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Pharmacology Test Two > Inotropes, Antiarrhythmics, B-blockers > Flashcards

Inotropes, Antiarrhythmics, B-blockers Flashcards

(92 cards)

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1
Q

What drug causes side effect- pulmonary fibrosis

A

Amiodarone

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2
Q

Side effect of carvedilol

A

Vasodilation

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3
Q

What drug causes lupus erythematosis

A

procainimide

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4
Q

What precautions should be taken in dosing digoxin

A

fat dogs and dogs with ascites (calculate on lean body weight), dogs with renal disease, cats (half life variable)

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5
Q

How does digoxin function as an antiarrhythmic

A

vagal tone to prolong conduction time and refractory period

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6
Q

What drug class should be used for supraventricular tachyarrhythmias (a. fib)

A

B-blockers

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7
Q

What drug should be used for suppressing atrial tachyarrhythmias, including atrial tachycardia and acute atrial fibrillation (but not chronic)

A

Procainimide

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8
Q

What kind of drug is quinidine

A

1A

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9
Q

What is the MOA of synthetic catecholamines

A

Stimulate B1 adrenoreceptors

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10
Q

What are the side effects of lidocaine

A

CNS signs in cats and horses, GI

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11
Q

Contraindications- procainimide

A

Bradycardia- butless than quinidine

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12
Q

What class of drugs treats SVTs

A

B blockers

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13
Q

MOA of 1C

A

QRS widening via his-purkinje, shortening of AP only in purkinje leading to heterogeneic effects

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14
Q

What is the bioavailability of oral propanolol

A

2-20% due to first pass liver metabolism

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15
Q

Atenolol- type

A

Selective B1 blocker

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16
Q

What is dilatazem

A

Clas IV- Ca blocker

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17
Q

Carvedilol- type

A

Non-selective B-blocker

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18
Q

What drug should be used in patients with systolic myocardial pump failure and atrial fibrillation, DCM

A

Cardiac glycosides (digoxin)

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19
Q

What drug should be used in ventricular tachyarrhythmias from ischemic myopathy

A

Lidocaine

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20
Q

What are the side effects of amiodarone

A

Pulmonary fibrosis, lots of others : CNS, T4, GI

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21
Q

What class is amiodarone

A

Class III with activity from all other classes as well

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22
Q

Effects of amiodarone-

A

Increased refractory period of ALL cardiac tissue

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23
Q

What drug is used most in a.fib in horses

A

Quinidine

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24
Q

Contraindications- quinidine

A

Bradycardia, caution in CHF due to -ino

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25
What drug is an inodilator?
Pimobendan
26
What is the route for pimobendan
Oral, but rapid!
27
Name a calcium sensitizing drug
Pimobenden
28
What drug should be used to decrease ventricular response in a. fib and SVTs
Propranolol
29
What are the toxicities of digoxin
Cardiac toxicity when 60-70% of pumps blocked- HR changes CNS signs from effect on CRTZ - vomiting Monitor serum 1 week after starting, 6-8 hours post pill
30
What condition might carvediol be helpful in
CHF
31
What effect does pimobenden have?
calcium sensitizing +ino plus vasodilation "inodilator"
32
What are the classes of inotropes
Cardiac glycosides B-adrenergic agonists Phosphodiesterase inhibitors Calcium sensitizing
33
Name a cardiac glycoside
Digoxin
34
What should be used in Boxers with RV cardiomyopathy
Sotalol
35
What class of drug is propanolol
Non-selective beta blocker
36
Where are B1 and B2 receptors
B1 - cardiac mm. B2- bronchial and vascular
37
What is the most commonly used class II and its route
Atenolol, Iv and po
38
What are the costs of +ino
Increased myocardial oxygen consumption leading to ischemia, generation of malignant arrhythmias
39
Describe effects of low and high dose dopamine, name the receptors affected
Low- vasodilation (mostly renal) DA receptors High- +ino B1 receptors Very high - vasoconstriction - a-receptors
40
What are the therapeutic targets of arrhythmia drugs
Reduce slope of depolarization, reduce Ca influx,
41
MOA- B-blocker
Counter sympathetic stimulation, change conduction properties of SA and AV node, decrease automaticity
42
When do DADs occur
After the repolarization (phase 4)
43
MOA- phosphodiesterase inhibitors
Inhibits cAMP breakdown
44
What species will not respond to lidocaine (name the condition as well)
Horses with ventricular tachyarrhythmias
45
Advantage of procainimide
Less autonomic effects and less ventricular response as quinidine, less contraindication to bradycardias
46
What do class 1 drugs depend on
K concentration - low reduces efficacy, high potentiates
47
Excretion of digoxin
Kidneys, unchanged
48
MOA- 1A
Inhibit fast Na involved in phase 0, prolong phase 3, depress Na in phase 4- Decreased automaticity
49
Sotalol- type
K-channel (class III) with reverse use dependence
50
Result of class I drugs
Decrease in phase 0 of the AP, decrease in slope of phase 4
51
Atenolol- condition treated
SVTs or a. fib
52
MOA- calcium sensitizing agents
Increases affinity of troponin C for Ca during sys/dia to sensitize contractile apparatus to the existing Ca level
53
Esmolol- type
Selective B1 B-blocker
54
What drug should be given for dogs with DCM and CHF
Pimobendan
55
Why is propranolol still effective at long intervals
Despite the fact that it has a 2 hour half life, activity of its metabolites and protein bound nature help it persist
56
What kind of drug is lidocaine
1B
57
What is the mechanism of class III
K-blockers - decreased K influx at repolarization phase 4 to increase refractory period
58
What is the effect of class 1B
Decreased Na of 0, shorten AP- no effect on atrial arrhythmias
59
What is dobutamine
Synthetic analog of dopamine
60
Why might a dog on digoxin vomit
Toxicity associated with CRTZ stimuation or parasympathomimetic effects
61
What are the relative durations of B blockers
A \> P \> E (atenolol, propranolol, esmolol)
62
What is the route for synthetic catecholamines
CRI
63
What is the MOA for cardiac glycosides (name one)
Direct stim of vagal nuclei- Inhibition of Na/K ATPase pump - increased intracell Na which gets exchanged for Ca -- increased force of contractility (digoxin)
64
What should be used in emergency SVTs
Esmolol
65
Advantage of atenolol
Less frequent administration needed
66
PKs of amiodarone
Moderate absorb orally, slow elim, strong bind to adipose, - effects delayed several weeks even with loading
67
Bblocker effect on AV and SA
Decrease AV conduction, decrease SA discharge
68
Interactions- quinidine
Digoxin- decreased excretion
69
What is the main effect of dobutamine
B1, better for patients with profound pump failure
70
What is a benefit of calcium sensitizing agents
Enhance contractility without increasing O2 consumption/work - less chance of arrhythmia development
71
Positive inotropes do what
Increase contractility
72
What drug should be used to treat arrhythmias in cats with hyperthyroidism
Propranolol
73
What is a contraindication of lidocaine
Bradyarrhythmias
74
What kind of drug is procainimide
1A
75
Name a synthetic catecholamines
Dopamine (endogenous precursor of NE)
76
What type of drug is dobutamine
synthetic catecholamine
77
What does inotropy mean
Contraction
78
What mechanism is most used to increase contractility
Increasing Ca for more binding sites available for actin-myosin interaction
79
Side effect - propranolol
Bronchoconstriction, -ino
80
What does amlodipine treat
Hypertension via vasodilation
81
When do EADs occur
Phase 2 and 3 of action potential
82
What does dilatazem treat
SVT via AV node only, rate control in a. fib
83
What condition should mexiletine be used for and with what
Venricular arrhythmias with a b-blocker or class III
84
Sotalol- uses
Boxers with RV cardiomyopathy, refractory VT, SVTs
85
Propranolol- BBB?
Yes
86
What is an advantage of Atenolol
Less respiratory side effects
87
Contras- propranolol
DCM (potential -ino), bradyarrs, conduction disturbances
88
Side effects- quinidine
hypotension, ventricular arrhythmias, -ino, GI, neuro signs, horses: facial edema, laminitis, D and colic
89
What is the action of class III
Prolonged QT interval
90
What is the MOA of Class IV
Ca blocker- L-type (slow) channels in pacemakers during phase 0, for decreased CA- prolonged refractory period, depolarization
91
What are the classes of antiarrhythmias
No Body Kills Cats 1- Na channel blockers 2- Beta blockers 3- K channel blockers 4- Ca channel blockers
92
Decribe re=entry
Premature beats due to lack of termination of the rhythm

Pharmacology Test Two (6 decks)

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