Instrument Closed Book Questions

Question 1

What action should be taken when a pilot is “cleared for the approach” while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?

Answer 1

remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment

Question 2

Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders

Answer 2

possible causes of accidents or incidents

Question 3

An approach at an airport may not be qualified for use as an alternate if

Answer 3

The NAVAIDs used for the final approach are unmonitored

Question 4

During an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC, to whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?

Answer 4

Upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC ma….

Question 5

You are returning to your section in MVFR conditions and ……. you receive an IFR pick up with ATC. Given radar vectors to the RWY with a tailwind……… On ILS approach autopilit disengages… handfly…..about to go full deflection on the ILS. YOur actions now should be:

Answer 5

Execute missed approach, vectors back to ILS, fly app more attentively, do ASR after shutdown for rest of command.

Question 6

Min rate of climb on normal departure IOT assure obstruction clearance if no ODP is published? (Part 91)

Answer 6

200’ per NM

Question 7

ALTA mode engagement limit ___________ and Minimum Height (MUH) is ____________:

Answer 7

60KTs/150’

Question 8

GPS approach 1.5 NM from FAF waypoint. Approach light / annunciator not yet on/armed. You must.

Answer 8

Go Missed

Question 9

On an airway FAR 91 specifies to fly centerline of that airway except to avoid other aircraft in VFR conditions (T/F)

Answer 9

True

Question 10

When departing from an airport outside of controlled airspace during IMC you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before

Answer 10

entering class E airspace.

Question 11

If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC:

Answer 11

Proceed to the MAP at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.

Question 12

Primary purpose of runway end identified lights…

Answer 12

rapid ID of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility…

Question 13

Helicopters flying GPS Copter SIAPs must limit airspeeds to ___ KIAS or less when flying any segment of the procedure except speeds must be limited to no more than _____ KIAS on the final and missed approach segments.

Answer 13

90, 70 as recommended by the AIM

Question 14

What airspeed indication would you expect if the ram air inlet of the Pitot Tube is blocked but the drain is still clear?

Answer 14

The airspeed would read zero.

Question 15

The PIC of an aircraft must always:

Answer 15

remember the PIC is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft in the…

Question 16

The following report should be made to ATC without specific ATC request: When unable to climb/descend at a rate of at least 500 fpm. (T/F)

Answer 16

True.

Question 17

Filed IFR to KMTN…wx deteriorated enroute and KMTN is now below mins….Filed KESN as an alternate, but ILS for RWY 04 is OOS. Can you utilize the LPV mins for the RNAV RWY 04 as for your alternate PLANNING?

Enroute to KESN, ATC offers the RNAV to RWY 04, can you utilize the LPV mins for your approach?

Answer 17

No you cannot utilize an RNAV LPV for your alternate PLANNING but you can accept the LPV from ATC.

Question 18

The localizer type directional aid (LDA) approach with a glide slope is considered to be a precision approach because it provides G/S indication. (T/F)

Answer 18

FALSE.

Question 19

It’s 0100 and you have just landed at KMTN to refuel… The weather was marginal VFR when you landed and that was over an hour ago. The tower at KMTN was closed then, but since MTN has reverted to Class E airspace there is no requirement to file IFR even if the local area is now IMC b/c there are no entry or clearance requirements for Class E airspace, even for IFR operations, that’s why MSPAC in the past used 800/2 for MEDEVACs.

Answer 19

That statement is actually incorrect. KMTN is now Class E airspace which require…. requirement to operate with an ATC clearance prior to entering IMC conditions.

Question 20

During the enroute portion of a MEDEVAC wx between you and the hospital is marginal, so you decide to get an IFR pickup from ATC. During the IAP with ATC authorization you decide to expedite the approach by getting a Contact Approach. This decision is ___________.

Answer 20

Incorrect as contact approaches are not Authorized IAW the MSPAC OPs Manual.

Question 21

When ALTA is engaged the IAS is automatically engaged holding the current airspeed at a minimum of 50 KTs. (T/F)

Answer 21

False

Question 22

If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies “No PT”, the pilot should

Answer 22

Not execute the PT unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC.

Question 23

Controlled Airspace. A generic term that covers the different classifications of airspace (Class A, B, C, D ANDE Airspace) and defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification. (T/F)

Answer 23

TRUE

Question 24

Which checks of flight instruments/systems before flown IFR?

Answer 24

VOR in 30 days and altimeter/transponder w/in 24 calendar months.

Question 25

The landing checklist, approach brief, wx check, navaid ID will be completed by ___________ or ASAP after receiving vectors to final by ATC.

Answer 25

Initial Approach Fix.

Question 26

missed approach routing in which the first track is via a course rather than direct to the next waypoint requires

Answer 26

additional action by the operator to set the course.

Question 27

VSI indicated when VS is greater than or equal to:

Answer 27

300 FPM.

Question 28

To maximize safety it is the commands policy for IFR departures to use the published mins for the approach _______ for the departure point or runway in use.

Answer 28

200 ft (above mins and 1/2 mile vis)

Question 29

You depart from an airport in class G airspace in less than VFR conditions, when must you file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance?

Answer 29

B/F entering controlled airspace

Question 30

What do the terms VOR-A and VOR-B mean on the approach plate margin?

Answer 30

approaches are not aligned within 30 Deg of the rwy and they are circlin...... GT Note: if there is more than one VOR approach with more than 30 degrees off the centerline of a runway. The first one will be titled VOR A, the second VOR B, etc. For example, maybe one approaches from the north, the other from the south, and neither is aligned with a specific runway.

Question 31

There is no requirement to read back that portion of the IFR clearance that contains

Answer 31

Destination Airport

Question 32

IFR requirements. IFR operations in any class of controlled airspace requires that a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance. (T/F)

Answer 32

TRUE.

Question 33

You are about to enter unforecasted IFR conditions and you contact ATC for an IFR clearance. After receiving the clearance what should your response be to ATC?

Answer 33

read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part.........

Question 34

If a PT, holding or teardrop pattern is not shown, the method of course reversal is completely up to the discretion of the pilot because in the AW-139 you can see what type of pattern is required by looking at NAV page prior to entry (T/F).

Answer 34

FALSE.

Question 35

Prior to departing MD-71 on the ODP (OKUDE ONE) and the weather currently at 700/3, YOU must have ATC clearance prior to take off (T/F).

Answer 35

FALSE. GT-