Inherited Disease Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

Pathological variants of which genes are associated with breast cancer

A

BRCA1
BRCA2
TP 53 (rare)
All tumour suppressor genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

oncogene

A

Mutated derivative of proto-oncogene

‘Gain of function mutation’-dominant manner at cell level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A female with a BRCA 1 or BRCA 2 mutation is a higher risk of which cancers?

A

Breast & Ovarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which BRCA mutation gives the highest risk of Breast Cancer for females?

A

BRCA1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Males with which BRCA mutation are at increased risk of prostate cancer?

A

BRCA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

BRCA 1 2 mutations are associated with increased risk of which cancers?

A

Breast, Ovarian, Pancreatic, Prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Clinical indication of Breast cancer; you should be referred for further assessment if you have: (6 criteria)

A
  • one close relative who has had breast cancer before the age of 40
  • two or more close relatives who have had breast cancer
  • close relatives who have had breast cancer and others who have had ovarian cancer
  • one close relative who has had breast cancer in both breasts (bilateral breast cancer)
  • a male relative who has had breast cancer
  • Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Transcription

A

DNA copied to mRNA by RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Translation

A

process in which ribosomes in the cytoplasm or ER synthesize proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Codon

A

triplet nucleotides, 64 of these encode 20 amino acids (3 exceptions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Polymorphism

A

Change in triplet code results in same amino acid production
UAU to UAC = Tyr
(conservative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mutation

A

Change in triplet code results in different amino acid production
UAU to UAG = STOP
(truncating)

UAU to UUC = Phe
(non-conservative substitution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Expressivity

A

Degree to which a phenotype is expressed in individuals with the same geneotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MEN2

A
Autosomal dominant 
Medullary Thyroid carcinoma
Phaeochromocytoma
RET gene mutation
MEN2A represents 90%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MEN2

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MEN2 mutation

A

example of mutation in oncogene (gain of function)

Medullary Thyroid carcinoma, Phaeochromocytoma (benign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Familial cancers involving tumour suppressor genes

A

Retinoblastoma- RB1
Li-Fraumeni syndrome (brain tumours, sarcomas, leukemia)-TP53
Familial adenomatous polyposis-APC

Breast and/or ovarian cancer-BRCA1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Colon Cancer Mutator pathway

A

Lynch Syndrome- MSH2, MLH1
<100 adenomas
High colorectal cancer risk
High endometrial cancer risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Colon Cancer Suppressor pathway

A

FAP- APC gene
Classical-1000s of colonic adenomas
95% penetrant by 35
Malignancy risk ~100%

20
Q

Gardeners Syndrome

A
FAP plus
Osteomas
Soft tissue tumours:
 Sebaceous cysts
 Fibromas
 Desmoid tumours
21
Q

Germline Mutation

A

Affects all cells and can be passed on-responsible for hereditary cancers

22
Q

Somatic mutation

A

acquired genetic changes- only affects cells where mutation occurs and their direct offspring Responsible for sporadic cancer development

23
Q

Amsterdam Criteria

A

identifies families in which Lynch syndrome is likely

3 colorectal tumours
2 generations
1 diagnosed <50

24
Q

Lynch syndrome management

A

Surveillance
Chemoprophylaxis-Aspirin
Surgical prophylaxis
Family cascade management

25
CHARGE Syndrome
``` Coloboma of the eye Heart defects Atresia of choanae Retardation of Growth and Development Genital and Urinary Tract abnormalities Ear abnormalities and hearing loss ```
26
Fetal Valporate Syndrome facial features
``` Tall forehead medial eyebrow deficiency flat nasal bridge broad nasal root Shallow philtrum Long upper lip thin vermillion border ```
27
Aneuploidy
An abnormal number of chromsomes
28
Viable autosomal trisomies (3)
21(Down Syndrome) 13 (Patau syndrome) 18 (Edward syndrome)
29
Only viable monosomy
45,X Turners syndrome
30
Balanced Rearrangement
No loss or gain of genetic material Reciprocal translocation, Inversion, Insertion Requires karyotype to detect
31
Unbalanced
Deletion Duplication Will be detected by microarray
32
Presentation of Turners Syndrome
45, X – 98% conceptions end in miscarriage 75% loss of X or Y in paternal meiosis Presents at all ages Prenatal ↑NT or generalised oedema, hypoplastic aortic arch Neonates neck webbing puffy hands and feet Children short stature Adolescents pubertal arrest, amenorrhoea
33
Fluorescent In situ Hybridisation (FISH)
White cell culture as for G banded karyotype analysis Metaphase spread Uses DNA probes carrying a fluorescent label which hybridise specifically to a known chromosome region Used to detects submicroscopic deletions Used to detect chromosome rearrangements of relatively large DNA sequences Requires prior knowledge of chromosome location of variant of interest in this you glue down the chromosome and the probe is added which binds
34
How is X gene expression controlled
XIST functional RNA expression 'turns off' that X chromosome and results in variation in phenotype of carriers with X linked conditions- Skewed X inactivation
35
What if the XIST RNA region is methylated?
The XIST RNA is not expressed and that X is active
36
Lyonisation
The activation or inactivation of X via the XIST RNA
37
Paraganglioma
Imprinted inherited from paternal allele via dominant pattern SDHD
38
Unmethylated alleles (germline)
Are active and expressed when inherited-imprinting
39
Methylated alleles (germline)
Are hidden and not expressed even though person can be a carrier of a dominant condition because during oogenesis/spermatogenesis methylation and demethylation occur to match with maternally/paternally derived allele type-imprinting
40
Somatic imprinting
Random hypermethylation of the genes Eg Colon Cancer;of the promoter of MLH1 (inactivates it)results in mutator pathway tumour phenotype, looks like Lynch syndrome but tumours acquire the BRAF V600E driver mutation
41
Karyotype
Displays all of persons chromosomes and can identify the number, sex type, deletions, duplication, translocation, inversion and derivatives
42
Array Comparative Genomic Hybridisation (aCGH)
Microarray-looking at copy number variants- doesn't require prior knowledge of chromosomal location of variants Glue down the probe and add in DNA(labelled with dye) Uses competitive hybridisation between control (red) and test DNA (Green)- Yellow indicates equal amounts of both, red means there is deletion in the test, and green means there are duplication's
43
DNA sequencing
Single base changes to whole genome
44
Downs Syndrome
``` Flat facial profile epicanthal fold CHD duodenal atresia Brushfield spots on iris Single palmar crease Sandal Gap Cognitive impairment ```
45
Penetrance
in genetics is the proportion of individuals carrying a particular variant (or allele) of a gene (the genotype) that also express an associated trait (the phenotype)