membrane. causes hypokalaemia as potassium is lost out the cell
-nystatin, amphotercin B

87
Q

What virus causes gingivostomatitis. Who is it common in, signs, transmission

A
  • Human herpes simplex type 1. Primary infection
  • common in children. Transmission via direct contact with infected lesions from saliva. Highly infectious
  • Oral lesions on lips and around mouth,
  • Blisters/ vesicles erupt as clusters and ooze a clear yellow fluid that may crust. Vesicles join to form painful ulcers which can cause intense erythema in gingiva and bleeding
  • Increased salivation, headache, painful, fever
    -Could spread, causing conjunctivitis or encephalitis
    -can cause herpetic whitlow if suck fingers with it
88
Q

What virus causes herpes labialis. Causes. Signs. Management and treatment.

A
  • Reactivation of HSV 1 and 2.
  • Herpes labialis = cold sores around the mouth
  • Triggers for reactivation - common cold, stress, menstruation, dental treatment, immunosuppression, exposure to cold/sun.
  • Patients may experience prodromal burning or tingling. Lesions typically appear at mucocutaneous junction of lip. Fluid-filled semi translucent blisters can enlarge which weeps (contamination issue in dentist surgery).
  • Infectious virus is shed from the lesion until it is completely healed.
  • Managed with adequate hydration, analgesics, topical anesthetics (lidocaine gel)
  • Acyclovir reduces symptoms if started within 1-2 days of vesicle eruption. For immunocompromised
89
Q

what are coxsackie viruses (an enterovirus) and the 2 infection that type A causes and their signs

A

-RNA viruses. Type A and B. Highly infectious, common in children.
-Type A cause herpangina, and hand, foot & mouth disease.

-Herpangina= similar to gingivostomatitis but doesn’t affect the gingiva. Small vesicles on tonsils and soft palate, that break down to form ulcers.
-Hand, foot and mouth disease= head ache, cutaneous lesions on hands and feet, bright red oral lesions

90
Q

what are paramyxoviruses, what they cause, oral signs

A

-Enveloped RNA viruses
-Causes parainfluenza, mumps, measles

-Measles: Red-brown blotchy rash. fever. Koplik’s spots- white spots surrounded by red patches on buccal mucosa
-Mumps: swelling of salivary glands, reduced saliva flow, halitosis, difficulty eating

91
Q

what is human papilloma virus (HPV) and oral signs

A

-double stranded DNA virus, transmitted sexually
-Benign oral warts: Small, cauliflower-like spiked or raised lesions on mucosa due to epithelial overgrowth.
-linked with cervical cancer, and head & neck cancer

92
Q

what causes strawberry tongue

A

scarlet fever

93
Q

appearance of kaposi’s sarcoma. What viruses causes it. diagnosis, treatment and management

A

-cancer cells found in the skin or mucous membrane of GI tract. Oral lesion which is reddish purple, raised or flat. can be small or big
-seen in HIV and HHV8
-biopsy. [If disappears on touching with microscope slide, purely vascular]

-Incurable. Managed with antiretroviral therapy (HIV), radiation, chemotherapy or sclerosing agents (inject chemotherapeutic agents into sarcoma to make shrink)

94
Q

What are the risk factors for oral candida infection

A

-disease of the diseased
-decreased saliva, smoking, decreased blood supply, poor OH, dental prostheses, altered oral flora, immunosupression (HIV, corticosteroids), malnutrition, malignancies, broad spectrum antibiotic therapy, inhalers

95
Q

What is the reverse transcriptase virus (retrovirus)

A

HIV

96
Q

Oral manifestations of HIV

A
  • Fungal infections – candidiasis, erythematous candidiasis, pseudomembranous candidiasis, angular cheilitis, hyperplastic candidiasis.
  • Histoplasmosis.
  • Cryptococcus neoformans infection.
  • Oral hairy leukoplakia.
  • Bacterial lesions.
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma.
  • Oral ulceration.
  • Lymphoma.
  • Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura.
  • Salivary gland disorders.
97
Q

stain/agar for mycobacterium, legionella (small bacteria), red complex bacteria, s.aureas, s.mutans

A

1) Zeihl Nelson pink
2) silver stain
3) BANA
4) Manitol agar
5) TYCS agar

98
Q

Test for shingles

A

-serology
-(PCR doesn’t show up latent viruses)