Info 2 Flashcards
(115 cards)
1
Q
General characteristics and effects of canine distemper virus-
A
airborne transmission, resp. and some GI signs, CS usually begin as just ADR and then progress to coughing, anorexia, circling convulsions etc.
2
Q
what do we give to medically tx adrenal gland disease in ferrets?
A
Lupron depo monthly
for sx you would do a uni/’bilateral adrenalectomy
3
Q
insulinoma in ferrets notes
A
Beta cell tumors, more common in males, tx with diet and pred, partial pancreatectomy can be helpful, Mean survival time is 16 months
4
Q
what is the most common cancer in ferrets??
A
lymphoma
5
Q
6 week old puppy gets what vax
A
fecal, HW prevent, deworm, flea and tick prevent and D2AP (3 week)
6
Q
Why do we add epi to bupivacaine?
A
Because it counteracts vasodilation and aids in hemostasis, Contraindicated if hyperparathyroidism, cardiac dysrhythmia, asthma, anesthesia
7
Q
Lidocaine lasts how long? What about bup?
A
2-4 mins, bupivicaine lasts 4-7 hours
8
Q
Crowding with some teeth rotated is class ___ malocclusion
A
class 1
9
Q
underbite is class ____ malocclusion
A
3
10
Q
An overbite is class ___ malocclusion
A
2
11
Q
Overbite dr term is….
A
mandibular brachygnathism
12
Q
what is the whipworm prepatent period?
A
3 months (do treatment for 3 months), live in the cecum, treatment fenbendazole
13
Q
When does larval stage 3 maturation discontinues at what temperature?
A
stops at 57 degrees
14
Q
microfilaria can live __-__ years and adults can live __-__ years
A
1-2 years; 5-7 years
15
Q
describe the pathway of the heartworms in the heart:
A
Worms always start at the lobar arteries and main pulmonary artery and then the worms back up into the right ventricle and right atrium and eventually in the vena cava which is called CAVAL SYNDROME
16
Q
What is the DH for heartworms? What is the IH?
A
DH is canids and IH is mosquitos (Microfilariae and L1, L2, L3 stages)
17
Q
T/F the HWT is antigen based and is nearly 100% specific
A
T
18
Q
Acanthocheiolonema reconditumae has what kind of tail? Is it pathogenic?
A
Curved tail and no, not pathogenic
19
Q
proheart is what drug?
A
moxidectin slow released over 6-12 months
20
Q
3-2-1 rule ISS
A
present after 3 months
more than 2 cm size
still growing after1 month
21
Q
feline vaccine placement
A
FeLV L rear, FVRCP right front, RV right rear
22
Q
when will canine teeth all be present in kittens (at what age)?
A
12 weeks and older
23
Q
HeartGard is what drugs? What does it tx?
A
Ivermectin and Pyrantel and treats HW, hooks and rounds
24
Q
revolution is what type of drug? What does it tx?
A
Selamectin
Hw, hooks, rounds, fleas, ear mites, and sacroptic mange. Not good against ticks
BUT revolution PLUS has sarolaner which DOES DO TICKS
25
advantage multi is what drugs? What does it Tx?
Imicloclaprid and moxidectin
treats HW, hooks, rounds, whips, fleas, sarcoptic mange
26
what are some hallmark signs of canine atopic dermatitis??
Pruritus on feet, ventrum, face and extremities
Tx includes Apoquel, Cytopoint, Immunotherapies, and topicals
27
Ehrlichia ewingii
attacks the granulocytes, Lone star tick
Symptoms include anorexia, joint pain, CNS, chronic kidney disease and thrombocytopenia, rarely is fatal though
28
E. canis
Brown dog tick, attacks monocytes, lymph nodes increased, lameness, thrombocytopenia, epistaxis, petechia, uveitis, organomegaly, anemia, proteinuria, hyperglobulinemia
29
Parvo is ____ ____ virus that is fecal oral transmission and targets intestinal crypts and other rapidly dividing cells, lymphoid tissues, leukopenia, and neutropenia
non-enveloped
30
Parvo test is _____ test
antigen test
31
sites for bone marrow collection in the dog--
Dorsal iliac crest, femoral shaft, humeral shaft, costochondral junction, sternum
32
what is in the canine D2AP vaccine?
Distemper, adenovirus with 2 strains, parainfluenza, and parvovirus
can be done as early as 6 weeks and booster every 3-4 weeks til 16 weeks and 20 weeks in black and tan dogs
33
lepto can be given as early as ___ weeks
12 weeks, no sooner
34
what does low eye pressures indicate? What does high eye pressures indicate?
Low= uveitis, rupture
High= degenerative changes, glaucoma, chronic uveitis
35
What does the PLR response test?
Evaluates the cranial nerve 2 (optic) and the cranial nerve 3 (oculomotor)
36
What does the PLR response test?
Evaluates the cranial nerve 2 (optic) and the cranial nerve 3 (oculomotor)
37
menance response tests what nerves?
it is a learned response after about 14 wks of age and tests the visual stimulus CN 2 (optic) and CN 7 (facial)
38
Periodontal disease stages 2-4
Stage 2- 25% attachment loss and minor pocketing
Stage 3- 25-50% attachment loss and teeth being slightly mobile
Stage 4- more than 50% loss with gingival recession and severe pocketing and advanced tooth mobility
39
FIV is an __ test whereas FeLV is an ____ test
Antibody; antigen
40
what are the viruses included in the FVRCP vaccine in cats?
Herpesvirus, calcivirus, parvovirus (panleukopenia)
41
IN bord can be given to dogs more than ____ age
3 weeks of age
42
what are the MLV vaccines?
D2AP, Bordetella, FVRCP
43
what are the killed vaccines?
RV, lepto, lyme, CIV, FeLV, FIV
44
What strains of flu does CIV have in it?
H3N8 and H3N2
45
retest FeLV after ___ days
60 days
46
lyme disease is spread by what tick
Ixodes ticks
47
Hepatozoonosis is caused by which type of tick?
gulf coast tick/amblyomma tick
48
Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by which tick?
Dermacentor tick
49
Ehrlichia is caused by what type of tick?
Lone star tick aka Amblyomma americanum
50
What is the normal flora, long or short demodex?
Longer demodex is part of normal flora
51
what will we see on CBC with infection of Ehrlichia
thrombocytopenia, nonregenerative anemia, leukopenia, lymphocytosis, morulae on the platelets
52
chemistry of a dog with an active Ehrlichia infection:
Hyperglobulinemia, hypoalbuminemia, hyperproteinemia, elevated hepatic/renal enzymes
53
when would USG be decreased?
renal failure, ketoacidosis (DKA), Addison's disease
54
Ketones in urine can be caused by...
DM, starvation, increased proteins, decreased carbs, and some prescription drugs
55
Bilirubinuria increases with...
extrahepatic biliary obstruction
56
more than ___ WBC/HPF in urine is abnormal
5
57
what is the gold standard in evaluating animals' responses to anemia?
reticulocyte count
58
what do we see with stress leukograms?
Segments and monocytes are increased and lymphocytes and eosinophils are decreased
SMILED
59
what is the ammonia level that is acceptable?
< 2ppm
60
What is the standard of care in regards of time spent with animals?
15 min/day for care
6 min/day for feeding
9min day for animal cleaning
per animal
61
what space is needed for group housing cats? Dogs?
Cats need at least 18 sqft with no more than 10-12 cats and dogs need that much space with no more than 4-6 dogs
62
when transporting shelter animals...
they need to be let out every 4-6 hours and fed once daily for adults and more frequently if less than 6 months old
63
___% of shelter space is to be used for isolation
10%
64
___-____ air exchanges needed per hour
10-20
65
Cats should have at least ___ cubic feet per cat and more than ____ feet areas from their resting area to the litter box, food, and water bowls
30 cubic feet; 2 feet
66
what is the required humidity for animal shelters? What about temperatures?
humidity should be about 30-70% and temp should be about 70-80 degrees F
67
More than ___ bilirubin means p is icteric
2
68
treatment of UTI with rods with _____
amoxi
69
will clav tx pseudomonas?
nope
70
Intraosseous administration in birds goes where?
Ulna or tibiotarsus
71
what are the anatomical gutters/retractors when there is a dropped pedicle?
Right gutter= duodenum and pancreas as retractors
left gutter= colon is the retractor
Uterine body's retractor is the bladder
72
what teeth in cats are the most likely to be resorptive?
premolars
73
stress leukogram might mean the animal has this disease...
cushings
74
SDMA measures ___% loss of kidney function and USG measures __% and azotemia measures __% loss therefore ______ is better at detecting early on kidney disease
SDMA measures 25% loss kidney function; USG measures 66% loss and azotemia measures 75% loss
75
urine protein creatitine ratio:
measures protein in urine against creatinine because creatinine is lost at a constant rate through the kidneys
76
normal urine protein creatinine ratio in dogs is less than ____ and is less than ___ in cats
less than 0.5 in dogs and less than 0.4 in cats
77
dog USG should be ____; cat USG should be ____
dog USG is more 1.030 and cats is more than 1.035
78
hyperisosthenuria is more than _____ and hypo is less than ____
more than 1.045 and hypo is less than 1.007
79
5 isoenzymes of ALP
Bone, intestines, kidney, liver, placenta, endogenous, and exogenous enzymes
80
____is more specific for liver (trauma enzyme) and is a leakage enzyme
ALT
81
What do we see on labwork with liver failure?
decreased glucose, BUN and albumin and cholesterol
normal to increased globulins and Total bilirubin and normal to decreased total proteins
82
what are 2 liver function tests?
Ammonia tolerance tests and bile acids assay
83
what interferes with bile acid tests?
bilirubin
84
what is treatment for too much ammonia?
Lactulose enema or flumazenil
85
What abx crosses the BBB (there are 3 of them)
Fluoroquinolones, sulfas, and chloramphenicol
86
talk me through HW treatment in dogs-
1 month doxy and macrocyclic lactones and 3 doses of melarsomine injection
1 dose of pred and 2nd dose of injection 30 days later with preventative and pred then 3rd injection 24 hours later
87
HW testing protocols
If less than 6 months just start prevent and if more than 6 months old do HW antigen test and microfilaria screening and then if neg start the prevent and retest in 6 months
Antigen test yearly thereafter
88
T/F Melarsomine dichloride is a safe drug
false
89
T/F macrocyclic lactones target microfilaria and are safe
true
89
D2AP can be given as early as ___ weeks
6 weeks
90
Lepto can be given as early as ___ weeks
8 weeks
91
lyme vaccine can be given as early as ____ weeks
8 weeks
92
Influenza vaccine can be given as early as ___ weeks
6 weeks
93
bordetella can be given as early as ____ weeks
3 weeks if using intranasal
94
what usually causes symmetrical vs non symmetrical alopecia?
Symmetrical alopecia is systemic endocrine disorders (cushings), autoimmune (pemphigus), allergies
Asymmetrical alopecia is usually external disease, parasites, infection, contact allergens, neoplasia, etc.
95
what is the half life of ALT and AST in dogs? cats?
dogs it is 60-72 hours
in cats it is 6 hours
96
Atopic dermatitis
- type of hypersensitivity?
Type 1
- IgE mediated
- allergic rxn
97
When should intradermal testing and allergy therapy be recommended for atopic dermatitis?
Clinical signs > 3-4 mo
Seasons becoming longer
Worsening signs
98
Apoquel
- indications for use?
- MOA?
- dosing?
Control of pruritus from allergic dermatitis or atopic dermatitis
Selective Janus Kinase inhibitor
0.4-0.6 mg/kg Q12 for 14 days, then Q24
Dogs only, > 12 mo old
99
most common maximum age of onset for atopic dermatitis
3 years
100
minimum age for use of apoquel
1 year old
101
in cases of food allergy, cross-reactivity occurs when homology reaches ___
70%
102
guinea pigs require dietary supplementation with ___
vitamin C
103
most common urolith in guinea pigs
calcium carbonate
104
what do tyrosine crystals in urine suggest?
liver disease in dogs
105
what do ammonium biurate crystals in urine suggest?
PSS
106
what do cystine crystals in urine suggest?
altered protein metabolism
107
what do oxalate crystals in urine suggest?
calcium oxalate monohydrate--> ethylene glycol toxicity
108
high or lower pH with high protein diets
lower pH (more acidic)
109
dalmatians and bullies are predisposed to _____ crystals
urate
110
bad chronic cutaneous infection skin disease in dogs... what drug regime to know...
use steroids for like one week tapered EOD at lowest possible dose AND abx that goes past the time of d/c the steroid so the body will not rebound as bad
111
what drug is Depo-Medrol infection???
methylprednisone acetate
beware of making p cushinoid with chronic use
112
Atopica
use for itchy dogs and cats
Calcineurin inhibitor, inhibits IL-2 formation and inhibits T cell immunity (like apoquel), immunosuppressant
Inhibits mast cell degranulation, histamine release and prostaglandin release and eosinophil production
can combine with ketoconazole to decrease dose
(we do not use cyclosporin before MCT removal tho because expensive, delayed onset, and not as good as antihistamine at inhibiting MCT degranulation)
113
do not use Apoquel at BID dose for more than __ weeks
2 weeks
114
T/F Avoid vaccinating p on Apoquel because they will not mount the immune response
False
