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inservice rando knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

what are adjuvant RT regimens for skin cancer?

A

50Gy/20fxs 60Gy/30fxs

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2
Q

on GOG 33, what was the risk of pelvic lymph node involvement for grade 1 tumors involving the inner third vs. outer third of the myometrium?

A

3% vs. 11%

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3
Q

what is the most common histology for male urethral cancers?

A

squamous cell (80%)

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4
Q

what are the doses for neuroblastoma status post GTR and for gross residual tumor

A

21.6Gy if GTR 36Gy if gross residual

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5
Q

what are the IPI criteria for advanced stage Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

ALL SHAM Age > 45 Leukocytosis > 15 Lymphopenia Stage IV Hgb < 10.5 Albumin < 4 Male

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6
Q

Per NCCN, what total dose of RT is recommended with concurrent chemo for Ib2 cervical cancer?

A

>85Gy

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7
Q

what is the recommended dose for ALL patients who have persistent testicular disease after induction chemo?

A

24Gy

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8
Q

What is the MOST appropriate treatment of a 55-year-old patient with diffuse superficial transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder that has recurred after transurethral resection of the bladder tumor (TURBT) and intravesical BCG?

A

cystectomy

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9
Q

what constitutes T3b renal cell carcinoma?

A

tumor extending into vena cava below the diaphragm (does not invade wall of vena cava cuz that’s T3c)

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10
Q

what is the MOA of exemestane?

A

steroidal aromatase inhibitor

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11
Q

what translocation is associated with resistance to H. pylori eradication in gastric MALT?

A

t(11;18)

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12
Q

According to the 7th edition AJCC staging manual, penile cancer involving bilateral inguinal lymph nodes is staged as:

A

N2 (multiple ipsilateral nodes or bilateral nodes)

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13
Q

what criteria are used to define active/symptomatic myeloma?

A

CRABC - elevated calciumR - renal insufficiencyA - anemiaB - bone lesions

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14
Q

test for continuous independent variable and continuous dependent variable

A

regression

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15
Q

What was the involved field radiation therapy dose in Gy used for nodal sites in complete response in EORTC trial 20884 (Aleman et. al. New England Journal of Medicine, 2003) in patients with stage III or IV Hodgkin lymphoma after MOPP-ABV

A

24Gy

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16
Q

what is the expansion for APBI with interstitial and intracavitary/balloon brachytherapy?

A

interstitial - 1.5cm intracavitary - 1cm

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17
Q

what is the CTV expansion and dose for APBI using EBRT?

A

1.5cm, 38.5Gy (+1cm for PTV)

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18
Q

risk factors for CNS involvement in ALL

A

mature B-cell immunophenotypeT-cell immunophenotypehigh LOH

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19
Q

What is the expected 2-year locoregional freedom from progression (FFP) rate following IMRT–based chemoRT for nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

90%

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20
Q

what chemo is used up front for T-cell ALL

A

intrathecal MTX

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21
Q

After complete resection for locally advanced rectal cancer, the MOST common site for local recurrence is the:

A

presacral space

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22
Q

what constitutes RPA class 1 and class 3?

A

class 1 - KPS>70+, age <65 class 3 - KPS<70

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23
Q

what is the preferred doublet chemotherapy for unresectable mesothelioma?

A

cisplatin / pemetrexed (40% response rate)

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24
Q

what RT dose causes ovarian failure in a 30 year old?

A

14Gy for 30yo(18-20Gy from birth to 10yrs)

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25
Q

what constitutes M1 cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?

A

visceral involvement

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26
Q

in the EORTC trial of PCI for patients with ES-SCLC, what was the risk of brain mets at 1 year with and without PCI?

A

15% vs. 40%, survival improved from 12 weeks to 14.7 weeks

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27
Q

The BC2001 (James et. al., NEJM 2012) study was a phase III trial that randomized patients with muscle invasive bladder cancer between chemoradiotherapy versus radiotherapy alone. What is the locoregional disease free survival at 2 years in patients who underwent chemoradiotherapy?

A

67%

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28
Q

MOA for nivolumab, pembrolizumab, and ipilimumab

A

nivolumab: anti-PD-1 antibody pembrolizumab: anti-PD-L1 antibody ipilimumab: CTLA-4 antibody

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29
Q

what is the histologic feature of retinoblastoma?

A

Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes

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30
Q

criteria for stage III Wilms

A

BSSLURPP: Biopsy Spillage Subtotal resection Lymph nodes Unresectable Rupture Peritoneal implants Piecemeal resection

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31
Q

what is the treatment paradigm for high risk neuroblastoma?

A

Induction: induction chemotherapy followed by primary tumor resection Consolidation: myeloablative chemotherapy with autologous stem cell transplant and consolidative radiation Post-consolidation: immunotherapy and cytokines plus isotretinoin.

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32
Q

What criteria constitute International Prognostic Factors for advanced Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Stage IV, male sex, age >45serum albumin <4 g/dl, hemoglobin <10.5 g/dl, lymphocyte count <600/mm3

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33
Q

What CSF tumor marker levels are consistent with non-metastatic CNS pure germinoma?

A

normal AFT, normal or slightly elevated bHCG (<50)

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34
Q

The yield of PET/CT scan in detecting a primary cancer for patients presenting with cervical lymph node metastasis of unknown origin has been shown to be approximately:

A

30% per DAHANCA 13

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35
Q

Following RT for a solitary plasmacytoma, how often is skeletal survey obtained?

A

skeletal survey every 9-12 months

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36
Q

what are the 4 subsites of the nasal cavity?

A

septum, floor, lateral wall, vestibule

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37
Q

what are the 5 sections of the male urethra?

A

glandular, penile, bulbous, membranous, prostatic(anterior urethra - glandular/penile/bulbous)(posterior urethra - membranous/prostatic)

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38
Q

what dose rates define HDR and LDR brachytherapy?

A

LDR 0.4-2Gy/hrHDR >12Gy/hr

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39
Q

what is the rate of distant failure for surgically resected gallbladder cancer vs. hilar cholangiocarcinoma vs. intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma?

A

gallbladder - 85% hilar cholangio - 40% intrahepatic cholangio - 25%

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40
Q

The risk of vaginal recurrence at 5 years for patients randomized to vaginal brachytherapy in PORTEC-2 (Nout) was:

A

1.8% for brachy, 1.6% for EBRT

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41
Q

what 2 mutations are common in follicular lymphoma?

A

t(14;18) and BCL2

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42
Q

what was the surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy used in the CLASSIC trial?

A

D2 gastrectomyadjuvant oxaliplatin/capecitabine

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43
Q

What was the strongest predictor for local recurrence for DCIS treated by excision without radiation on the ECOG E5194 study at 5 years?

A

grade

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44
Q

what is the RT dose for MALT (gastric and orbit)?

A

30Gy/15fxs

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45
Q

What is an appropriate radiation dose for a 15-year-old boy with stage IIB Hodgkin lymphoma of the neck and mediastinum without bulky disease is to be treated with involved-field radiation therapy after a complete response to four cycles of chemotherapy?

A

21Gy

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46
Q

How many cases of SCLC are diagnosed annually in the US and what percentage of patients present with extensive stage disease?

A

35,000 65% present with extensive stage disease PET results in upstaging in 8%

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47
Q

What is the MOST appropriate dose in Gy for PCI in a 10-year-old boy with high risk acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and no evidence of central nervous system involvement?

A

18Gy (current protocol uses 12Gy so be wary) Current protocol AALL0434: Int and high risk: 12 Gy in 1.5 Gy per fx CNS 3: 18 Gy in 1.8 Gy per fx CNS1-2, low risk: no RT (get prednisone) residual testicular disease after chemo: 24 Gy CN3 with overt cranial nerve involvement, symptoms: give 24 Gy upfront before chemo

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48
Q

what were the inclusion criteria for SWOG 8794 (prostatectomy +/- adjuvant RT)?

A

SVI, ECE, positive margin

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49
Q

what is the T stage for NSCLC with visceral pleural invasion?

A

T2a

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50
Q

What ratio of positive ipsilateral groin nodes to total resected predicts contralateral groin metastasis in vulvar cancer?

A

20%

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51
Q

what IHC stains help distinguish mesothelioma from adenocarcinoma NSCLC?

A

calretinin, thrombomodulin

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52
Q

what is the typical dose for paraganglioma? what is the local control rate with definitive radiation?

A

45Gy, 90%

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53
Q

what vertebral bodies correspond with the approximate levels of the celiac axis, SMA, and IMA?

A

celiac - T12SMA - L1IMA - L3

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54
Q

What chromosomal deletion in a patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia is associated with an unfavorable prognosis?

A

17p

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55
Q

what is the N stage for renal cell carcinoma with 6 positive lymph nodes?

A

N1 (there is no N2)

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56
Q

Approximately what percentage of penile cancer is positive for HPV DNA?

A

80%

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57
Q

what T stage is a renal cell carcinoma that extends beyond Gerota’s fascia?

A

T4

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58
Q

On the Intergroup Rhabdomyosarcoma Study IV, the 3 year FFS of patients with metastatic embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma involving 2 or fewer metastatic sites was:

A

40% for embryonal <3 sites 25% for embryonal 3+ sites 20% for non-embryonal <3 sites 5% for non-embryonal 3+ sites

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59
Q

what constitutes T2 cholangiocarcinoma of the distal bile duct?

A

invasion beyond the wall of the bile duct

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60
Q

On ECOG 5194 (DCIS +/- RT), what 2 factors indicated a higher risk of ipsilateral breast event?

A

nuclear grade, patient age

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61
Q

what is the histologic feature of medulloblastoma?

A

Homer-Wright rosettes

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62
Q

What is the overall objective response rate to FOLFIRINOX (5-FU, oxaliplatin, leucovorin, and irinotecan) for patients with metastatic pancreatic cancer?

A

30% survival 11mo vs 6mo with gem alone for stage IV pts

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63
Q

The randomized trial by EORTC and RTOG comparing standard PCI dose to higher-dose in patients with limited-stage SCLC showed the higher dose of PCI:

A

resulted in worse survival and no difference in incidence of brain metastases

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64
Q

what are the criteria for age adjusted IPI?

A

PLS performance status 2+ LDH elevated stage 3-4

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65
Q

What is the 5yr OS for WNT and SHH medulloblastoma?

A

WNT 95% SHH 75%

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66
Q

following bladder preservation treatment, what percentage of long-term survivors will maintain an intact bladder?

A

80%

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67
Q

test for categorical independent variable and categorical dependent variable

A

chi square

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68
Q

What percent of patients with an urothelial carcinoma of the renal pelvis will have an urothelial carcinoma of the bladder?

A

50%

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69
Q

what are the indications for adjuvant radiotherapy for vulvar cancer?

A

close margins (<8mm) LVSI DOI >9mm

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70
Q

what are the adjuvant chemo options for patients with pN2 NSGCT?

A

BEP x 2 cycles or EP x 2 cycles

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71
Q

what chemo showed OS benefit when added adjuvantly to treatment of STS?

A

doxorubicin/ifosfamide (Pervais meta analysis)

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72
Q

what is the most likely diagnosis for a boy with a pineal mass and CSF with elevated bHCG and undetectable AFP?

A

pure germinoma, biopsy not required

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73
Q

what CT phase should be used for treatment planning when treating liver mets or intra-hepatic cholangiocarcinoma?

A

portal venous phase

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74
Q

what percentage of RT plans on Z11 utilized high tangents?

A

50%

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75
Q

factors included in IPI for non-Hodgkins

A

Age, Performance status, LDH, Extranodal sites, Stage

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76
Q

What dose and fractionation should be used for palliative splenic RT for CLL?

A

0.25-1 Gy fractions delivered daily or 2-3 times per week to a total dose of 4-10 Gy

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77
Q

What was the complete pathologic response in GOG 201 a Phase 2 study of concurrent weekly cisplatin and radiation in advanced carcinoma of the vulva?

A

50%

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78
Q

what is the risk of radiographic multi-focal disease at presentation for the following patients with primary CNS lymphoma: immunocompetent immunocompromised AIDS-related

A

immunocompetent - 40% immunocompromised - 70% AIDS-related - 95% (almost all patients have pathological multifocal disease if examined microscopically)

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79
Q

on subgroup analysis of intermediate risk patients on RTOG 9408, what was the 10yr OS improvement with addition of short term ADT?

A

10yr OS improved by 7% (61% vs. 54%)

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80
Q

what constitutes B1 cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?

A

circulating sezary cells >5% of lymphocytes and <1000 sezary cells/uL

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81
Q

What are the systemic therapy options for desmoid tumors?

A

NSAIDs (sulindac or celecoxib), hormonal or biological agents (tamoxifen, toremifene, or low-dose interferon), chemotherapy (methotrexate and vinblastine, doxorubicin-based regimens), and TKIs (imatinib and sorafenib)

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82
Q

what is the risk of secondary cancers in pediatric cancer survivors at age 30?

A

20% including non-melanoma skin cancer 8% excluding non-melanoma skin cancer

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83
Q

what is the treatment paradigm for osteosarcoma?

A

neoadjuvant chemo, surgical resection, adjuvant chemo for 4-6 months (results in long term survival of 60% vs. just 20% with surgery alone)

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84
Q

what is the RT dose for a supratentorial ependymoma status post GTR in a 10 month old?

A

54Gy (for patients under 18mo s/p GTR, all others receive 59.4Gy)

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85
Q

what percentage of Wilm’s tumors have calcifications on imaging?

A

10-15% (calcs are associated with neuroblastoma asshole)

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86
Q

Which tumor most commonly occurs in the anterior mediastinum of adults?

A

thymoma

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87
Q

What is the appropriate dose range for single fraction SRS to a 1.0 cm WHO gr 1 meningioma?

A

12-16Gy

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88
Q

in RTOG 9111, what endpoints were improved with concurrent CRT as compared to sequential CRT?

A

concurrent CRT resulted in superior laryngeal preservation, local control, and locoregional control

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89
Q

what is the 10 year LRR with and without PMRT for patients with stage III breast cancer who have a pCR to neoadjuvant chemotherapy (MDACC)?

A

10yr LRR 33% without PMRT, 7% with PMRT

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90
Q

What is the most common genetic aberration in rhabdoid tumors of the kidney?

A

deletion of chromosome 22q (INI1/hSNF5)

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91
Q

what is the inferior boundary of the retropharyngeal lymphatics?

A

cranial aspect of hyoid bone

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92
Q

what are the 3 most common side effects of cetuximab?

A

acneiform rash, hypomagnesemia, infusion reaction

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93
Q

what is the RT regimen for ATRT in a child younger than 3?

A

50.4Gy to primary site only, no CSI

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94
Q

what structures comprise the CTV for IMRT for IB2 cervical cancer?

A

GTV, cervix, entire uterus, parametrium, upper half of vagina

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95
Q

What was the radiation dose in Gy used in ECOG 1484 (Horning et. al. JCO, 2004) for patients with non-Hodgkin lymphoma in complete response following chemotherapy? What chemo was used?

A

30Gy CHOP x8

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96
Q

what are the absolute contraindications to breast conserving surgery

A

pregnancy diffuse microcalcifications persistent positive margins widespread disease that cannot be removed through a single incision with good cosmesis

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97
Q

what is the hallmark of double hit lymphoma?

A

translocations of cMYC and BCL2

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98
Q

What is the total recommended dose (EBRT + LDR equivalent brachytherapy) for a patient with positive vaginal margins following hysterectomy for endometrial cancer per ABS guidelines (Small 2012)?

A

70-80Gy

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99
Q

For a BRCA1 patient, what is the risk of developing ovarian cancer?

A

20-40% patients are also at risk for fallopian tube cancer

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100
Q

what hormone has the lowest threshold for dysfunction after hypothalamic/pituitary RT?

A

Growth hormone (only requires 18Gy)

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101
Q

A sentinel lymph node biopsy is positive in what proportion of patients with Ductal Carcinoma In Situ (DCIS)?

A

5%

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102
Q

what percentage of multiple myeloma is non-secretory?

A

3%

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103
Q

Following surgery for a large cell carcinoma of the left lung, pathology demonstrated a 2.5 cm primary cancer with negative margins where there were four involved level 11 lymph nodes and 1 AP window lymph node that demonstrated metastatic disease. What is the recommended treatment following surgery?

A

Cisplatin based doublet x 4 cycles followed by mediastinal RT

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104
Q

What is the appropriate sequence for the workup for an occult primary of the head and neck in a patients that presents with a neck mass and has negative flexible laryngoscopy?

A

FNA node, CT neck, PET/CT, EUA/tonsillectomy

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105
Q

where is the motor cortex?

A

precentral gyrus

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106
Q

what were the fibrosis rates on the O’Sullivan STS trial?

A

48% vs. 32% favoring preop

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107
Q

Under the new WHO (2016) grading (grade group) system for prostate cancer, a Gleason pattern of 4+3 would fall under which grade group category?

A

group 3

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108
Q

for postop endometrial cancer, what are the 3 main HDR regimens?

A

6Gy x 5 to surface 4Gy x 6 to surface 7Gy x 3 to 5mm depth

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109
Q

Following RTOG 0617, what is the recommend V30 heart constraint?

A

V30<50

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110
Q

Approximately what percent of Merkel cell cancer is due to the polyomavirus?

A

80%

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111
Q

what is the risk of pelvic lymph node involvement with stage II cervical cancer?

A

30% (rule of 15’s, stage x 15)

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112
Q

WTF is palifermin

A

human keratinocyte growth factor used to reduce severity of mucositis during H&N RT

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113
Q

On RTOG 0933 (hippocampal avoidance) what was the mean relative decline in HVLT-R DR from baseline to 4 months?

A

7% (compared to 30% in historical controls)

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114
Q

what percent of pediatric patients with Hodgkin lymphoma present with stage IV disease?

A

20%

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115
Q

What is the 5-year survival rate for patients with inflammatory breast cancer?

A

40%

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116
Q

What is the most common route of intracranial invasion in a nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

foramen lacerum

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117
Q

what are the biomarker profiles for luminal B breast cancer?

A

ER/PR+, Her2+ER/PR+, Her2-, high Ki-67

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118
Q

What is the FIGO stage of a 4 cm carcinoma of the vulva with 8 mm of stromal invasion confined to the right labia majora and negative lymph nodes?

A

IB

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119
Q

per quantec, what is the risk of symptomatic pneumonitis with lung V20 < 30%?

A

<20%

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120
Q

what is penile bulb D90 constraint per QUANTEC?>

A

D90 < 50Gy (risk of ED <35%)

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121
Q

Per NCCN, what are the indications for bone scan in the setting of prostate cancer?

A

T1 disease with PSA > 20ng/ml,T2 disease with PSA > 10 ng/ml, a Gleason score of < 8, T3 or T4 disease, or symptomatic

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122
Q

what is the histologic feature of medulloblastoma?

A

Homer-Wright rosettes

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123
Q

what percentage of primary CNS lymphoma patients will present with ocular involvement?

A

20%

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124
Q

The overall larynx preservation rate in the Veterans Affairs (VA) Larynx Trial was:

A

64%

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125
Q

What constitutes CNS 2 T-cell ALL?

A

< 5/ L WBCs and cytospin positive for blasts or ≥ 5 μL WBCs

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126
Q

what is rate of pain flair after single fx RT for bone mets?

A

35%

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127
Q

what is the most common site of subependymoma?

A

ventricular system

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128
Q

Per QUANTEC, what is the risk of optic neuropathy with 55-60Gy conventionally-fractionated RT to the optic nerve/chiasm?

A

5%

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129
Q

on Slotman trial for ES-SCLC, what was the benefit in median survival for patients who received PCI?

A

median survival 6.7mo vs. 5.4mo1yr OS 27% vs. 13%

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130
Q

What is the maximum dose constraint in Gy for the spinal cord when SBRT is given in 3 fractions for an early stage lung cancer?

A

18Gy 14Gy for 1fx, 30Gy for 5fxs

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131
Q

what was the treatment paradigm on the NCIC trial for cervical cancer?

A

WP 45 Gy + LDR 35 Gy x 1 or HDR 8 Gy x 3; weekly cisplatin during external beam

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132
Q

criteria for stage III multiple myeloma

A

hemoglobin < 8.5 orcalcium >12 orBence Jones >12g/24hr oradvanced lytic lesions

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133
Q

where do most ependymomas present in adults?

A

spine

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134
Q

sorry dude this is gonna suck…what were the 4 treatment arms in RTOG 9003?

A

standard frac: 70Gy/35fxshyperfrac: 81.6Gy/68fxs BIDaccelerated frac split course: 67.2Gy/42 BID with 2 week break in middleaccelerated frac concomitant boost: 72Gy/42fxs, BID during final 2 weeks

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135
Q

According to the CLASSIC trial, addition of what treatment resulted in improved disease-free survival among patients with gastric cancer?

A

adjuvant capecitabine and oxaliplatin

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136
Q

median survival on Stupp trial for patients with MGMT methylation that received temozolomide and RT

A

23 months

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137
Q

on GOG 37, what was the 2yr local recurrence rate for patients randomized to RT?

A

2yr LRR 5%

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138
Q

What is the rate of clinical radiation pneumonitis in breast cancer patients from comprehensive regional node irradiation that includes the internal mammary lymph node chain?

A

1%

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139
Q

NSABP analysis shows patients with T3N0 breast cancer treated with mastectomy, chemotherapy and no radiation have a 10-year LRR rate of:

A

7%

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140
Q

what is the standard treatment for primary mediastinal large B-cell lymphoma?

A

DA-EPOCH x 6 cycles (chemo alone)

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141
Q

what is the MOA of anastrazole and letrozole?

A

non-steroidal aromatase inhibitors

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142
Q

What is the estimated risk of fracture at 5 years for a vulvar cancer patient if the femoral neck received 50 Gy when treating the inguinal nodes?

A

11%

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143
Q

what is the group stage for T2N3 breast cancer?

A

IIIC

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144
Q

what is the preferred V20 for contralateral lung in treating with hemithoracic IMRT for mesothelioma?

A

V20 < 7%

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145
Q

What is the appropriate stage grouping (AJCC, 7th Ed) for a patient status post R0 resection of a 12 cm high grade sarcoma of the anterior compartment of the thigh?

A

stage III; pT2b cN0M0 G3

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146
Q

what is the adjuvant RT dose for hemangiopericytoma status post GTR?

A

55-60Gy

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147
Q

Which tumor markers can be used as adjunctive studies to assess for disease progression in metastatic breast cancer?

A

CEA, CA 15-3, CA 27.29

148
Q

What was the chemotherapy regimen used in RTOG 91-11 for laryngeal preservation?

A

inductin cisplatin and 5FU x3, concurrent cisplatin x3

149
Q

what is the histologic feature of ependymoma?

A

perivascular psuedorosettes

150
Q

what is the group stage for T2N2b breast cancer?

A

IIIA

151
Q

which subtype of renal cell carcinoma is associated with deletion in chromosome 3p and Von Hippel Lindau disease?

A

clear cell

152
Q

Langerhans cell histiocytosis is associated with what marker?

A

CD1a

153
Q

A posterior hypopharyngeal wall squamous cell carcinoma MOST frequently involves which groups of the nodes?

A

Retropharyngeal, II, III

154
Q

what is the 5 year pelvic control rate for stage I/II SCCa of the mid-vagina treated with RT alone? what about stage III/IV?

A

stage I/II - 85%stage III/IV - 71%

155
Q

what histopathological finding and genetic abberation are associated with AT/RT?

A

negative INI-1 staining, 22q deletion

156
Q

what constitutes FIGO III fallopian tube cancer?

A

peritoneal implants outside of the pelvis (there is no FIGO IV by the way)

157
Q

The rate of laryngeal preservation at 2-years after non-surgical treatment in the Department of Veterans Affairs Laryngeal Cancer Study Group trial (NEJM 1991) was approximately:

A

60%

158
Q

what are the UCSF criteria for liver transplantation for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

1) single tumor <6.5 cm; 2) maximum of 3 total tumors with none >4.5 cm; and 3) cumulative tumor size <8 cm

159
Q

what percentage of CNS germ cell tumors in males occur in the pineal area?

A

60%

160
Q

What length (cm) of vaginal cuff is delineated in the CTV for adjuvant pelvic IMRT for endometrial cancer per consensus guidelines?

A

3cm

161
Q

The 5-year, cause-specific survival for patients with medically inoperable FIGO stage I endometrial carcinomas treated with definitive radiation is approximately:

A

85%

162
Q

what was the rate of pCR and/or minimal residual disease on SWOG 9416 superior sulcus tumor trial?

A

56%

163
Q

what cell surface antigen is targeted by Zevalin (britumomab tiuxetan)?

A

CD20

164
Q

what is the RT dose for NLPHL?

A

30-36Gy (RT alone)

165
Q

mutation associated with GIST?

A

4q

166
Q

what is the CSI dose for a child with persistent CSF involvement after chemotherapy for B-cell ALL?

A

24Gy

167
Q

test for categorical independent variable and continuous dependent variable

A

T-test and ANOVA

168
Q

On RTOG 9408 subgroup analysis of the intermediate risk prostate cancer patients, what was the percent improvement in 10 year overall survival associated with the radiotherapy + hormone arm compared to radiation alone?

A

7%

169
Q

what constitutes T4 cholangiocarcinoma of the distal bile duct?

A

involves celiac axis or SMA

170
Q

what are common RT regimens for Kaposi sarcoma?

A

8-12Gy/1fx or 30Gy/15fxs

171
Q

what was the dose and duration of memantine on RTOG 0614?

A

20mg daily for 24 weeks

172
Q

Per AJCC (7th Ed) involvement of which muscle is considered chest wall invasion in breast cancer?

A

serratus anterior

173
Q

Long-term Hodgkin lymphoma survivors who received radiation therapy during childhood have approximately what chance of developing a treatment-induced cancer?

A

25%

174
Q

for prostate SBRT, what rectal wall constraints are associated with risk of grade 3+ toxicity?

A

V50 < 3cc, less than 35% of the circumference receiving 39Gy

175
Q

what was the path CR rate in NSABP R03 comparing preop vs. postop CRT for rectal cancer?

A

path CR rate 15% (obviously only in preop group)

176
Q

What is the appropriate radiation volume and dose for a child with a right sided stage III Wilms tumor with positive lymph nodes, no spill, and no rupture with diffuse anaplasia?

A

Right flank radiation; 19.8 Gy

177
Q

What is the most common radiation dose for Graves ophthalmopathy?

A

20Gy / 10fxs

178
Q

when should capecitabine be taken when used concurrently with radiation for rectal cancer?

A

1 hour before treatment

179
Q

what percentage of patients with inflammatory breast cancer will present with metastatic disease?

A

25-30%

180
Q

what constitutes T2a renal cell carcinoma

A

7-10cm, confined to kidney

181
Q

invasion of what structures constitutes T4 nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

infratemporal fossa, masticator space, orbit, hypopharynx, cranial nerve, intracranial extension

182
Q

what are doses for cutaneous SCCa >2cm

A

66Gy/33 or 55Gy/20 1.5-2cm margins

183
Q

What is the total dose (Gy) of radiation used to treat a clinical stage I, 2 cm squamous cell carcinoma located in the lateral mid vagina?

A

70-75Gy

184
Q

what triad of symptoms are associated with classic radiation induced liver disease (RILD)?

A

anicteric hepatomegalyasciteselevated alk phos

185
Q

What is the most appropriate radiation target volume for treatment of a 4-year- old boy with a localized anaplastic ependymoma of the posterior fossa with 2 cc of residual tumor?

A

residual tumor and tumor bed

186
Q

what mutation is associated with favorable prognosis in B-cell ALL?

A

t(12;21) - TEL/AML1

187
Q

what were the two treatment arms in RTOG 9512 for T2 glottic cancer?

A

70Gy/35fxs qday vs. 79.2Gy/66fxs BIDno significant difference LC, DFS, or OS

188
Q

what percentage of pediatric ALL patients have t(11;22) mutation?

A

5% (poorer prognosis)

189
Q

what is the 2 year rate of pelvic insufficiency fracture after definitive radiation for early stage cervical cancer?

A

35%

190
Q

what chemotherapy was used in RTOG 9802?

A

PCV - procarbazine/lomustine/vincristine

191
Q

which chemo regimen contains vincristine vs. vinblastine: CHOP and ABVD

A

CHOP - vinCristine AVBD - vinBlastine

192
Q

is the chiasm anterior or posterior to the pituitary stalk?

A

anterior

193
Q

what is the histologic feature of ependymoma?

A

perivascular pseudorosettes

194
Q

What is the TNM stage of a cancer of the female urethra that extends to the vagina and has a 3 cm single LN?

A

T3N2

195
Q

what is the maximum dose constraint for the spinal cord with 3 fraction SBRT?

A

18Gy

196
Q

what are the RT regimens for intracranial NSGCT and pure germinomas?

A

NSGCT - 36Gy CSI, primary boost to 54Gy germinoma - 24Gy WVI, primary boost to 45Gy

197
Q

on PORTEC-1, what was the 3 year OS after salvage radiation for patients who relapsed at the vaginal cuff following observation?

A

3yr OS 73%

198
Q

What is the T stage of a fallopian tube cancer that has pelvic extension with malignant cells in the peritoneal washings?

A

T2c

199
Q

what are the most common breast cancer molecular subtypes associated with BRCA1 and BRCA2?

A

BRCA1 - triple negative / basal subtypeBRCA2 - luminal A/B

200
Q

what is the RT dose for craniopharyngioma?

A

54Gy

201
Q

Burkitt lymphoma mutation

A

t(8;14)

202
Q

According to the CALOR trial, what is the 5-year DFS for patients with ER negative-local-regional breast cancer recurrence who receive chemotherapy?

A

5yr DFS was 67% vs 35% for ER negative patients, for ER positive patients it was 70% vs 69%

203
Q

what percentage of prostate cancer patients present with high risk disease?

A

25%

204
Q

what is the histologic feature of diffuse astrocytoma?

A

microcystic changes

205
Q

what is the group stage for T2N2 anal cancer?

A

stage IIIB

206
Q

what constitutes T2 cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?

A

generalized patches and plaques over >10% of total skin surface

207
Q

RTOG 9804 (DCIS +/- RT) recurrence with and without RT

A

7yr LR 7% without RT and 1% with RT

208
Q

On AHOD 0031, a COG study of patients with intermediate risk Hodgkin disease, recurrences rarely occurred:

A

at new sites of disease there were high rates of failure at primary site (received 21Gy)

209
Q

mutation associated with well differentiated / dedifferentiated liposarcoma?

A

12q amplification (MDM2/CDK4)

210
Q

In the Auperin meta-analysis of limited stage SCLC patients, PCI reduced the 3-year incidence of brain metastases from 58.6% to:

A

33%

211
Q

In the ECOG 1484 (Horning, et al.) trial that studied the use of chemotherapy alone versus chemoradiation therapy for aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma, patients who had a partial response to 8 cycles of CHOP received what dose of involved-field radiation therapy?

A

40Gy

212
Q

Regarding the French multicenter Phase II trial (2014), what is the anticipated grade 2 acute GI toxicity (%) with postoperative 45 Gy pelvic IMRT for Stage I-II endometrial cancer?

A

25%

213
Q

The 5-year overall survival for patients with pyriform sinus cancer treated by either surgical or non-surgical treatment on EORTC phase 3 trial (24891) was approximately:

A

30%

214
Q

most common cancer in children <18 months of age?

A

neuroblastoma

215
Q

In the Veterans Affairs (VA) Larynx Trial, the rate of salvage laryngectomy amongst patients with T4 larynx cancer was:

A

56%

216
Q

where does spinal cord end in an adult?

A

L1/2

217
Q

What was the 10-year distant metastasis-free survival benefit for patients who had stage T3N0M0 prostate cancer and underwent adjuvant radiation therapy following radical prostatectomy versus observation in the SWOG S8794 trial?

A

10%

218
Q

what are radiation regimens for basal cell carcinoma < 2cm?

A

64/32 55/20 50/15 35/5

219
Q

The radiation target volumes used in the randomized clinical trial (Turrisi, et. al.) comparing thoracic radiation of 45 Gy given in once-daily to twice-daily in addition to current chemotherapy for limited-stage SCLC included:

A

primary tumor, ipsilateral hilum, bilateral mediastinum

220
Q

what were the 2 treatment arms in RTOG 8501 Herskovic trial for esophageal cancer?

A

64Gy/32fxs (RT alone) vs. 50Gy/25fxs with concurrent cis/5FU

221
Q

What is the recommended preoperative dose (Gy) of radiation (LDR equivalent) for gross Stage IIB adenocarcinoma of the endometrium?

A

75-80Gy LDR equivalent

222
Q

on RTOG 9811, what was the 5yr OS for patients with T4N+ anal cancer?

A

5yr OS 40%

223
Q

on GOG 33, what was the risk of pelvic lymph node involvement for a grade 1 tumor involving inner 1/3 versus outer 1/3 of the myometrium?

A

inner 1/3 - 3% risk of nodal involvementouter 1/3 - 11% risk

224
Q

male breast cancer is most commonly associated with what mutation?

A

BRCA2

225
Q

what was the local recurrence rate on RTOG 9704?

A

28% overall (25% with gem, 30% with 5FU)

226
Q

in treating with conventional fractionation for NSCLC, what is the appropriate CTV margin for adenocarcinoma and squamous histologies?

A

adeno - 8mmsquamous - 6mm

227
Q

for high risk endometrial cancer, what are the two main options for adjuvant WPRT with brachy boost?

A

WPRT 45Gy, HDR 6Gy x 3 to surfaceWPRT 50.4Gy, HDR 6Gy x 2 to surface

228
Q

what are the CNS doses for T-cell ALL?

A

18Gy if CNS3 12Gy if CNS1/2 and int/high risk

229
Q

what mutations portent a poor prognosis in neuroblastoma

A

n-myc amplificationLOH 1p + 11qdiploid DNAincreased telomerase activity

230
Q

what is the appropriate adjuvant RT field and dose for a child with a 4th ventricular grade III non-metastatic ependymoma status post GTR?

A

RT to resection bed plus margin to 54-59.4Gy in 30-33fxs

231
Q

What was the study design of the SWOG 0809 biliary cancer study published by Ben-Josef et al. (JCO, 2015)?

A

single arm phase II study of gemcitabine and capecitabine chemotherapy plus chemoradiation with capecitabine after surgical resection of extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma or gallbladder carcinoma

232
Q

what two tumor markers are commonly elevated with cholangiocarcinoma?

A

CA 19-9 and CA 50

233
Q

The approximate incidence of mucosal emergence 5 years after comprehensive radiation for squamous cell carcinoma metastatic to a cervical lymph node of unknown primary origin is:

A

10%

234
Q

What was the approximate 5-year pelvic control rate FIGO stage II vaginal cancers treated with definitive radiation, as reported by Frank et. al

A

84% The 5 year pelvic control rates were 86%, 84% and 71% for stages I, II and III-IV, respectively.

235
Q

what is the age criterion for RPA for malignant glioma?

A

50yrs

236
Q

Clinical group IIA rhabdomyosarcoma consists of:

A

grossly resected tumor with microscopic residual disease, without involved regional lymph nodes

237
Q

The cumulative cochlear dose (Gy) for a child receiving 54-59.4 Gy of radiation for posterior fossa tumor should be less than:

A

35Gy

238
Q

A relatively specific marker of Langerhans cell histiocytosis is:

A

CD1a

239
Q

what are the doses for stage II thymoma status post R0, R1, and R2 resection?

A

R0 - 45-50Gy R1 - 54Gy R2 - 60Gy

240
Q

What is the best treatment option for a medically inoperable 61 year old with clinical stage T1b1 squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix?

A

EBRT + brachy (no chemo)

241
Q

what are the 4 subtypes of classic Hodgkin Lymphoma and what are the characteristic molecular markers?

A

nodular sclerosing, lymphocyte rich, mixed cellularity, lymphocyte poor CD15/CD30 positive, CD20/CD45 negative

242
Q

What is the QUANTEC recommended maximum bladder V80, V75, V70, and V65 when planning for prostate cancer RT?

A

V80 < 15% V75 < 25% V70 < 35% V60 < 50% (95-100-105-110)

243
Q

what is the age cutoff used for staging thyroid cancer?

A

age 45

244
Q

Based on a large multi institutional experience treating patients with concurrent chemoRT for advanced NSCLC (Palma), which dosimetric factor BEST predicted grade 2 or higher esophagitis?

A

V60

245
Q

what is the dose per fraction when using 4 fractions of HDR brachytherapy alone for inoperable endometrial cancer (at 2cm from sources)?

A

8.5Gy per fraction at 2 cm

246
Q

Per QUANTEC, what is the risk of radiation pneumonitis with V20 of 30-35% and MLD of 20-23Gy?

A

20% risk of pneumonitis

247
Q

In patients with early stage breast cancer treated with breast conservation, what factors are associated with locoregional recurrence and not distant metastatic spread?

A

Size, ER status, Ki-67

248
Q

What is the risk of neck recurrence with elective neck dissection and without adjuvant radiation therapy for a pathologic T1-2N0 low risk oral tongue cancer?

A

20%

249
Q

What is the 10-year bladder-intact DFS rate (%) after the treatment of muscle invasive bladder cancer with definitive chemoRT?

A

40-45%

250
Q

when treating stage I/II seminoma, what is the renal dose constraint?

A

D50 < 8Gy

251
Q

what mutation is associated with ALK in anaplastic large cell lymphoma?

A

T(2;5)

252
Q

What is the expected 2-year overall cumulative incidence of both symptomatic and asymptomatic pelvic insufficiency fractures after definitive radiation for early stage cervical cancer?

A

35% (risk increased with advanced age and low body weight)

253
Q

what is the risk of conversion of solitary osseous plasmacytoma to multiple myeloma at 10 years? what about non-osseous plasmacytoma?

A

osseous - 54%non-osseous - 11%

254
Q

What is the MOST common secondary malignancy after radiation for Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

sarcoma

255
Q

what are the indications for adjuvant CRT after radical hysterectomy for cervical cancer?

A

positive nodes, positive margins, parametrial involvement

256
Q

what percentage of women with BRCA1 mutation will develop breast cancer and/or ovarian cancer by age 70?

A

60% will develop breast cancer40% will develop ovarian cancer

257
Q

what are the risk factors for the very high risk group of pediatric ALL patients?

A

t(9;22) or BRC/ABL fusion protein, hypoploidy, DNA index < 0.81

258
Q

loss of what gene is associated with LCIS?

A

loss of CDH-1 / E-cadherin

259
Q

what anatomical portion of the penis is most commonly involved in penile cancer?

A

glans - 50% (next most common is prepuce/foreskin at 25%)

260
Q

what was the rate of groin recurrence for the surgery arm in GOG 37 Homesley trial?

A

25% for surgery 5% for radiation

261
Q

Per AHOD0031, what were the criteria for a complete response in rapid early responders after 4 cycles of ABVE-PC?

A
  1. >80% reduction in product of PPD 2. return to normal size for all target lesions 3. no residual extramediastinal nodal mass >2cm 4. no disesae in non-measurable sites 5. negative gallium or FDG-PET scans
262
Q

by what mechanism is EGFR expression level elevated in H and N SCCa?

A

gene amplification

263
Q

what constitutes N2 ureteral carcinoma?

A

single lymph node 2-5cm or multiple lymph nodes <5cm

264
Q

In order to be eligible for the ARTIST trial comparing adjuvant chemotherapy vs. adjuvant chemoRT, what type of gastric LND was required?

A

D2 node dissection with R0 resection

265
Q

What dosimetric threshold for the pelvic bone marrow is associated with > grade 2 neutropenia and leukopenia during cisplatin based radiation?

A

V10 > 90%

266
Q

What factors are included in post-Rituximab Follicular Lymphoma International Prognostic Indicators?

A

Age, β2 microglobulin, bone marrow involvement, hemoglobin level, tumor size

267
Q

what was the benefit at 5 years with the addition of short term ADT in the D’Amico trial?

A

10% OS benefit with ADT (88% vs 78%)

268
Q

patients with dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiency will have reduced metabolism of what chemotherapeutic agent?

A

5-FU

269
Q

According to a population-based case-control study (Darby et al), what was the percent increase in the rate of major coronary events for each 1 Gy increase in mean heart dose?

A

7.4% increase for each 1Gy

270
Q

what is the radiation dose for group III rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

50.4Gy

271
Q

what is the risk of isolated distant failure in average risk medulloblastoma?

A

10%

272
Q

Per ASTRO consensus guidelines for contouring and treatment of cancer of the vulva, the CTV for the inguinal/femoral lymph node contours should extend what distance (mm) around the femoral vessels?

A

anteromedial ≥35 mm, anterior ≥23 mm, anterolateral ≥25 mm, medial ≥22 mm no margin needed posteriorly or laterally to vessels

273
Q

what was the concurrent chemotherapy regimen utilized in NSABP R-03?

A

5-FU / leucovorin

274
Q

In the German (Stahl) esophageal cancer study, what was the pCR rate for chemo alone versus CRT?

A

2% vs. 16%

275
Q

what is the most common RT regimen for Graves ophthalmopathy?

A

20Gy/10fxs

276
Q

what percentage of craniopharyngioma patients will experience long-term diabetes insipidus?

A

60%

277
Q

what are appropriate dose ranges for NK T-Cell lymphoma with and without chemotherapy?

A

40-50Gy with chemo >50Gy without chemo

278
Q

per the new guidelines for APBI, what are the cautionary criteria for age, tumor size, and margin status?

A

age 40 - 49 (with no other risk factors)size 2.1 - 3.0cmmargin < 2mm

279
Q

what are the Milan criteria for liver transplantation for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

1) single tumor 5 cm; or 2) no more than 3 lesions without and single lesion measuring > 3 cm

280
Q

what are the Roach formulas?

A

ECE = 3/2PSA + 10(GS-3) SVI = PSA + 10(GS-6) LN = 2/3PSA + 10(GS-6)

281
Q

what are pre-plan goals for prostate LDR?

A

V100>95 D90>100 Rectum D2cc

282
Q

What is the TNM stage for a resected 2.5 cm extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma with invasion through the bile duct but without involvement of nearby organs or blood vessels, and 4/15 lymph nodes positives?

A

T2N1

283
Q

what was the primary endpoint that was improved with 6 months of ADT (leuprolide) in GETUG-AFU 16?

A

5yr progression free survival improved from 62% to 80%

284
Q

what subtype is not a classical subtype of Hodgkin Lymphoma and what are the molecular markers for that subtype?

A

nodular lymphocyte predominant CD15/CD30 negative, CD20/CD45 positive

285
Q

For vulvar cancer, what is the rate of groin metastases for primary lesions <2cm versus >2cm?

A

20% for <2cm 40% for >2cm

286
Q

what is the traditional size of a HO prophylaxis RT field?

A

14x14cm

287
Q

what is the N stage for anal cancer with unilateral pelvic side wall and inguinal lymph nodes?

A

N2

288
Q

A 10-year-old female presents with clinical stage IIIB mixed cellularity Hodgkin lymphoma with partial response at completion of 5 cycles ABVE-PC chemotherapy. What is the MOST appropriate RT dose?

A

25Gy

289
Q

what gastric lymph node stations are removed with a D2 dissection?

A

left gastric, celiac, common hepatic, splenic hilum, splenic artery

290
Q

what are the dose constraints for the duodenum when treating the paraaortics in the setting of GYN cancer?

A

D2cc < 60GyV55 < 15cc

291
Q

In NSABP B-18, the complete pathologic response rate in the breast after neoadjuvant AC chemotherapy for breast cancer was:

A

9%

292
Q

what is the RT dose for neuroblastoma causing cord compression?

A

9Gy if <3yrs old 21.6Gy if >3yrs old

293
Q

In patients with early-stage NSCLC planned for surgical resection, how many N2 stations should be sampled?

A

minimum of 3

294
Q

when should patients with phyllodes tumor receive adjuvant RT?

A

lumpectomy for tumor >2cm, mastectomy for tumor >10cm

295
Q

what constitutes T2 hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

solitary tumor with vascular invasion or multiple tumors <5cm

296
Q

what is the histologic feature of retinoblastoma?

A

Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes

297
Q

criteria for N2 anal cancer?

A

unilateral internal iliac and/or unilateral inguinal

298
Q

Bujold et al. recently reported the phase I/II experience of liver SBRT for treatment of unresectable, locally advanced hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) from University of Toronto (JCO, 2013). What was the reported 1 year overall survival rate (%)?

A

1yr OS 55%, 1yr LC 87%

299
Q

what were the enrollment criteria for the Roa GBM study?

A

age >65 OR age >50 and KPS 50-70

300
Q

what are the indications for whole abdominal radiation with favorable histology Wilms?

A

SPAR:diffuse Spillage Peritoneal seeding Ascites preoperative Rupture

301
Q

What is an appropriate dose (Gy) for single fraction SRS to a functioning pituitary adenoma?

A

20Gy

302
Q

what is the TD 5/5 for whole kidney?

A

23Gy

303
Q

what constitutes T3 gallblader cancer?

A

invasion of visceral peritoneum, liver, or ONE adjacent organ

304
Q

what constitutes T3 female urethral cancer?

A

invasion of vagina or bladder neck

305
Q

invasion of what structures constitute stage II urethral cancer?

A

corpus spongiosumprostateperiurethral muscle

306
Q

what constitutes T2 pancreatic cancer?

A

>2cm in size but confined to the pancreas

307
Q

per NSABP analysis, what is the 10yr local recurrence rate for patients with T3N0 breast cancer treated with mastectomy and chemotherapy (without PMRT)?

A

10yr LRR 7%

308
Q

Regarding RTOG 0617 for lung cancer, what were the per protocol constraints for total lungs minus CTV?

A

V20 ≤ 37% OR mean dose ≤ 20 Gy

309
Q

what is the Siewert classification of a tumor mass centered in the gastric cardia with extension of the gastroesophageal junction?

A

Siewert type III

310
Q

what infection has an increased incidence during bortezomib treatment?

A

Herpes zoster

311
Q

What percent of patients who undergo bladder preservation therapy will have a complete response on biopsy after initial TURBT and induction chemoRT?

A

69%

312
Q

what constitutes a negative surgical margin for T1b-T3 gastric cancer?

A

4cm

313
Q

what was median survival on the CROSS trial?

A

50 vs 25 months (actually 49 vs 24 but lets not be ridiculous)

314
Q

On the WECARE study, what was the 10 year risk of contralateral breast cancer for BRCA1, BRCA2, and non-carrier?

A

BRCA1 - 20%BRCA2 - 16%non-carrier - 5%

315
Q

what were the risk factors on GOG 99?

A

age, moderate to poor tumor grade, lymph vascular space invasion and outer third myometrial invasion HIR: age 70+ with one risk factor, age 50+ with 2 risk factors

316
Q

what cell surface antigen is targeted by brentuximab?

A

CD30

317
Q

In the ACOSOG Z0011 trial, what was the rate of regional recurrence in patients with breast cancer with a positive sentinel node biopsy treated by lumpectomy and tangential irradiation but no further axillary dissection?

A

1%

318
Q

what was WBRT does on Patchell 1 vs. Patchell 2?

A

Patchell 1 - 36Gy/12 Patchell 2 - 50.4Gy/28

319
Q

According to the updated QUANTEC, what mean dose (Gy) to the whole lung with 3D-CRT would result in a 5% risk of symptomatic pneumonitis?

A

7Gy mean dose risk is 20% with 20Gy mean dose

320
Q

What radiation regimen was used in the TROG trial comparing postoperative radiation versus observation in high-risk melanoma patients?

A

48 Gy at 2.4 Gy per fraction over 4 weeks

321
Q

Based on QUANTEC, what is the V25 constraint to achieve a <1% probability of cardiac mortality?

A

V25<10

322
Q

for grade II astrocytoma, what is the rate of transformation to high grade glioma?

A

70%

323
Q

what is the most common testicular cancer in men older than 50?

A

lymphoma

324
Q

at what site do most male urethral cancers occur?

A

bulbomembranous urethra (60%), penile urethra (35%), prostatic urethra (5%)

325
Q

at what dose is the heart blocked in the treatment of a left sided mesothelioma?

A

19.8Gy

326
Q

for adjuvant and salvage prostate treatment, what is the recommended bladder dose constraint per RTOG 0534?

A

V65Gy < 50% (bladder - CTV)

327
Q

What was the MINIMUM criterion for patient classification as a “rapid early responder” according to COG protocol AHOD 0031 for intermediate risk Hodgkin Disease?

A

Decrease in products of perpendicular diameters of at least 60% of up to 6 largest areas of disease after 2 cycles of chemotherapy (ABVE-PC)

328
Q

first line TKI for clear cell carcinoma of the kidney

A

sunitinib

329
Q

what tumor marker is used to follow granulosa cell ovarian cancers if elevated at diagnosis?

A

inhibin

330
Q

what are RT doses for group IIA and IIB/C rhabo?

A

IIA - 36Gy (LN-) IIB/C 41.4Gy (R1/LN+

331
Q

what 3 structures can be involved in stage II vulvar cancer?

A

lower urethra, vagina, anus

332
Q

what percentage of solitary plasmacytomas arise in bone?

A

80% are osseous, 20% are extra-osseous

333
Q

for pancreatic cancer, what are the classic superior and inferior borders for adjuvant RT?

A

superior T10/11 interspaceinferior L3/4 interspace(superior border of T11, inferior border of L3)

334
Q

what percentage of patients with urothelial carcinoma of the renal pelvis will also have a urothelial carcinoma of the bladder?

A

50%

335
Q

what factors constitute IPI for advanced Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

stage IV male sex age > 45 albumin < 4 hemoglobin < 10.5 lymphocyte count < 600

336
Q

what percentage of patients with LS-SCLC by conventional imaging will be upstaged by FDG PET?

A

10%

337
Q

What criteria makes a patient an ideal candidate for bladder preservation?

A

unifocal T2-3a tumor <5cm, no extensive CIS, no ureteral obstruction, good bladder capacity and renal function, visibly complete TURBT

338
Q

what cytokine is associated with pneumonitis following lung RT?

A

TGFbeta1

339
Q

What is the expected 5-year overall survival for a stage III carcinoma of the female urethra with treatment?

A

30%

340
Q

what mutation is associated with hereditary diffuse gastric cancer?

A

CDH-1, coding for e-cadherin

341
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) differs from small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL) in that a large number of abnormal lymphocytes are found in the:

A

bone marrow and blood

342
Q

what percentage of penile cancers are HPV positive?

A

80%

343
Q

mutation asociated with myxoid round cell liposarcoma

A

t(12;16)

344
Q

According to the ACT II study of definitive chemoradiation for anal cancer, the complete response rate (%) at 26 weeks was:

A

90%

345
Q

indications for adjuvant RT following radical hysterectomy

A

two of the following:>1/3 stromal invasionLVSItumor >4cm

346
Q

for breast cancer, how many sentinel nodes are needed to give a 9% false negative rate?

A

3 nodes (false negative rate is 6% with 4 nodes)

347
Q

what constitutes stage IIIB NSCLC?

A

any N3 or T4N2-3

348
Q

What is the incidence of inguinal or pelvic lymph node involvement in a woman with stage II-III squamous cell carcinoma of the urethra?

A

35-50%

349
Q

what group stage is T3N2 rectal cancer?

A

IIIB

350
Q

what is the most common type of childhood leukemia?

A

B-cell ALL

351
Q

what was the complete resection rate and 5yr OS in the SWOG 9416 superior sulcus tumor trial?

A

complete resection rate 76%5yr OS 44%

352
Q

Which volume and dose is BEST for a 65-year-old man with Stage IIA, nonbulky, diffuse large B-Cell lymphoma with a partial response based on PET to 3 cycles of R-CHOP chemotherapy but no additional chemotherapy recommended?

A

45Gy ISRT

353
Q

list the interval for adjuvant RT for the following: medulloblastoma Wilms tumor low risk rhabdo int risk rhabdo high risk rhabdo

A

medulloblastoma - 3-4 weeks wilms - 9 days low risk rhabdo - week 13 int risk rhabdo - week 4 high risk rhabdo - week 20

354
Q

what constitutes S2 testicular cancer?

A

LDH 1.5 - 10x upper limit of normal rangebHCG 5,000 - 50,000AFP 1,000 - 10,000

355
Q

When performing LDR brachytherapy for carcinoma of the cervix, the ABS recommends limiting the vaginal surface dose to what percent of the dose at Point A?

A

<150%

356
Q

after prostatectomy with biochemical failure, what is the median survival for a patient once metastases develop?

A

5 years

357
Q

what constitutes N2 cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?

A

clinically abnormal nodes, histopathology Dutch grade 2 or NCI LN3

358
Q

What is the BEST treatment approach for a T3N0 malignant epithelioid mesothelioma?

A

Induction chemotherapy, pleurectomy and decortication, followed by IMRT

359
Q

According to the 11 year results of the German Rectal Trial (CAO/ARO/AIO-94), what was the risk of local recurrence following surgery alone for high, mid, and low rectal tumors?

A

high: 10% mid: 19% low: 5%

360
Q

what molecular features are characteristic of pediatric anaplastic large cell lymphoma?

A

CD30 positive (100%), ALK rearrangement (90%)

361
Q

reactivation of what virus occurs after liver SBRT?

A

hepatitis B (hence the reason they start antiviral treatment prior to RT)

362
Q

based on the EBCTCG meta-analysis, what is the 5 year local recurrence rate for stage I breast cancer treated with surgery and radiation?

A

5yr LR 7%

363
Q

what are the indications for adjuvant radiation to inguinal/pelvic lymphatics for vulvar cancer? (Homesley criteria)

A

clinically palpable or matted nodes, 2 or more pathologically positive nodes, ECE, >20% lymph nodes positive

364
Q

What was the radiation dose on the experimental arm of the CONVERT trial presented at the 2016 ASCO that used 45 Gy (1.5 Gy twice daily) as the standard arm for limited stage SCLC?

A

66Gy, no significant difference in survival or toxicity

365
Q

on PORTEC-2, what was the 5yr rate of isolated vaginal recurrence for high-intermediate risk patients treated with brachytherapy versus those treated with EBRT?

A

5yr vaginal recurrence 1.8% with brachy, 1.6% with EBRT

Errthing (12 decks)

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