Instrument Rating Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
Minimums for the approach to require an alternate
A
At the time of submitting the flight plan that the forecast of 1 hour before and after the eta at the aerodrome of intended landing.
The ceiling is at least 1000ft above the lowest published minimum for the instrument procedure to be used
The visibility is at least 5km or 2km more than the published minimum in the AIP. Whichever is the greater.
2
Q
Minimums for a nominated alternate aerodrome precision approach
A
Either a specific minimum for that aerodrome published in the alternate minima table
6,2,3,1
For a precision approach. A ceiling of 600ft or 200ft above DA/DH whichever is higher and visibility of 3km or 1km more than the published minimum whichever is greater
3
Q
Minimums for a nominated alternate aerodrome non precision approach
A
8,2,4,1.5
A ceiling of 800ft or 200ft above MDA/MDH whichever is the higher and 4km visibility or 1500m more than the prescribed minimum whichever is the higher
4
Q
What to do with instruments once established in a hold entry
A
Set the inbound on the OBS as well so that both G430s show the same picture to avoid confusion
5
Q
Order of plan when carrying out TU MAP
A
PPC 110kts Unsuspend Local call After T/O Checklist Brief the hold Airways back to CH Load the FPL and cut onto track
6
Q
What instruments to use when tracking an arc
A
HDG bug, RMI and DME. Use GPS discretely to help orientate
7
Q
How to control yaw in engine failure
A
Fuckload of rudder and up to 5deg AOB. Use HDG bug to remain on track
8
Q
To intercept the arc what should I do
A
Use OBS to provide tracking to give time to set HSI 10deg in the direction of the arc. Anticipate by 1% GS and make a 45deg cut. At 0.3nm remaining follow CDI onto arc
9
Q
Hold brief
A
Where is it Direction Timed or limiting distance Inbound Outbound MSA Entry type
10
Q
What to do on entry to a hold
A
Suspend FPL by pushing OBS
TTTT
Twist turn time talk
11
Q
Approach speed
A
100kts
12
Q
How to successfully intercept the ILS
A
Monitor the OBS to see when the CDI is active. That gives you an indication to anticipate the HSI CDI becoming active
13
Q
MAP radio call
A
MIR missed approach
14
Q
Flap setting and speed before FAF
A
2 stages and 100kts
This ensures no config changes on final approach which makes it easier to remain stable.
Also get ATC call completed before setup
15
Q
MAP sequence
A
PPC 110kts radio call after T/O checklist
16
Q
What to focus on for VOR or ILS
A
HDG, HSI, Altimeter,DME, ASI remember CUP checks prior to Stable Gate
17
Q
Descent Procedures
A
A Trash Rash Makes Pain
ABRIEFS TCTWO RAIM MIXTURES RICH PBN CHECK
18
Q
Approach Procedures/Before landing
Complete in hold
A
Altimeters cross check and state QNH and altitude Pitots as required Nav 1 and 2 on GPS or VLOC BUMPFHR (Brakes, U/C, then work down flow. Fuel tank to engine Fuel pumps Mixture rich Powers set Hatches Harnesses Radio Call if required
19
Q
ABRIEFS TCTWO
A
ATIS BRIEF ARRIVAL AND APPROACH AND MAP RADIO FREQUENCIES SET AND NAVAIDS TUNED IDENTIFIED AND SET INSTRUMENTS HSI, OBS, ALTIMETERS SET ENGINE MIXTURES, POWERS, TS PS FUEL TANK TO ENGINE, QUANTITY SECURITY
THREATS SIGNIFICANT CHARTS BRIEFED CARRIED TERRAIN RADAR, MSA, ADVISORIES, GLIDESLOPE WEATHER SIGNIFICANT OPERATIONAL NOTAMS
20
Q
CUP
A
Cowls not applicable
Gear fixed
Prop full fine
21
Q
Cruise procedures
A
TOD state Compass and QNH Log update fuel and etas Engine Ts Ps Mixture Alternate Airs Alternators and Airspace controlled or uncontrolled Icing Radios and NAVAIDS and GPS TUNE ID SET Carbon monoxide PBN check XTRK and EPU within limits
22
Q
What approach gradient is assumed for airspace containment
A
5%
23
Q
Do radar Sid climb gradients ensure airspace containment
A
Yes
24
Q
What is the assumed MAP climb gradient for airspace containment
A
5%
25
What are the requirements of PBN
ANP + EPU within +/- half navigation accuracy of the part of the route.
Eg ENR is 2nm full deflection so PBN must be within 1nm of track for the majority of the route
26
Visual departures to intercept MSA must have what requirements
Must be able to achieve MNM 3.3% climb gradient or higher stated and by day only
27
ROC required formula
Gradient % x Groundspeed x 1.013
28
SID MNM performance unless otherwise stated
3.3% (200ft/nm)
| Climb on centreline to 400ft above departure end of runway before commencing a turn
29
Category A max IAS for turns on a SID
120kts
30
What is take off minima if there’s no specified minima
A ceiling of at least 300ft and more than 1500m visibility
31
Holding pattern Cat A speed
170kts in normal and turbulent conditions at or below 14000ft
32
Holding turns AOB
25deg or 3deg/sec whichever is the lesser
33
Assym critical
```
Control
Pitch blue line
Gear Flap up pitch up more to maintain blue line
Identify
Confirm
Feather
Mayday
```
34
Emergency brief on take off roll
If I have an engine failure on the ground or prior to 82kts I will keep straight close both throttles and stop
35
Engine failure brief sufficient rwy remaining
If I have engine failure airborne with sufficient rwy remaining I will control the yaw close both throttles positively lower the nose and land using flap as required and a mayday call if time is permitting
36
Engine failur brief with insufficient runway remaining
If I have an engine failure airborne with insufficient runway remaining I will maintain blue line and carry out emergency drills and advise intentions to ATC,
request RV for an approach
37
MAPt for TU20
480ft RWY20 Waypoint
38
MAPt for TU02
510ft at TU402 waypoint
39
CH MAPt 02
| DA/MDA
DA 323ft
| MDA 620ft 0DME/Flag change
40
CH20 MAPt DA/MDA
ILS 293ft MAPt at 0.6DME
| MDA 480ft 3DME
41
Definition of MEA
Minimum enroute altitude is the combination of the MRA and MSA
42
Definition of MRA
Minimum reception altitude is the minimum at which ground based NAVAIDS are available for the route
43
IR rating eligibility
```
Class 2 medical with class 1 hearing
Night flying requirements for the licence held
Law,NAVAIDS,Nav,HF,Met
10hours dual in category of aircraft
Pass flight test
```
44
IR privileges and limitations
Pass flight test in applicable aircraft (single vs non Centerline twin)
Have certified competency by examiner in logbook in types of approaches used
45
Currency requirements
Within 12mths
- Passed flight test or competency check
Last 90days unless Competency check completed in this period
- 3hrs instrument time (one of flight time)
- 3 published approaches (one of sim)
- carried out type of approach to be used (sim or flight)
46
Support pilot requirements
Cannot be carried under part135 if not current with 3 approaches and 3hours in the last 90days
47
Sid standard climb gradient and what it provides
3.3% to 400ft above dept end of rwy before commencing turn
| Radar Sid’s provide obs clearance and airspace containment
48
MAP procedure is based on what climb gradients
OBS clearance of 98ft and 2.5% gradient beginning from the MAPt
49
What to do when established on the arc
Report to Approach established
| Set HSI to the approach inbound
50
Documents to be carried
```
Tech log
Flight manual
Airworthiness cert
W&B data sheet
Radio equipment approval levels
```
Appropriate AIP charts and plates
GPS unit manual if equipped
51
Where to find minimum equipment list
All equipment under Parts 91.509, 91.511, 91.517
52
How is a visual approach advised by ATC
Specifically or via ATIS
Day only 16km vis and ceiling of 1000ft above minimum radar vectoring altitude or instrument approach procedure commencement altitude
Night only CH 29/11 16km vis no cloud below 5000ft
53
Night visual requirements
Night approaches can be carried out anywhere but you Must have the runway lights in sight
54
Can you do visual departures and arrival at night
No
55
DME arc terrain and obstacle clearance
Not less than 1000ft above terrain and obstacles within 2.5nm each side of the arc
56
How to determine aircraft category
1.3 x Vso = Vat
Vat (IAS at threshold)
Cat A less than 91kts Vat
Eg P68c Vso is 62kt
1.3 x 62 = 80.6
57
Use of remote QNH rules
Add 5ft to MDA for every 1nm in excess of 5nm from the QNH source
58
MAP required climb gradient
2.5% providing 98ft obstacle clearance
59
Rules for operation below DA or MDA
Stable (normal ROD and normal manoeuvres to achieve landing at touchdown zone)
Maintained within circling area if circling
Visibility not less than prescribed minimum for approach to be used
```
One of the following visible and identified by the pilot
-Approach lighting system
-threshold markings/lights
-runway end identification lights
-visual approach slope indicator
-touchdown zone/markings/lights
-the runway/markings/lights
In summary anything related to the landing area
```
60
Do you need a ground based navaid for an alternated
No you just need your primary means and alternate means of navigation (PMoN AMoN).
AMoN could mean visual but unless there is no chance of cloud at all it is good airmanship to have a ground based navaid available
61
If I am current on VOR what approaches can I fly
Any other non precision approach
62
What are requirements for reduced takeoff minima
Runway has centreline marks/lights
Vis is confirmed by using the centreline marks/lights
AD2 allows it for the runway to be used
Obstacles in flight path taken into account
In a multi engine have a auto coarse or feather system installed and operative
63
Reduced takeoff minima
Zero ft ceiling 800m vis
64
Standard takeoff minima
300ft ceiling 1500m visibility
65
Standard SID requirements
3.3% gradient from 16ft above departure end of runway
MNM 400ft above dep end of runway for turns
Max speed in turns for category A is 120kts
66
Front to back of equipment underneath the partenavia
Transponder
DME
ADF
ADF
67
Front to back of equipment on top of the partenavia
```
GPS (above cockpit roof)
VHF comm
ELT
VHF comm
VOR/ILS
```
68
Radio failure procedure on arrival
If on STAR continue STAR and begin descent to the initial approach altitude with the last acknowledged atc clearance then commence approach
If no STAR clearance then track to the destination aid or fix specified by atc or if none then track to the aid or fix for the known or forecast runway
69
Radio failure on arrival radar vectors
Continue last vector for 2mins climbing to MSA if required then then track to the fix for an approach
If on intermediate approach (eg Base leg vector) then intercept final approach track and carry out approach
70
What to do if unable to make a landing with radio failure
Carry out missed approach
If you can make another approach within 30mins of ETA make another approach if appropriate, consider fuel as to whether divert is possible or if you need to make an emergency landing
Track to the ground station then the reciprocal of the Inbound
Enter the hold and descend as required then carry out another approach
71
Radio failure VMC and Certain of remaining VMC
Continue under VFR and land at a suitable aerodrome and report arrival to appropriate ATS unit
72
IFR communication failure general steps
```
Maintain Terrain clearance
7600
Try alternate and secondary ATS frequencies
Check aircraft comms
ATIS if possible
Transmit blind
Turn on exterior lights
Attempt phone appropriate ATS unit
If destination is in MBZ then divert to suitable aerodrome
```
73
Enroute track terrain clearance
1000ft vertical obstacle clearance
2000ft vertical mountainous terrain clearance
5nm each side of track
74
IFR test flight experience requirements
```
VFR XC PIC 50hrs
Total instrument time 40hrs
- Instrument flight time 20hrs
- IFR XC 10hrs
Night 5hrs PPL 10hrs CPL
```
75
Part 135 IFR fuel requirements
```
Taxi
Departure
A-B
10% A-B
Extra hold if required
Instrument approach B
B-C
5% B-C
Instrument approach C
Reserve of 45 mins for non turbine at holding speed 1500ft above the aerodrome
Plus any extra fuel required to proceed to an alternate
```
76
What is a Q route and a Y route
Q route is 2 way
| Y route is one way
77
What PBN specification is required for SIDS and STARs in the NZ FIR
RNAV 1
78
What PBN specification is required for enroute in the NZ FIR
RNAV 2
79
What is Fault detection and exclusion
FD detects the presence of an unacceptably large pseudo range error for a satellite and assumes a position error for a given stage of flight
FDE then excludes the source of the bad satellite allowing navigation to resume uninterrupted however 6 satellites are required for this as you need a minimum of 5 for raim positioning
80
Category A max missed approach speed
110kt
81
Category A Vat speed
Less than 91kts
82
Range of Category A speeds for initial approach
90-150kts
83
Category A range of final approach speeds
70-100kts
84
Random flight routing rules
Random routing allowed
Within 20nm of Mt cook at or above FL160
Any other airspace above FL150
If in controlled airspace you must have ATC authorisation
Random routing allowed under GPS PMoN below FL150 if authorised by ATC and is under continuous radar terrain monitoring from ATC
85
Where to find the TSO-C146a PBN specs
RNAV 1 and 2 in the flight manual supplements under the Garmin 430 section on the page after the contents sheet
86
Where does a Sid climb gradient begin
16ft above departure end of the runway
87
Visual departure requirements
Day only
Consideration of met conditions
Visual terrain clearance to MSA or VORSEC or specified upper limit or set heading point or limiting altitude
Set heading and minimum crossing altitudes are based off 3.3% gradient unless higher stated
88
Unless otherwise stated what are the SID performance requirements
3.3% minimum climb gradient
| Climb on rwy centreline to 400ft above departure end of the runway before commencing a turn
89
Requirements for visual approach in controlled airspace
- Request visual approach
- Maintain visual terrain clearance
- Ceiling is not below approved initial approach level
- Pilot reports on initial approach level or on approach that met conditions are suitable for a visual approach and landing can be reasonably assured
90
Visual approach in uncontrolled airspace requirements
Maintain visual terrain clearance
Ceiling is not below initial approach level
Pilot at the initial approach level or on approach has reasonable assurance the met conditions will permit a landing to be achieved
Visual approach at night rwy lights must be visible
91
IFR arrival procedures for unattended aerodromes
Follow standard RTF procedures for unattended aerodromes
In visibility’s down to 1500m pilot must be sure that integration with VFR traffic is assured
If traffic conflict is likely then do not descend in IMC below 1200ft AAL
92
RNAV gps modes
Terminal and Departure RNAV 1
Enroute RNAV 2
Arrival RNAV 1
93
What to do if you have a current RAIM warning and for the preceding 10mins or DR for 1min
You cannot use gps derived distance information you must cross check with alternate means
94
Radio failure on departure with a level restriction
Maintain last assigned level to the points specified then climb to maintain level in the flight plan
If no point specified then maintain last assigned altitude or MFA whichever is higher for 5 mins then climb to flight plan altitude
95
Missed approach minimum bank angle for turns
15degress
96
Holding turn requirements
25 deg or 3 deg per second whichever is lesser
97
What must I have before entering imc and continuing on FPL from TU
Ifr traffic info
98
Where to find IFR approval
2x forms of 2129 and the approval letter on the page after the W&B sheet
99
Conventional routes
H 2way
| V 1way
100
Rnav2 routes
Q 2way
| Y 2way
