Intentional Torts Flashcards

1
Q

What is the general rule for “burden of proof”?

A

The plaintiff bears the burden to prove a case by a preponderance of the evidence. This means that the plaintiff first beras the burden to prove the facts of the case, referred to as the burden of persuasion, and the evidence must be enough to convince the court or jury that the defendant, more likely than not, is liable for the plaintiff’s injuries, referred to as the burden of production.

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2
Q

What is the general rule for an “act”?

A

An act is purposeful or volitional. The defenandant must be conscious at the time of the act.

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3
Q

When are acts not sufficient to cause liability?

A

Defendants are not liable for acts committed while unconcsicous, asleep, or under coercion.

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4
Q

What is the general rule for “intent”?

A

Intent is either specific, by the defendant targeting a [consequence] at the plaintiff, or general, where the defendant should have substantial cetainty that the [consequence] will occur to someone.

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5
Q

Can intent be precluded by mistake, insanity, or age?

A

A defendant’s intent cannot be precluded by mistake, insanity, or age, unless the defendant lacks the capacity to understand what it is that he is doing.

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6
Q

What is the transferred intent doctrine?

A
  • Intent “follows the bullet” in a wrongful action
  • One tort to another. If no intent for one tort, there is nothing to transfer.
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7
Q

What is the broad and general rule for battery?

A

A battery is a tort where one person intends to touch another. For a battery claim to prevail, the plaintiff must prove, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the defendant acted with intent to cause contact (or apprehension of contact) which the plaintiff finds the contact harmful or offensive.

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8
Q

How is causation determined in a battery claim?

A

Causation is determined in a battery claim by the defendant’s use of either direct force, such as the defendant’s fist hitting the plaintiff, or indirect force, such as the defendant breaking glass which hits the plaintiff.

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9
Q

How is contact defined in a battery claim? What can be contacted with?

A

The contact must be with with the plaintiff’s body or belongings which are close enough to constitute an extension of the plaintiff’s body, such as a purse or a camera in hand.

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10
Q

What makes a contact harmful or offensive in a battery claim?

A

Harmful contact is that which causes pain, illness, or other change in function or structure to the plaintiff’s body. Offensive contact would offend the dignity of a person of ordinary sensibilities.

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11
Q

What are 6 examples of defenses to battery which are not effective?

A
  • Consent is presumed in minor touchings warranted by social usages and determined by factors like time, place, relationship, degree of force, etc.
  • Age and insanity, unless defendant lacks capacity.
  • Sensitivities of the plaintiff, unelss the defendant knows.
  • Contributory negligence
  • Good motives
  • When the plaintiff is unaware of the contact
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12
Q

What are the broad and general rules of assault?

A

An assault is a tort where a person is apprehensive of a contact. For a claim of assault to prevail, the plaintiff must prove, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the defendant acted with intent to cause apprehension of an immediate or imminent harmful or offensive contact.

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13
Q

When would the apprehension element not be satisfied?

A

When the defendant’s act would not cause a person of ordinary sensibilities to be apprehensive (unless the defendant knew of the plaintiff’s supersensitivities) and when the plaintiff is unaware of the act.

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14
Q

When is the element requiring a threat of immediate or imminent contact not satisfied? (4)

A
  • When the defendant does not have the present apparent ability to carry out the threat (factual inability is irrelevant)
  • Words alone without actions are insufficient
  • When a threat is conditional
  • When it is a threat of future harm
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15
Q

What are the broad and general rules of intentional infliction of emotional distress?

A

IIED is a tort where a person suffers severe emotional distress because of another’s actions. For a claim of IIED to prevail, the plaintiff must prove, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the defendant acted intentionally or recklessly through extreme and outrageous conduct to cause the plaintiff severe emotional distress.

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16
Q

What is the burden of proof for IIED?

A

The burden of proof for a claim of IIED is held to a more demanding standard than by a preponderance of the evidence due to the outrageousness of the conduct and severity of the result.

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17
Q

How is intent proven in a claim for IIED?

A

Through (1) the defendant’s desire to cause severe emotional distress; (2) that the defendant knew or should know with substantial certainty that his actions would cause emotional distress; or (3) reckless disregard for the high probability that emotional distress would occur.

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18
Q

When does transferred intent apply to a claim of IIED? What are the exceptions?

A

Generally, it doesn’t, unless:
1. The plaintiff is an immediate family member of the victim and is present during the conduct;
2. The plaintiff is not an imediate family member of the victim but is present during the conduct and suffers bodily harm as a result of witnessing the conduct; or
3. The defendant acts with purpose or knowledge to cause a third party harm or reckless indifference to circusmtances highly likely to distress a third party.

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19
Q

What is required of causation in an IIED claim?

A

There can be no other intervening cause for the severe emotional distress.

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20
Q

What constitutes extreme and outrageous conduct for purposes of IIED?

A

Beyond all bounds of decency, atrocious, intolerable in a civilized community

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21
Q

When may the degree of outrageousnes be lowered in a claim for IIED?

A
  1. When the defendant knows the plaintiff is an individual with heightened sensibilities (children, pregnant women, the mental inform);
  2. When the defendant knows of the plaintiff’s sensitivities, even when not otherwise obvious; or
  3. When there is a special relationship between the plaintiff and defendant (e.g. common carriers, innkeepers, utility)
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22
Q

When will words alone support a claim of IIED?

A

When there is a special relationship AND a gross insult AND the defendant knows the plaintiff is a member of a group of heightened sensibilities

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23
Q

What is the continuing tort doctrince, and how does it apply to IIED?

A

The continuing tort doctrine states that the statute of limitations for a serious of tortious acts begins on the date of the last of tortious act. For IIED, outrage can be an accumulation occurring as a result of the series of torts. Each event does not have to reach the level of outrage required.

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24
Q

What is severe emotional distress? How is it proven?

A

That which a person of ordinary sensibilities could not be expected to endure. Duration and intensity are proven by evidence such as doctor’s visits, medications, and other treatments.

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25
Q

What damages may be assessed under a claim of IIED? Do they require proof?

A

Damages always require proof for IIED. The majority allows punitive damages for a claim of IIED. The defendant may also be liable for any bodily harm to the plaintiff and expenses incurred as a result of such.

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26
Q

What are the broad and general rules for false imprisonment?

A

False imprisonment is a tort where a person is confined by another. For a claim of false imprisonment to prevail, the plaintiff must prove, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the defendant acted intentionally to cause the confinement of the plaintiff or a third person within boundaries fixed by the defendant of which the plaintiff had knowledge of or was harmed by.

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27
Q

When is a defendant not liable for false imprisonment?

A

A defendant is not liable for false imprisonment if he lacks the requisite intent but causes a transitory or otherwise harmless confinement, even if negligent of or reckless to a risk which threatens bodily harm.

28
Q

How is causation proven in a claim of false imprisonment?

A

The plaintiff must prove that the defendant caused the confinement through imposition of barriers, physical force, threats of physical force to plaintiff or family, or by asserted legal authority.

29
Q

What does not justify causation in false imprisonment?

A

Words alone do not constitute false imprisonment. Shame, emotional duress, and financial duress usually do not justify false imprisonment.

30
Q

What is complete confinement as required by false imprisonment?

A

Complete confinement is that which the plaintiff has no reasonable means of escape, or if a reasonable means of escape exists but the plaintiff does not know about it.

31
Q

What are fixed boundaries as required by false imprisonment? What isn’t a fixed boundary?

A

Boundaries may be large or even immobile and do not necessarily require walls to constitute boundaries. However, exclusion from one area would not constitute fixed boundaries.

32
Q

How is the plaintiff’s knowledge of or harm by confinement proven? How can knowledge be challenged?

A

The plaintiff has knowledge of confinement if he is conscious and aware of the confinement at the time the confinement happens. Harm by confinement is that which causes pain, illness, or change in structure or function of the plaintiff’s body.

Knowledge can be argued by the plaintiff’s capacity, or inability, to akcnowledge confinement.

33
Q

What losses may be compensated under a claim for false imprisonment?

A

Loss of time, phyisical discomfort, inconvenience, bodily harm due to a reasonable escape, loss of business and business opportunities.

34
Q

What are the broad and general rules for trespass to chattels and conversion?

A

Trespass to chattels and conversion are torts where a person has interfered with another’s personal property. For a claim of trespass to chattels to prevail, the plaintiff must prove, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the defendant acted intending to affect the plaintiff’s chattel through a minor interference with the plaintiff’s possessory rights by dispossession, use, or physical contact. Absent dispossession, damage in the form of substantial loss of use or impairment of conditions, quality, or value. For conversion, the plaintiff must prove that the interference was major.

35
Q

What does the plaintiff not have to prove for a succesful claim of trespass to chattels or conversion?

A

The plaintiff does not have to prove ownership, only possessory rights greater than that of the defendant.

36
Q

What are chattels? What aren’t chattels?

A

Chattels are tangible, movable property and can include documents into which a title are merged and documents that convey the value of a chattel. Human tissue, real property, intellectual property, or other intangible assets (e.g. trade secrets) are not included.

37
Q

What are the 5 factors used to determine the seriousness of an interference?

A
  1. The extent of the defendant’s dominion or control over the property;
  2. The defendant’s intent to assert a right inconsistent with the plaintiff’s right to the property;
  3. The defendant’s good intentions;
  4. The extent and duration of the interference; and
  5. Inconvenience and expense to the plaintiff.
38
Q

What is dispossession?

A

Dispossession occurs when the defendant intentionally takes a chattel without permission through force, fraud, or duress; by barring access; destroying; or taking into the custody of the law.

39
Q

What is the election of remedies, and how does it affect a plaintiff’s recovery for trespass to chattels or conversion?

A

The election of remedies is the idea that a plaintiff can recover for either trespass to chattels or conversion but not both. The plaintiff can choose which to recover under. Potential remedies are (a) return of the item, (b) return of the item with cost of repairs, (c) full compensation for the item, and (d) punitive damages for malicious, spiteful, mean-spirited interference.

40
Q

When are bailees liable for conversion? When are they not? What is the bailee’s remedy?

A
  • Bailees are liable when the chattel is received with notice of the rightful owner’s claim or when redilvering to the bailor with notice of the rightful owner’s claim.
  • Bailees are not liable when the chattel is received without notice of the rightful owner’s claim, redelivered to the bailor without notice of the rightful owner’s claim, or redelivered to the true owner.
  • Bailees faced with adverse claims may give the chattel to the court or by the “Registry of the Court”
41
Q

When are good faith purchasers liable for conversion? When are they not?

A
  • Liable when the item was originally stolen.
  • Not liable when the item was originally obtained by fraud.
42
Q

What is the discovery rule and how does it affect a conversion claim?

A

The discovery rule delays the statute of limitations. For conversion, the statute of limitations begins accrual at the first conversion or when the conversion is discovered with reasonable diligence. Multiple conversions does not stack.

43
Q

What are nominal damages? What are their requirements?

A

Nominal damages may be awarded to vindicate the plaintiff’s technical right and do not require proof of losses.

44
Q

What are compensatory damages?What are their requirements?

A

Compensatory damages are awarded for proven losses (wages, medical expenses, and pain and suffering).

45
Q

What are punitive damages? What are their requirements?

A

Punitive damages are rare and awareded as punishment to the defendant for reckless, willful, or wanton behavior and are held to the burden of proof of clear and convincing evidence.

46
Q

What is consent and how does it interact with all intentional torts?

A

Consent is a total bar to liability. The plaintiff bears the burden to prove a lack of consent. Consent may be expressly given by the plaintiff to the defendant, made apparent from the plaintiff’s conduct, or implied in a medical emergency when the plaintiff is otherwise unable to provide express consent.

47
Q

When is consent not effective? (5)

A
  • When it is exceeded, meaning it is no longer the conduct the plaintiff originally consented to
  • When it is to something illegal, because nobody has the right to consent to that which is prohibited by the law
  • When it is given under duress
  • When the plaintiff lacks the capacity to consent (child, mentally deficient)
  • When the consent is given as a result of a mistake by the plaintiff AND the mistake is known or induced by the defendant
48
Q

What is required for a succesful self-defense claim?

A

Anyone other than the aggressor who anticipates immediate physical harm may use reasonable force in self-defense.

49
Q

What is reasonable force?

A

Nothing beyond the force you’re met with.

50
Q

When is deadly force justified?

A

Use of deadly force is justified only by a threat of deadly force and retreat may be required.

51
Q

What are the 4 factors of reasonability for self-defense?

A
  1. The amount of force the aggressor asserted;
  2. The means or the object by which the aggressor applied force;
  3. The manner or method used by the aggressor to apply force; and
  4. The surrounding circumstances under which the defender apllied force (size, age, gender, etc.)
52
Q

What is the effect of any mistake of fact by the defender in an instance of self-defense?

A

The privilege of self-defense even exists when the defender reasonably but mistakenly believes the self-defense is necessary. Relevant factors include the circumstances of the event and past history or relationship between the parties.

53
Q

What is required for a successful claim of defense of others?

A

Anyone who believes force is necessary to protect another may use reasonable force to do so.

54
Q

Does a mistake destroy the privilege of defense of others?

A

Authority split on whether mistake destroys the privilege. Generally there is a restricted right to intervene, but some states have enacted criminal codes to allow it.

55
Q

What is required for a successful claim of defense of property?

A
  • One can use reasonable force to prevent a tort against property
  • Usually have to ask the tortfeasor to stop or return the property before the application of force, unless demand would be futile or might be dangerous
  • Cannot cause serious bodily harm or death unless the tort committed also puts you at risk

May be superseded by other privileges like necessity.

56
Q

Can mechanical devices (e.g. electric fence, barbed wire) be used to protect property?

A

ONLY IF they do not employ deadly force or risk of serious bodily harm and ONLY IF there is a serious threat of death or bodily harm to the homeowner or family and ONLY IF the use of such is reasonable and necessary under the circumstances AND you give adequate warning

57
Q

When can you use deadly force to protect property? (3)

A
  • When the intrusion also in fact constitutes a threat of death or serious bodily harm to the person of the homeowner or family.
  • When the intrustion is not privileged
  • Prior to use of force, the homeowner demands the tortfeaso desist or leave and the demand is ignored
58
Q

What is necessary for a succesful defense of recapture of chattels?

A

Reasonable force used to retake property that was taken by force, fraud, or other tortious conduct if the tort is discovered promptly and there is a fresh pursuit.

59
Q

What is required for a successful claim of the detention for investigation, shopkeeper’s privilege? Is it destroyed by mistake? Who can assert the privilege?

A

If a merchant reasonably believes someone has shoplifted, they can detain them for investigation using reasonable force and for the time necessary for a reasonable investigation.

Privilege is not destroyed by mistake and can be extended to non-merchants.

60
Q

What standard is required for a proper arrest? For shopkeeper’s privilege?

A

Probable cause
Reasonable suspicion

61
Q

What is necessary for a succesful public necessity claim?

A

When action is necessary to avert a public disaster, a person is completely privileged to interfere with land or chattels, and a person resisting the use of force, including reasonable/deadly force.

62
Q

What is necessary for a succesful claim of private necessity? Is the defendant still liable for anything?

A

Where an act is necessary to protect any person from death or serious injury, or land or chattel from destruction or injury, a person has the privilege to enter land or interfere with chattels, even to use reasonable or deadly force to enter the property. BUT the privilege is incomplete in that the person will be liable for all damages to property or chattels sustained in the exercise of the privilege.

63
Q

What is the unlawful conduct defense?

A

Historically, one has not been barred from recovery for interference with his legally protected interests merely because he was committing a tort or crime. But it can trigger a defense such as contributory negligence or another privilege.

64
Q

How do courts treat the unlawful conduct defense? What are the 5 factors addressed in the various statutes?

A

There is no majority or minority rule. States have various statutes addressing:
1. The nature of the criminal conduct that triggers the rule;
2. Theories of recovery that are barred;
3. The types of claims that are precluded;
4. How closely the criminal conduct must be related to the injuries for which recovery is sought; and
5. Whether there must have been a prior adjudication of criminal responsibility.

65
Q

What are examples of other terminology used for the unlawful conduct defense? (3)

A
  • In pari delicto: there is no recourse among wrongdoers
  • Unclean hands: bars equitable claims (e.g. fee forfeiture)
  • The plaintiff’s criminal conduct is the sole cause of any harm that befalls the plaintiff
66
Q

What is the general justification defense?

A

When conduct does not fall within the other categories of defenses or privileges, a general justification may be made for the defendant.

67
Q

What are the 4 factors used to determine whether a general justification defense is appropriate?

A
  1. The need for the defendant to protect people or property;
  2. The defendant’s duty to aid in apprehending wrongdoers;
  3. The manner and place of the occurrence; and
  4. The feasibility of alternate courses of action.