Intensive Recap Flashcards
(123 cards)
1
Q
Normal platelets have a circulating life span of approximately:
A
10 Days (9-10 Days)
2
Q
Platelet dense granules contain:
A
Calcium, Storage ADP and Serotonin
3
Q
which of the following measures platelet function?
A
Bleeding time
4
Q
To evaluate normal platelet numbers in an appropriate area of a blood smear, approximately how many platelets should be observed per oil immersion field?
A
8-20
5
Q
Thrombocytosis may be associated with:
A
Post-splenectomy and Polycythemia vera
6
Q
Which o f the following is characteristic if Bernard-Soulier syndrome?
A
Giant platelets
7
Q
a patient has been taking aspirin regularly for arthritic pain. Which one of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in this patient?
A
Template bleeding time
8
Q
Platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex is:
A
Membrane receptor for fibrinogen
9
Q
Which set of platelet responses would be most likely be associated with Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia?
A
Normal platelet aggregation response to ristocetin
Decrease response to collagen
ADP and epinephrine
10
Q
Platelet aggregation studies revealed normal aggregation curves with collagen, epinephrine, and ADP, but an abnormal aggregation curve with ristocetin. Based on these findings, what is the differential diagnosis?
A
Von Willebrand disease and Bernard-Soulier syndrome
11
Q
Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with classic Von Willebrand’s disease?
A
Decreased platelet aggregation to ristocetin
12
Q
the preferred blood product for a bleeding patient with Von Willebrand’s disease is transfusion with:
A
Cryoprecipitated AHF
13
Q
Acute disseminated intravascular coagulation is characterized by:
A
Hypofibrinogenemia
14
Q
Which of the following is Vitamin K dependent?
A
Factor VII
15
Q
Last factor to be depressed in Vitamin K deficiency:
A
Factor II
16
Q
Coagulation factors affected by coumarin drugs are:
A
II, VII, IX and X
17
Q
Which of the following is not present in BaSO4 adsorbed plasma?
A
II
18
Q
Which of the following is NOT a contact factor?
A
Stable Factor (Factor VII)
19
Q
Whcich one of the following factors typically shows an increase in liver disease?
A
Factor VIII
20
Q
Which of the following factor deficiencies is associated with either no or only a minor bleeding tendency, even after trauma or surgery?
A
Factor XII
21
Q
Classic Hemophilia is condition in which there may be a:
A
Prolonged APTT
22
Q
In which of the following diseases would you most likely find an abnormal prothrombin time:
A
DIC
23
Q
Increased APTT with normal PT would indicate a deficiency of:
A
Factor IX
24
Q
In the APTT test, the patient’s plasma is mixed with:
A
Phospholipid and Calcium
25
PTT measure all factors except for:
VII and XIII
26
A patient on therapeutic warfarin will most likely have a(an):
- Increased PT/INR
- Increased APTT
- Normal bleeding time
- Normal platelet count
27
The intentional normalized ratio (INR) is useful for:
Monitoring warfarin therapy
28
Reversal of heparin overdose can be achieved by administration of:
Protamine sulfate
29
the following results are obtained:
PT - Normal
APTT - Prolonged
Absorbed Plasma - Corrects APTT
The factor deficiency is:
VIII
30
Which one of the following laboratory findings is associated with Factor XIII deficiency?
Clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution or 1% monochrloroacetic acid
31
In Factor X deficiency, a prolonged PT or APTT is corrected by the addition of:
Aged Plasma (No. 5 & 8), Aged Serum (No. 1, 2, 5, 8 & 13) and Fresh Serum (No. 1, 5, 8 & 13)
32
The activity of the lupus anticoagulant and anti cardiolipin antibodies appears to be directed against:
Phospholipid
33
A prolonged Stypven (Russel viper venom) time is associated with deficiency if the following factors EXCEPT:
Factor VII
34
Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with a poor wound healing may be associated with:
Factor XIII deficiency
35
The laboratory test for monitoring heparin therapy is:
PTT
36
All of the following tests are affected by heparin therapy except:
Reptilase time
37
An abnormal thrombin time is associated with:
Fibrinogen deficiency
38
Which of the following will NOT cause the thrombin time to be prolonged?
Factor II deficiency
39
The observation of a normal reptilase time and a prolonged thrombin time is indicative of:
Presence of heparin
40
The active enzyme of fibrinolysis:
Plasmin
41
The D-dimer test is a specific test for:
Plasmin degradation of fibrin
42
A positive protamine sulfate is suggestive of:
DIC
43
EDTA-induced pseudothrombocytopenia can be identified on a blood smear by:
Finding the platelet adhering to the WBC's
44
For which of the following procedures would heparin be a recommended anticoagulant?
OFT
45
What is the proper angle of needle insertion for phlebotomy?
15 Degrees
46
An important marker on hematopoietic progenitor cells is:
CD 34
47
Which of the following is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult?
Illiac crest
48
What is the first type of cell produced by the developing embryo?
Erythrocyte
49
When distinguishing between mature and immature leukocytes, the most reliable morphologic characteristic is:
Nuclear chromatin pattern
50
The correct maturation order of erythrocyte morphologic stages is:
Rubriblast - prorubricyte - rubricyte - metarubricyte
51
Compared to a rubricyte, a metarubricyte looks different because of its:
Pyknotic nucleus
52
Primary granules in the neutrophil appear at which stage:
Promyelocyte
53
Specific (secondary) granules of the neutrophilic granulocyte:
Appear first at the myelocyte stage
54
The neutrophilic mitotic pool includes:
Promyelocytes, Myeloblasts and Myelocytes
55
The earliest stage in the myeloid series at which it is possible to classify a given cell:
Myelocyte
56
The last cell in thte granulocytic series, capable of mitosis is the :
Myelocyte
57
In the neutrophil series of leukocyte development, the earliest stage to normally appear in the peripheral blood is the:
Band
58
Antigen-independent lymphopoiesis occurs primary lymphoid tissue located in the:
Thymus and Bone Marrow
59
The largest hematopoietic cells in normal bone marrow are:
Megakaryocytes
60
Which of the following is characteristic of cellular changes as meagakaryocytes mature into megakaryocytes within the bone marrow?
Nuclear division without cytoplasmic division
61
The type of niclear reproduction seen in megakaryocytes is:
Endomitosis
62
Programmed cell death is called:
Apoptosis
63
The Na+ - K+ cation pump is an important mechanism in keeping the red blood cell inact. Its function is to maintain a high level of:
Intracellular K+
64
Approximately 70% of the body iron is found in the form of:
Hemoglobin
65
The major storage form of iron is:
Ferritin
66
Which of the following depicts the structure of the hemoglobin molecule?
Four heme groups and Four globin chains
67
These pairs of chains make up the majority of hemoblobin in normal adults:
alpha 2 and Beta 2
68
With respect to globin chain genes, which of the following statements is correct?
The genes for the alpha globin chains are located on chromosome 16 and the genes for the gamma, delta and beta chains are located on chromosome 11
69
Most of the erythrocyte's energy comes from the:
Embden-Meyerhof pathway
70
The enzyme deficiency in the Embden-Meyerhof pathway responsible for most cases of hereditary nonspherotic hemolytic anemia is:
Pyruvate kinase
71
This metabollic pathway facilitates the oxygen release from hemoglobin to tissues:
Rapoport-Leubering pathway
72
A shift to the right in the ODC occurs when there is a(an):
Increase in CO2
73
The major site of removal of normal, aged erythrocytes is the:
Spleen
74
What is the process wherein the spleen is able to trap and phagocytose senescent and abnormal red blood cells?
Culling
75
Approximately_______ percent of RBC's are replaced daily in the adult.
1.0
76
The substance that is present in the urine is increased amounts if intravascular hemolysis is increased but there is no intravascular hemolysis:
Urobilinogen
77
Which of the following laboratory result is NOT consistent with accelerated red cell destruction?
Increased serum haptoglobin
78
The following are compounds formed in the synthesis of heme:
Porhobilinogen, Uroporphobilinogen, Coproporphobilinogen and Protoporphophyrinogen
79
Asynchronous development of hematopoietic cells within the bone marrow is the result of:
Impaired DNA synthesis
80
The macrocytes typically seen in megaloblastic processes are:
Ovalocytic
81
Megaloblastic anemia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
Increased platelets
82
Bite cells are associated with
G6PD
83
What disorder is associated with erythrocytes that are thermally unstable and fragment when heard heated to 45 degrees to 46 decrees Celsius?
Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis
84
Many microspherocytosis and shictocytes and budding off of spherocytes can be seen on peripheral blood smears of patients with:
Extensive burns
85
Which of the following is most likely to be seen in lead poisoning?
Basophilic stipplings
86
What cell shape is MOST commonly associated with an increased MCHC?
Spherocytes
87
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by:
Schistocytes and nucleated RBCs
88
In myelofibrosis, the characteristic abnormal red cell morphology is:
Teardrop cells
89
AN enzyme deficiency associated with a moderate to severe hemolytic anemia after the patient is exposed to certain drugs and that is characterized by red cell inclusions formed by denatured hemoglobin is:
G6PD deficiency
90
A 15-year old girl is taking primaquine for a parasitic infection and notices her urine is a brownish color. A CBC shows mild anemia. The laboratorian performing the reticulocyte count notices numerous irregular shaped granules near the periphery of the RBC. These cellular inclusions are most likely:
Heinz bodies
91
Select the amino acid substitution that is responsible for sickle cell anemia?
Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the beta chain
92
Which of the following hemoglobin electrophoresis results is most typical of sickle cell trait?
45% HbS and 55% HbA
93
What is the pathophysiology of B-thalassemia?
Decreased synthesis of B-chains
94
Patients with beta thalassemia:
- Occasional target cells
| - Increased hemoglobin A2
95
The abnormally increased hemoglobin electrophoresis value(s) that would usually exclude the possibility of alpha thalassemis is (are):
HbA2 and HbF
96
Iron deficiency anemia may be distinguished from anemia of chronic infection by:
TIBC
97
Which antibiotic is most often implicated in the development of aplastic anemia?
Chloramphenicol
98
Which of the following is a pure red cell aplasia?
Diamond-Blackfan anemia
99
Laboratory findings in acute hemolytic anemia:
Hemoglobinemia and Hemoglobinuria
100
Wich antibiotic is most often implicated in the development of aplastic anemia
Chloramphenicol
101
Which of the following is a pure red cell aplasia?
Diamond-Blackfan anemia
102
Laboratory findings in acute hemolytic anemia:
Hemoglobinuria and Hemoglobinemia
103
In an anemia caused by hemorrhafe or hemolysis what would you expect to find in your laboratory investigation?
Presence of polychromatophilic macrocytes on the peripheral blood smear
104
Spherocytes may be seen in the peripheral blood of patients with:
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
105
Hemolytic anemia caused by intrinsic caused by intrinsic erythrocyte abnormalities include:
Hereditary spherocytosis
106
Rouleaux of red blood cells when seen in the monolayer of a blood smear is characteristic of:
Multiple Myeloma
107
A laboratory test that's always useful in the differential diagnosis of relative and absolute erythrocytosis is:
Red cell mass quantitation
108
PV is characterized by:
Absolute increase in total red cell mass
109
Relative polycythemia is characterized by:
Normal total red cell mass and Decreased plasma volume
110
Which of these hemoglobin derivatives cannot be reduced back to normal hemoglobin?
Sulfhemoglobin
111
Neutrophil granules contains:
- Myeloperoxidase
- Lysozome
- Lactoferrin
- ALP
112
Causes of monocytosis:
- SBE
- Tuberculosis
- Syphilis
113
In which of the following are eosinophils NOT increased?
Cushing syndrome
114
Which of the following is associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
Membrane defect of lysosomes
115
Which of the following is associated with Alder-Reilly inclusions?
Mucopolyssaccharidosis
116
Of the following, the disease most closely associated with pale blue inclusions in granulocytes and giant platelets is:
May-Hegglin anomaly
117
Of the following, the disease most closely associated with glucocerobrosidase deficiency is:
Gaucher's Disease
118
In the FAB classification, myelomonocytic leukemia would be:
M4
119
A cytogenic abnormality is found in almost 50% of the patients with which of the following classifications of acute nonlymphocytic leukemia?
M3
120
DIC is most often associated with which of the following FAB designation of acute leukemia?
M3
121
Which of the following stains is helpful in the diagnosis of suspected erythroleukemia?
Periodic Acid-Schiff
122
In the FAB classification, acute lymphocityc leukemia is divided into groups according to:
Morphology
123
The FAB classification of ALL seen most commonly in children is:
L1
