Intensive Care Medicine Flashcards

(30 cards)

1
Q

What is the mnemonic used to summarise the basic ICU care bundle

A

FASTHUG

F - Feeding 
A - Analgaesia
S - Sedation
T - Thromboprophylaxis
H - Head Up
U - Ulcer Prophylaxis
G - Glucose control
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2
Q

Why is feeding the ICU patient vitally important

A

Protein Energy Malnutrition (Negative Nitrogen Balance) —> Impaired immunity + Sepsis and wound break down.

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3
Q

What are the methods of feeding in the ICU

A

Enteral
- NGT/NJT/Gastrostomy/Jejunostomy

Parenteral
- TPN

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4
Q

When is TPN indicated

A

Enteral nutrition is contraindicated

  • Gastric stasis
  • Intractable diarrhoea
  • Malabsorption
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5
Q

How is TPN administered

A

CVL - with strict asepsis

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6
Q

What are the complications of TPN

A

Infection
Septicaemia
Hyperbilirubinaemia

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7
Q

Why is analgaesia paramount

A

The patient needs to be able to cough and expand the lungs.

Multimodal NB

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8
Q

Why is sedation required in the ICU and what is used for this?

A

Inadequate pain control and anxiety has physiological sequelae.

Facilitation of mechanical ventilation
Decrease O2 demand
Impose day - night cycles

Prolonged benzos no longer used
Propofol infusions used

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9
Q

What are the measures used for thromboprophylaxis in the ICU

A
  1. Prophylactic LMWH
  2. Graduated compression stockings
  3. Calf compression devices
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10
Q

Why are ICU patient’s nursed head up and how many degrees head up is required for these benefits?

A

15 degrees head-up

  • Reduces aspiration of feeds (d/t passive regurgitation)
  • Decreases incidence of ventilator associated pneumonia
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11
Q

What are the options for ulcer prophylaxis in the ICU

A

Sucralfate - 1 g 6hrly NGT

H2RA / PPI

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12
Q

What is the benefit of maintaining euglycaemia (4 -8 mmol/L)

A

Decreases septic complications
Decreases cardiac complications
Improves wound healing

Measure Hgt 2 hourly

insulin infusion commonly required due to hyperglycaemia related to the stress response

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13
Q

What are the indications for mechanical ventilation

A
  1. Ventilation failure: PaCO2 increased with pH < 7.2
  2. Oxygenation failure: PaO2 < 11 kPa FiO2 > 0.4
  3. RICP and cerebral ischaemia (O2 demand : supply)
  4. Reduce work of breathing

RR > 30
pH < 7 .2 (with Increased PaCO2)
PaO2 < 8 kPa or < 11 kPA with FiO2 > 0.4

Exhaustion
Confusion
Severe shock

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14
Q

How is IPPV divided

A

Volume Control and Pressure Control

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15
Q

What is IMV vs SIMV

A

IMV - Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation
- Fixed number of fixed volume breaths are administered

SIMV - Synchronised Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation
- Mandatory ventilator breaths are synchronised with the patient’s own breaths to prevent stacking and hyper-inflating the lungs.

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16
Q

What are the benefits of PEEP

A
  1. Increases FRC
  2. Improves pulmonary compliance
  3. Improves V:Q matching
  4. Improves oxygenation
17
Q

What is CPAP

A

This is continuous positive pressure applied during SPONTANEOUS VENTILATION to the expiratory side of the breathing circuit - requires tight fitting mask and an alert an co-operative patient.

Airway reflexes must be intact to prevent aspiration

18
Q

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and why is it beneficial

A

Baseline pressure in the upper airways is set above zero —> prevent alveolar collapse and atelectasis and recruit collapsed alveoli.

It will improve lung compliance and reduce the work of breathing by repositioning the lung on a more advantageous part of the lung compliance (Pressure - Volume) curve.

Its benefit is that it can be used in the ward so a patient does not need an ICU bed.

19
Q

What pressure is used for CPAP:

20
Q

When can a patient be weaned off the ventilator

A

Ease of weaning is inversely related to duration on the ventilator

  1. Disease prompted IPPV is reversed or under control
  2. Effective cough or VC > 1000 ml (±15ml/kg)
21
Q

What are the principles of cardiovascular supportive care in the ICU

A
  1. Optimise preload and afterload
  2. Reverse myocardial depressants
    - hypoxia
    - hypercapnoea
    - acidosis
    - hypovolaemia
    - hypocalcaemia
  3. Inotrope
22
Q

How does adrenalin effect its different receptors at high and low doses

A

Low doses - predominant beta effect - inotropy

High doses - predominant alpha effect - VC

23
Q

Which receptors does noradrenalin predominantly act

A

alpha receptors –> vasoconstriction

24
Q

Which receptors does dobutamine predominantly effect and what other important effect does it have

A

Beta mediated increase in CO

Decreases SVR

25
What is the mechanism of action of milrinone
Phosphodiesterase 3 inhibitor | --> Dilates pulmonary vasculature and useful in pulmonary hypertension.
26
Why is dopamine no longer used as an inotrope
Traditionally it was used for renal protection. | This has since been disproved and dopamine is no longer used.
27
What agents can be used to reduce afterload and reduce myocardial O2 demand. When are these agents used clinically
Direct acting vasodilators 1. Hydralazine 2. Sodium Nitroprusside (SNP) 3. Nitroglycerine (GTN) - most frequently used Alpha blockers 1. Phenoxybenzamine 2. Phentolamine Heart failure Control of angina and reduce ischaemia
28
What are the indications for renal replacement therapy (RRT)
Acidaemia pH < 7.2 (unresponsive) Electrolytes K > 7 (unresponsive) Intoxicants (Toxic alcohols, Li, ASA) Overload of fluid (Pulmonary oedema unresponsive) Oliguria < 200ml in 12 hour Uraemia Urea > 35 mmol/L - Uraemic encephalopathy - Uraemic pericarditis - Uraemic neuropathy - Uraemic myopathy - Uraemic coagulopathy
29
Define AKI
Acute Kidney Injury One of the following 1. Rise in SCr by > 26.5 in < 48 hrs 2. SCr increase by 1.5 times baseline < 7 days 3. UO < 0.5 ml/kg/hour for > 6 hours (exclude obstruction)
30
Define the RIFLE criteria
Criteria to classify the severity of acute kidney injury R - Risk SCr up by > 26.5 OR 1.5 - 1.9 x baseline UO < 0.5 ml/kg/hr for 6 - 12 hrs I - Injury SCr up by 2.0 - 2.9 times baseline UO < 0.5 for 12 - 24 hrs F - Failure SCR up by > 3 times baseline UO < 0.3 ml/kg > 24 hrs Anuria > 12 hrs L - Loss Needs RRT > 4 weeks E - End Stage Needs RRT > 3 months